Food Microbiology Flashcards

PH04-05

1
Q

name the foodborne bacterial pathogen

most frequent cause of foodborne outbreaks; highest number of cases & hospitalisations

(eggs, egg products, mixed foods)

A

Salmonella

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2
Q

name the foodborne bacterial pathogen

most frequently reported zoonosis;
most commonly reported GI pathogen in UK

(meat from chickens and turkeys)

A

Campylobacter

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3
Q

name the foodborne bacterial pathogen

most deaths

(dairy, meat products, fish)

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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4
Q

name the foodborne bacterial pathogen

(pork products, unoasteurised milk)

A

Yersinia enterocolotica

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5
Q

name the foodborne bacterial pathogen

(minced meat, unpasteruised milk, leafy greens, bean sprouts, water)

A

Shiga toxin-producing E. coli

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6
Q

name the 5 most common foodborne bacterial pathogens in the EU

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Campylobacter
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Yersinia enterocolitica
  5. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli
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7
Q

name the 3 important EU food safety legislations

A
  1. Regulation (EC) 852/2004 article 4
  2. Reguation (EC) 2073/2005
  3. Regulation (EU) 2017/625
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8
Q

name the safe food legislation

gives defined limits on presence or number of microbes or their metabolites in food;
ensures food is produced hygienically and is safe for the consumer BUT cannot guarantee food safety

A

Microbiological Criteria for Foodstuffs

Regulation (EC) 2073/2005

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9
Q

name the 2 types of criteria established in Regulation 2073/2005 (microbiological criteria for foodstuffs)

A
  1. process hygiene criteria
  2. food safety criteria
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10
Q

what happens when a food safety criterion is not met?

A

batch of food should be removed from and not placed on market

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11
Q

name the criteria established in Regulation 2073/2005

purpose for testing against this criteria is NOT to assess the fitness of individual carcases or processed meat for human consumption BUT to provide an indication of performance and control of the slaughter, dressing and production hygienic process at time of sampling;
applies to:
1. carcases
2. minced meat
3. meat preparations
4. mechanically separated met

A

process hygiene criteria

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12
Q

this is a measure of bacteria in the sample that can survive in the conditions on the surface of carcases or in processed meat;
includes bacteria arising both from animals and from the slaughterhouse or meat processing environment

(requirement of process hygiene criteria)

A

Aerobic Colony Count (ACC)

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13
Q

this is a grouping of bacteria that live in the intestines of animals and the environment
(includes E. coli and Salmonella)

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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14
Q

name the criteria established in Regulation 2073/2005

these have been set out for fresh poultry meat, minced meat, meat preparations, meat products and mechanically separated meat;
if criteria are exceeded, the batch tested is unsatisfactory and should be removed from the market (or not placed on the market)

A

Food safety criteria

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15
Q

demonstration of compliance with food safety criteria for meat and processed meat is required by the absence of Listeria monocytogenes in …

A

ALL ready-to-eat foods

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16
Q

demonstration of compliance with food safety criteria for meat and processed meat is required by the absence of Salmonella in …

A

carcases/meat

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17
Q

what is the only compulsory test for working surfaces when making ready-to-eat products under food safety criteria

A

for Listeria monocytogenes

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18
Q

what species of Campylobacter is responsible for 90% of human enteric illness

A

C. jejuni

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19
Q

name 5 conditions that Campylobacter is susceptible to

A
  1. low oxygen
  2. dessication
  3. freezing
  4. low pH
  5. high temperature
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20
Q

what is the biggest reservoir of Campylobacter causing human infections

A

poultry

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21
Q

name 4 ways to control Campylobacter on-farm

A
  1. improved biosecurity and hygiene
  2. simple modification of diet (add organic acids or probiotics)
  3. reduce slaughter age (33-35d)
  4. discontinue thinning
22
Q

name 3 ways to control Campylobacter in the slaughter house

A
  1. cleanliness of birds
  2. good hygienic practices & HACCP throughout
  3. accurate evisceration
23
Q

what is the most common species of Salmonella causing gastroenteritis

A

Salmonella enterica

24
Q

name 3 serovars of Salmonella enterica that cause disease

A
  1. Typhimurium
  2. Enteritidis
  3. Newport
25
# name the type of salmonellosis nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhoea, fever, headache
enteric salmonellosis
26
# name the type of salmonellosis septicaemia; endemic to Africa, Asia, Central and South America; more a disease of poverty and poor hygiene conditions
Typhoidal salmonellosis
27
what is the most common source of enteric salmonellosis infection?
poultry | (both meat and eggs)
28
29
name 2 important aspects of control of Samonella
1. vaccine 2. Red Lion Code
30
this is a notorious strain of shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC); causes mild diarrhoea to haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), thrombocytopaenia purpura
E. coli O157:H7
31
what is the main reservoir for STEC; they are asymptomatic, super shedder individuals
cattle
32
name 5 clinical signs of listerosis in humans
1. bacteraemia 2. septicaemia 3. meningitis, encephalitis 4. miscarriage 5. neonatal disease
33
name the zoonotic foodborne virus (most foodborne viruses are not zoonotic)
Hepatitis E
34
# name the foodborne virus most common cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK; highly infectious and easily transmissible; can be transmitted through food, BUT majority of cases NOT foodborne; symptoms: vomiting, diarrhoea, headaches, abdominal pain, fever
norovirus
35
# name the type of hepatitis virus those that are parenterally transmitted
'serum' hepatitis
36
# name the type of hepatitis virus those transmitted through the faecal-oral route i.e. "enteric" hepatitis
"infectious" hepatitis
37
name the 2 types of hepatitis virus that cause "enteric" hepatitis
1. Hepatitis A 2. Hepatitis E
38
what animal is the biggest reservoir for Hepatitis E
pigs
39
# name the method for bacterial food testing methods based on detection, isolation, characterisation and identification of microbes
qualitative methods
40
# name the method for bacterial food testing methods based on the detection & enumeration of microbes (usually in liquid and/or agar material)
quantitative methods
41
name the 5 steps of qualitative lab culture methods
1. sample collection 2. culture of samples in enriched broth 3. culture on selective media 4. confirmatory tests 5. examine identification tables
42
# name the type of bacteriological agar non-selective, non chromogenic; most bacteria appear similar (white colonies)
Luria-Bertani Agar / Nutrient Agar
43
# name the type of bacteriological agar non-selective; used for assessment of haemolysis (Clostridium perfringens); can grow a large variety of other more fastidious organisms
blood agar (sheep, horse)
44
# name the type of bacteriological agar semi-selective; used for Salmonella and Shigella isolation; some Salmonella can metabolise thiosulphate - produces hydrogen sulphite and colonies turn black in the centre
xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar
45
# name the type of bacteriological agar selective for enterobacteriaceae (due to bile salts); chromogenic: lactose fermenters appear pink/red (E. coli), non-fermenters appear white (Salmonella)
MacConkey agar
46
# name the type of bacteriological agar selective for Campylobacter; have to be incubated in reduced oxygen (5%)
charcoal-cefoperazone-deoxycholate agar (CCDA)
47
# name the rapid method of detection used to separate & concentrate target organism; 10 min procedure; specific Ab fixed on paramagnetic beads added to broth; binding of pathogen to Ab, magnet used to immobilise pathogen, removal of remainder
immunomagnetic separaton (IMS)
48
# name the rapid method of detection firefly luciferin-luciferase; two-step biochemical reaction takes place, which produces light; most widely used for monitoring cleaned surfaces
ATP bioluminescence
49
# name the rapid method of detection widely used in food testing; sensitivity varies; can be specific for pathogen at species and subspecies/strain level; can also detect toxins and allergens
ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
50
# name the rapid method of detection can be very specific; can identify pathogen strain; multiple primers can be used at once to specifically ID more than one bacterial strain; degenerate primers can be used to ID multiple strains of same species but additional confirmatory tests needed afterwards
Specific Nucleic Acid Amplification / Detection (PCR)
51
# name the rapid method of detection serum from immunised animals provides fast (2 min) and specific detection; bacterial cells cross link via surface antigens bound to antibodies in the sera; easily used for Salmonella type identification
serum agglutination