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Public Health > Food Safety > Flashcards

Food Safety Flashcards

1
Q

What are two classifications of dents?

A

Major/ Minor Defects

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2
Q

What causes buckling on both sides of a can?

A

Excessive head space or under filling can

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3
Q

What is a flipper defect in a can?

A

Can that appears normal but has little to no vaccumm

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4
Q

What causes a springer can condition?

A

Caused by gas production either from microbial or chemical action.

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5
Q

What is a sweller can defect?

A

Critical; where both ends of the can are distended at the same time

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6
Q

Describe a buckled can defect?

A

Can being overfilled or pressurized to the extent that internal pressure causes sides and ends to distend.

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7
Q

What is spangling?

A

Dark grey discoloration/ etching of tin part of can

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8
Q

List the varieties of plastics used to protect foods?

A

Nylon,Mylar, Scotch- PAK, Polythylene, Polypropylene, Polysyne, Saran, Polyvylin Chlrodie

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9
Q

List the advantages of using food glass containers?

A

Strongest materials in its virgin form, inexpensive , chemically inter, transparent, can take any shape/ form

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10
Q

How can breakage be minimized when using glass food containers?

A

Using proper thickness, coating treatments such as waxes and silicones

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11
Q

Why is paper bleached, coated, impregnated with waxes, lacquers, plastics, and laminations of thin metals such as aluminum foil?

A

To improve its water vapor/ gas impermeability/ fertility, tear resistance, grease resistance, sealability, burst strength, and appearance

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12
Q

List the four basic types of refrigeration used in cooling foods?

A

Room cooling, hydro coating, vacuum cooling, and icing

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13
Q

What are the three separate storage room temperature requirements for storing chilled foods?

A

32-35 Farenheight (0-1.67 Celcius) 45-50 Farenheight( 7-10 Celcius) and foods stored in AC between 50-80 Farenheigh (10-27 Celcius)

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14
Q

What happens to foods stored in a refrigerator with low humidity?

A

Foods dry out or lose moisture to the air in the refrigerator or sink

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15
Q

Why should onions be separated from foods like eggs and apples?

A

Easily absorbs odor

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16
Q

How far away from the wall and ceiling should pallets of food be stored in a refrigeration unit?

A

At least 4 inches from the wall and 24 inches from the ceiling

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17
Q

What is the purpose of segregating either frozen or chilled bad food items such as a rotten potato from the good food?

A

Prevent entire food lot from becoming either rotten absorbing the smell of the rotten potatoe

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18
Q

What is the purpose of storing food in a controlled atmosphere?

A

Storage life of many products can be increased

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19
Q

What are required wall and ceiling clearance from the tallest container in the semipresihable or dry storage warehouse

A

At least 6 to 8 inches from the walls and at least 18 inches from the ceiling.

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20
Q

List the requirements and functions that containers must meet to protect foods

A

Non-Toxic, Sanitary, Protecting from moisture, gas, odor, light, and an unwanted intrusion

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21
Q

What does hermetic mean?

A

Container that is imperishable to or not allowing the entry of gas/vapors

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22
Q

What not only offers protection for the food product but also allows high-speed production

A

Cans

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23
Q

What thin coating might be added to the steel can to prevent corrosion?

A

A thin coating of tin over the steel

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24
Q

What causes of hydrogen swell reaction in a steel can?

A

The reaction between food and steel produces hydrogen gas, which can distend cans.

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25
Q

How can aluminum cans be strengthened just prior to final closure?

A

Injecting a small amount of liquid nitrogen, into the can; gas extends providing internal pressure.

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26
Q

What is one advantage of using aluminum cans for food storage?

A

Aluminum is mixed with oxygen it forms aluminum oxide preventing corrosion

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27
Q

What is a critical can defect

A

Defects that affect products safely

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28
Q

What temperature in the thermal or heating processing begins to kill pathogenic bacteria?

A

At least 140 Farenheight ( 60 Celcius ) will start to kill pathogenic material

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29
Q

Why are canned foods vacuum packed?

A

Reduces stress on the container during heat processing, holds the ends in collapse concave positiion.

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30
Q

What heating process prevents canned food from being cooked to the can wall at high temperatures and prevents harming the product?

A

Agitation

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31
Q

What important function does the seal on canned food provide?

A

Protecting the product from contamination

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32
Q

What is pasteurazation?

A

Using heat treatment, to eliminate either pathogenic organism, and extend products shelf life.

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33
Q

What is the difference between pasteurization and commercial sterilization

A

Temps below 212 F( 100 c) is pasteurization

Temps above 212 F(100 c) is sterilization

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34
Q

What method of pasteurization is used, and for how many seconds is mil heated to 161 F (72 C(

A

Flash method brings ilk to 161 F for 15 seconds

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35
Q

What do beer, wine, and fruit juices have in common concerning pathogenic organisms?

A

Do not normally carry pathogenic organisms

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36
Q

What is blanching

A

Heat treatment used on fruits, veggies, to inactivate food enzymes bypassing products water steam at temps of 190 F to 212 F

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37
Q

Most organisms are controlled at what temperatures for doos preservation?

A

41 F (5C) or lower

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38
Q

Refrigeration and freezing have little to no effect on what attributes of food?

A

Taste, Texture and nutritive value

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39
Q

What control problem can cause psychrophilic organisms to grow?

A

Air containing too much humidity can cause moisture to condense on surfaces of food, allowing the psychrophilic organism to grow

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40
Q

What are the different methods of drying and dehydrating food?

A

Solar drying, drum or roller drying, hot air drying, freezer drying, concentration

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41
Q

With solar drying what must ll products be protected from?

A

Rain, birds, dust, insects, and halophilic bacterium

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42
Q

In drum or roller food drying process, what is the thin later or liquefied food run through?

A

The revolving heated drum

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43
Q

What hot air drying method is commonly used for milk coffee and egg albumen?

A

Spray drying

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44
Q

What is the process of sublimation in freeze-drying

A

The ice under vacuum conditions, dispitales directly as a water vapor

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45
Q

Define concentration?

A

Removing water from a product without it actually being changed to a dry state

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46
Q

What are the three basic chemical changes made through fermentation?

A

Ascidulation, the oxidation of nitrogenous organic compounds, and the decomposition of starches, sugars into the alcohol.

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47
Q

What acid is used to make cucumbers into pickles and cabbages into sauekraut?

A

Lactic Acid

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48
Q

What acid can convert products high in sugar such as wine, cider, honey into vinegar

A

Acetic/ Acid

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49
Q

In the united states what food preservation technique is being studied because of consumer concerns over the use of pesticides and other chemicals used in or on foods?

A

Food Irradiation

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50
Q

What are the objectives of using ionizing radiation on foods?

A

Control ceratin parasites in beef and pork slow maturation in FF and V provide microbial disinfection.

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51
Q

What can the various applications of food irradiation be classified by?

A

Dosage

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52
Q

What is a major cause of FBI in this country?

A

Salmonella

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53
Q

What challenges will the PH field face with the consumption of irradiated foods?

A

Enforcing standards, obtaining data on possible death hazards.

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54
Q

What is a controlled atmosphere?

A

Regulation of oxygen and CO2 for storage of fresh food

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55
Q

Another example of a controlled atmosphere would be the use of ethylene gas on bananas, what is the effect of the gas on the bananas?

A

Stimulates the ripening it changes the color of bananas from green to yellow. Gas brings out the sweetness of bananas

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56
Q

What two things can a controlled atmosphere change

A

Rate of microbial and enzymatic spoilage

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57
Q

What age-old practice goes back to pre-historic times concern meats?

A

Smoking meats next to smoke vents. Smoke is now added to add flavor to food.

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58
Q

How does the federal law define a food additive?

A

Any substance intended use of which results in the change or affects characteristics of the food.

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59
Q

What is curing

A

Preserving food by adding salts and other substances to inhibit microbial growth

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60
Q

What is dry curing

A

adding salts, nitrates or nitrates to food product to inhibit microbial growth

61
Q

Another name for wet cure/ same ingredients as dry cure

A

Pickle cure

62
Q

What is a common characteristic of under-curing a food product?

A

Brown or gray ish green color to poor reaction with nitrates and meat due to pigment

63
Q

What does sugar in high concentrations do to foods?

A

Reduces Aw

64
Q

Why are chemicals added to foods?

A

Preserve characteristics of that food. Chemicals preserve and change the flavor, color, taste, and texture of the food.

65
Q

What is a common use for propionic acids and propionates?

A

Used to prevent mold growth on baked goods, cheese, in artificially sweetened jams, jellies, and preserves.

66
Q

What type of organism causes the most vegetable spoilage?

A

Bacteria

67
Q

What does blue rot look like oranges?

A

Soft watery, tan to light brown areas, moldy, musty odor.

68
Q

What does bacteria metabolizing sugars in food produce

A

Levans, and dextrans

69
Q

What conditions does flavor deteriorate include

A

Rancidity, Putrefaction, Souring, Gassing

70
Q

What causes rancidity in meats?

A

Hydrossi or oxidation

71
Q

What is putrefaction?

A

Type of spoilage where bacteria metabolize meat proteins or free amino acids

72
Q

What causes a sour flavor in meat?

A

Anaerobic bacteria in meat metabolizing causing lactic acid brings down PH.

73
Q

What are the three types of greening in meat

A

Green cores, Green rings, Surface Greening

74
Q

How does the greening of meat occur

A

Lactobacillus, Viridences produce, hydrogen peroxide, which turns it green

75
Q

How are the greening organisms destroyed during processing?

A

Cooking the meat to an internal temperature of 160 Farenheight which is 71 Celcius

76
Q

Describe green rings as it pertains to meat

A

Varying depths within meats

77
Q

Why doesn’t surface greening occur in vacuum-packed meats?

A

Since bacteria is aerobic.

78
Q

How does slime appear on non vacuum packaged meats?

A

Sticky to touch, give off yeast like odors

79
Q

Why should meats with molds be discarded or trimmed?

A

Some molds produce cariogenic substances also known as aflatoxins that are extremely toxic.

80
Q

At 32 F (0C) how long can fresh fish be kept

A

7 Days

81
Q

After death explain what causes the typical fishy odor of fish?

A

Trimethymane is a breakdown of fats, protein in fish

82
Q

Why do fish struggling before being caught cause the PH to be higher?

A

Glycogen is depleted which is usually broken down into lactic acid fewer amounts of lactic acid the PH is higher

83
Q

How is knowing the formation of an egg helpful?

A

Helps explain defects on eggs

84
Q

Why are shell eggs porous?

A

Allow gas to pass in and out of the egg

85
Q

Why is Salmonella found inside an egg?

A

Found in the reproductive tract, it can easily enter the shell as it is forming?

86
Q

Most organisms that affect the flavor of milk belong to what species and coliform?

A

Pseudomonas, Flarobacterium, Chrombacterium, Alcaligenes

87
Q

What is spoilage problems associated with soft-serve ice cream?

A

The time between pasteurization and consumption. Temperature abuse and possible contamination,

88
Q

What are the most common spoilage organisms associated with cheese?

A

Molds, yeast, anaerobic spore formers that can oxidate lactate, and various proteins and fat products.

89
Q

What can cause gas production during cheese processing?

A

Using raw milk, inadequate heat treatment, slow acid production by the starter bacteria such as Streptococcus lactis.

90
Q

What are carbohydrates and proteases used for in the baking industry?

A

Converting proteins to amino acids for improving the dough in baking.

91
Q

What are some examples of undesirable microorganism changes?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, salmonella Typhimurium, clostridium per fringe

92
Q

What are the favorable temperatures for salmonella growth?

A

40 to 115

93
Q

How soon after the ingestion of salmonella-contaminated foods will illness symptoms occur?

A

6-72 HRS with an average to 12 to 36 hours

94
Q

What are the symptoms of a streptococcal infection transmitted through food?

A

Red Sore throat, high fever, vomiting

95
Q

What is a common inhabitant of the intestinal tract of cattle, swine, sheep, chickens, turkeys, and other animals such as dogs, cats, rodents, and monkeys?

A

C.J EJUNI

96
Q

What are the symptoms if a person is infected with C, Jejuni

A

Nausea, abdominal cramps, headache, fever, diarrhea, might get bloody if severe

97
Q

What are the manifestations of Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Meningitis, abortion, prenatal septicemia, permanent mental deficiency, death.

98
Q

Why is L. monocytogenes an important pathogen?

A

Survive for a long time, or under adverse conditions grow while refrigerated

99
Q

What is a realistic and satisfactory positive control for an internal cooking temperature for pork products?

A

170 F

100
Q

What is the most common cause of foodborne intoxications?

A

Bacteria

101
Q

How is the toxin produced from Staphyloccocus organisms destroyed?

A

Nothing will destroy it

102
Q

What causative agent lives in decaying matter, soil, lake silt, and is often found in the animal intestinal tract?

A

C.Botulinum

103
Q

Cooked meats and poultry have been the chief offender in foodborne illness outbreaks for what organism?

A

C.perfrienges

104
Q

What are the symptoms of C. Perfringens foodborne illness?

A

Acute abdominal pain, gas, diarrhea, chills, fever

105
Q

In a refrigerated storage unit, what is the best control measure for cooling foods until the ideal temperature is reached?

A

Leave foods uncovered

106
Q

What factors must be present for a food-borne illness to occur?

A

An agent a vehicle, susceptible consumer and abuse of food handling procedure.

107
Q

What factors determine the effect a food pathogen has on an individual?

A

Size age health eating habits close of pathogen

108
Q

How often should you exercise your bases foodborne illness investigation plan?

A

Annually

109
Q

What organizations develop a notification plan or recall roster in case of a foodborne illness outbreak?

A

MTF

110
Q

What must be present first for a food-borne illness to occur?

A

Infective agent, or pathogen

111
Q

What should the patient interview identify after an outbreak of a foodborne illness?

A

Common meal or facility

112
Q

After notification of a foodborne illness, when should a sanitary evaluation be conducted at a suspected facility?

A

Immediately after interviewing patients and finding a common facility, meal, and food.

113
Q

What two PH means teams collect food samples after a foodborne illness?

A

PH interview and collecting food sample team.

114
Q

Where can you get help investigating a foodborne illness?

A

AFIOH, SDE

115
Q

On what form do you record food history for each individual interviewed?

A

AF FORM 431

116
Q

What prominent factors have an impact on microbial activity?

A

Nutrients, natural inhibitors, microbial flora

117
Q

What do cranberries have a relatively high concentration of?

A

Benzoic Acid

118
Q

What does a PH value of 7 present?

A

Neutral, not acidic or alkaline

119
Q

What becomes the dominant microorganisms as the pH drops in foods?

A

Yeast, and molds

120
Q

In what PH condition do molds grow better in?

A

Acidic

121
Q

What most often causes meat spoilage?

A

Bacteria

122
Q

What happens during fermentation that affects the PH level

A

Nonharmful bacteria breakdown carbohydrates in food to lactic acid(PH drops)

123
Q

What is one of the most important environmental conditions influencing microbial growth?

A

Temperature

124
Q

What are three temperature groupings or microorganisms?

A

Psychrophiles, Mesophiles, Thermophiles

125
Q

What temperature grouping promotes microbial growth at relatively low temperatures?

A

Psychrophiles

126
Q

Thermophile microorganisms grow relatively well at what temperature range?

A

High

127
Q

What is psychrotroph

A

A microorganism that grownbest at moderate temperatures, can also grow at low temps

128
Q

What are the four bacterial growth phases?

A

Lag, Log, Stationary and decline

129
Q

Describe the lag phase of bacterial growth?

A

It is the 1st phase of bacterial growth no increase in numbers of cells and bacteria are adjusting to new environment

130
Q

What happens during the log phase of bacterial growth?

A

Bacteria grow logarthimacilly or very rapidly

131
Q

What bacterial growth phase begins when cells start dying because of the accumulation of waste materials and depletion of nutrients?

A

Aerobic microorganism

132
Q

What are two ways water exists in foods?

A

Bound and free

133
Q

What is Aw in foods?

A

Measurement of availability of water for chemical reactions and microbial metabolism.

134
Q

What is halophilic bacteria?

A

Salt-Loving bacteria

135
Q

What are the three methods typically used to lower Aw

A

Foods are dried or dehydrated frozen or treated with a solute of sugar or salt

136
Q

What does a microorganism at optimum temperature for growth provide?

A

For the microorganisms to grow at lower Aqw values

137
Q

What substance is a catalyst that breaks down substrates such as carbohydrates fats and proteins in foods?

A

Enzymes; either enzymes from the food itself or enzymes from microorganisms in food

138
Q

What food process are beneficial enzymes involved in?

A

Ripening fruits, and vegetables

139
Q

What items in the food industry inhibit enzymes involved?

A

Preservatives, antibiotics, inhibitors, poisons, insecticides

140
Q

What does it indicate if phosphatase is found in milk?

A

The efficiency of milk pasteurization was poor

141
Q

What causes the most food spoilage?

A

Microorganisms

142
Q

What are spherical-shaped bacterial called?

A

Cocci

143
Q

What are rod-shaped bacteria called?

A

Bacilli

144
Q

If you start with 1,000 bacteria, how many will you have after 10 minutes

A

2,000

145
Q

What conditions can endospores resist?

A

Heat, Cold, Dyring and many disinfections

146
Q

What do fungi secrete to meet their metabolic needs?

A

Digestive enzymes

147
Q

What is the mass of hyphae called that makes up a mold colony?

A

Mycelium

148
Q

How does yeast reproduce?

A

By a process call budding which is where a smaller cell is pinched off from a larger existing yeast cell

Public Health (5 decks)

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