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Public Health > Comm Health > Flashcards

Comm Health Flashcards

1
Q

Influenza

A

An acute, febrile respiratory infection manifestations with three subtypes

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2
Q

What’re minor changes to an influenza virus commonly called?

A

Antigenic drift

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3
Q

What’s the average influenza incubation period?

A

1-3 days

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4
Q

Which project did the AF institute in response to influenza?

A

Project Gargle

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5
Q

What’s the purpose of the Influenza Surveillance Program?

A

Identity new strains

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6
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Communicable disease that affects the lungs

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7
Q

What’s the causative pulmonary tuberculosis organism?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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8
Q

How’s the tuberculosis spread or transmitted?

A

Inhaling droplet nuclei

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9
Q

What’s the three stages of tuberculosis?

A

Infection/dormancy/actile

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10
Q

What occurs during the dormant phase of tuberculosis?

A

Fatigue, weight loss, fever, chills, night sweats, loss of appetite and cough

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11
Q

What test is used to screen AF personnel for tuberculosis?

A

Mantoux

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12
Q

When do positive reactions to the Mantoux test occur?

A

48-72 hours after test

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13
Q

What does the acronym BCG stand for and what is it?

A

Bacille-Calmaye Guerin/ First live vaccine against TB

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14
Q

What’s the purpose of a BCG vaccination?

A

Prevent TB by introducing non-harmful infection

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15
Q

What’s the effect of a BCG vaccination on TSTs?

A

Positive ski test for about 10 years/ 10 years negative

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16
Q

What test is performed to confirm active TB?

A

Sputum Cultures

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17
Q

What Medication is used to prevent active TB?

A

INH

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18
Q

What’s the most serious side affect of INH?

A

Drug induced Hepatitis

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19
Q

What are two Of PH’s primary responsibilities for managing the TB detection and control program?

A

Educate and administration of programs

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20
Q

What’re the three different stages of Syphilis?

A

Primary, secondary and late

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21
Q

What’s the causative agent for syphilis?

A

Spirochete (Trepenoma Pallidum)

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22
Q

What’s the average incubation time for syphilis?

A

21 days

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23
Q

What’s the most effective method used to identify syphilis in the primary stage?

A

Dark field microscopy

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24
Q

What’s one of the most effective nontreponemal serological tests?

A

VDRL

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25
Q

What does FTA-ABS stand for and how is it used?

A

Fluorescent trepenomal antibody-absorption

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26
Q

What occurs during the early latent stage of Syphilis?

A

Secondary lesions, stage goes on for 4 years/ 75% asymptotic

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27
Q

What causes Gonorrhea?

A

Nesseria Gonorrhea

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28
Q

What’re symptoms associated with uncomplicated male genitalia gonorrhea?

A

Discharge, swollen, metaus ETC

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29
Q

What’s the term used to describe a gonorrhea infection of the Fallopian tubes?

A

Salpingitis

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30
Q

What’re the symptoms of oral or pharyngeal, gonorrhea?

A

Mild to server sore throat, fever or chills

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31
Q

What’s Gonorrhea septicemia and how does it develop?

A

Gonorrhea of blood stream

Develops when it leaves genital area/anal canal

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32
Q

Where are gram-negative diplococci found within a discharge sample in order to be defined as Gonorrhea?

A

Ultra-Cellular

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33
Q

What does a physician consider when deciding on a patients treatment for gonorrhea?

A

Acceptability, reliability, med effectiveness and side effects

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34
Q

When should a test of cure be performed for Gonorrhea patients?

A

If symptoms persist after treatment

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35
Q

What microorganisms cause Chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia Trachormitis

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36
Q

How’re chlamydia organisms like viruses? Like Bacteria?

A

Viruses-Grow intercellular divided by binary fissions

Bacteria- Contain RNA/DNA

37
Q

On average, how long does the chlamydia organism take to incubate?

A

7-14 days or longer

38
Q

Which two common conditions can infants develop from chlamydia exposure at birth?

A

Conjunctivitis/Pnemonia

39
Q

What method is the standard test for identifying chlamydia in genital infections?

A

Tissue Cultures

40
Q

When should a test of culture be performed for follow up treatment

A

Not recommended

41
Q

What body parts are usually affected with an HSV2 infection?

A

Genitals

42
Q

When can the herpes virus be shed?

A

During/after blisters are present

43
Q

What’s the average incubation period of herpes?

A

6-7 days

44
Q

What’re 4 causative agents for NGU?

A

Chlamydia, ureaplasma, HSV, vaginal

45
Q

What’s the average incubation period for NGU?

A

2-3 weeks

46
Q

What’s Vaginits?

A

Inflammation of the vagina

47
Q

What’re the symptoms associated with vaginitis?

A

Heavily foul discharge, irritation, soreness, itchiness.

48
Q

What’s LGV?

A

STD, lymphatic, system (affects both genders)

49
Q

What usually happens if LGV isn’t tested within 30 days?

A

Lymph nodes in groin swell, forming painful bubo

50
Q

Which three species of lice infect humans?

A

Head( Pediculosis)
Body(Corpis)
Crab(Pubis)

51
Q

What three diseases maybe found with lice infestations?

A

Typhus fever
Trench fever
Relapsing fever

52
Q

How do the HIV cells work?

A

Use enzyme called reverse transcriptase to copy viral genetic material from RNA-DNA

53
Q

What cells in the immune response system does HIV kill?

A

T4 & Macrophanges/Monocytes

54
Q

How can HIV be transmitted?

A

Injection, sexual contact and breast milk

55
Q

Who are the HIV risk groups?

A

Heterosexuals
Homosexuals
Bi-Sexuals
Prostitutes

56
Q

Which two diagnostic tests does the AF use to diagnose HIV?

A

Elisa/Western blot test

57
Q

What provides the best method of protection against HIV for people who do not maintain a mutually monogamous sexual relationship?

A

Proper use of condom

58
Q

What disease caused 60,000 casualties in 1942 during the war campaign in Guadalcanal?

A

Malaria

59
Q

What two major diseases led to disbanding Merrill’s Marauders?

A

Malaria and Dysentry

60
Q

What problem incapacitated the Allied and American units when they moved into an abandoned German war camp in North African Desert?

A

Poor sanitation caused fecal matter and garbage caused fly infestation.

61
Q

What were the causes of losing over 13,000 people during the invasion of Sicily before and after the attack?

A

Malaria and sand fly fever

62
Q

What are OOTWs?

A

Military actions conducted not associated with sustained large-scale combat operations

63
Q

What’re some of the conditions that lead to OOTWs?

A

Peace building, peace enforcement, peacekeeping and humanitarian relief

64
Q

What’s the incubation period for Hep A?

A

15-59 days, average of 28-30 days

65
Q

How can Hep A be transmitted?

A

Containment Food, water, milk, meats, salads, raw/uncooked mollusic

66
Q

What makes Hep A more severe than Hep B?

A

Effect on the body, anorexia, abdomen pain, discomfort, nausea and vomiting

67
Q

What’s the incubation period for Hep B?

A

45-180 days, average 60-90

68
Q

Which two tests are used to diagnose Hep B?

A

ELA and RIA

69
Q

Which disease coexists with an infection of Hep D?

A

Hep B

70
Q

What can people who have been exposed to Hep A be injected with as a prophylaxis measure?

A

Hep A vaccine (Immune Globulin)

71
Q

What’s the prophylaxis for people exposed to Hep B?

A

Injection with HBIG within 1 week of exposure

72
Q

What can lavatory workers, healthcare workers and blood bank workers be given to prevent Hep B infection?

A

HBV administered 3 series within 6 months

73
Q

What’s the purpose of an STI interview?

A

Break chain of infection

74
Q

What’re two keys to a successful interview?

A

Knowledge and controlling conversation

75
Q

What supplies are recommended for an interview room?

A

Phone, diagrams, references, pics, forms, worksheets, calendar, map, tissues, phonebooks we

76
Q

When a host is exposed to a ideas agent, what’re the three possible outcomes?

A
  1. No where to lodge
  2. No effect
  3. Great effect
77
Q

What’re the three main modes of entry used by disease agents to enter the body?

A

Ingestion, Inhalation, Penetration

78
Q

What’re the three parts to a chain of infection?

A

Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host

79
Q

What may serve as a source of infection?

A

Person, animal, object, substance

80
Q

What’re the two ways direct transmission can occur?

A

Direct contact/ droplet contact

81
Q

What’re three ways indirect transmission can occur?

A

Vehicle-borne, vector-borne, direct transmission

82
Q

What measures maybe used to break the chain of infection at each link?

A

Treatment, education, diagnosis, vaccines and meds

83
Q

How many stages are there for human symptoms of rabies?

A

5

84
Q

What’re the symptoms of the second stage of rabies?

A

Fever, headache, malaise, sore throat, cough and abdomen pain

85
Q

Why’s the fourth stage of rabies?

A

Coma

86
Q

The anti rabies immunizations are given before symptoms of what condition?

A

Encephalitis

87
Q

What’re the responsibilities of the Army Vet in the Rabies Control Program?

A

Quarantine animal and info on the incident.

88
Q

Which two immunizations are recommended for individuals who have been exposed to rabies?

A

HRIG/HDCV

89
Q

What tissue in an animal is examined for rabies virus?

A

Brain tissue

Public Health (5 decks)

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