food hygiene mid term 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Correct

a) Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
b) C. Burnetti is rather sensitive to heat it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistance to heat they can survive the pasteurisation
d) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat they cannot survive the pasteurisation

A

a and c

a) Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
c) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistance to heat they can survive the pasteurisation

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2
Q

Which two of the following sentences are true about clostridia?

a) Obligate aerobes
b) Produce spores
c) Are the perfect indicators of the effectiveness of the chlorination
d) Are able to reduce sulfite to sulfide

A

b and d

b) Produce spores
d) Are able to reduce sulfite to sulfide

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3
Q

Correct

a) Category 1 waste shall be disposed by incineration
b) Category 1 wastes can be used for manufacture of pet food
c) Blood from cattle declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption
d) Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption???

A

a and d

a) Category 1 waste shall be disposed by incineration
d) Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption???

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4
Q

Correct

a) An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
b) A decreased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
c) The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal???
d) The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically higher than normal

A

a

a) An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk

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5
Q

Correct

a) After killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
b) In case of small games, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c) For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
d) For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection shall be done on each single animal

A

b and c

b) In case of small games, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c) For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only

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6
Q

Correct

a) The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
b) The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers
c) The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food quality
d) The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

A

b and d

b) The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers
d) The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

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7
Q

Correct

a) The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product +++
b) During smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400c
c) During smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400c
d) The durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process +++

A

a and c

a) The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product +++
c) During smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400c

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8
Q

Correct

a) Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
b) Only low conductivity broth should be used for redox potential measurement
c) The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
d) The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria

A

a and c

a) Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
c) The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria

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9
Q

Correct

a) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are not heat treated therefore they cannot be eaten cold
b) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated therefore they can be eaten cold
c) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are not always heat treated
d) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated we heat them up only for better consumer experience

A

b and d

b) The frankfurters distributed in shopslsupermarkets are already heat treated therefore they can be eaten cold
d) The frankfurters distributed in shopslsupermarkets are already heat treated we heat them up only for better consumer experience

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10
Q

Correct

a) Control of proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the GHP audit
b) Control of proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
c) The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
d) The poultry meat put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

A

b and c

b) Control of proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
c) The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

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11
Q

Correct

a) Milk collecting centres are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
b) Milk houses are not subjects to approval because these are parts of the primary production
c) Wholesale cold stores are subject of approval
d) Wholesale cold stores are not subject to approval

A

b and c

b) Milk houses are not subjects to approval because these are parts of the primary production
c) Wholesale cold stores are subject of approval

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12
Q

What applied heat treatment parameters were not tolerable for Enterobacterium multiplication based on VRBG agar during our practice?

a) 60 for 30 min
b) 80 for 20 min
c) 90 for 5 min
d) Only boiling water

A

a and c

a) 60 for 30 min
c) 90 for 5 min

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13
Q

What is typical for hungarian Trappist cheese made also during the practice

a) Rennet coagulated
b) Acid coagulated
c) Prespressing under whey
d) Irregular holes

A

a and c

a) Rennet coagulated
c) Prespressing under whey

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14
Q

Correct

a) Cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
b) Cheese made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
c) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia
d) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms

A

a and c

a) Cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
c) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia

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15
Q

Correct

a) In general, the water activity demand of Gram positive bacteria is higher than the Gram negative ones
b) In general, the water activity demand of Gram negative bacteria is higher than the Gram positive ones
c) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than the yeast
d) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is lower than the yeast

A

b and c

b) In general, the water activity demand of Gram negative bacteria is higher than the Gram positive ones
c) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than the yeast

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16
Q

Correct

a) For quick curing, nitrate-containing salt mix is used
b) For quick curing, nitrite-containing salt mix is used
c) The products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable
d) The products prepared by quick curing are microbiologically more stable

A

b and c

b) For quick curing, nitrite-containing salt mix is used
c) The products prepared by slow curing are

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17
Q

Correct

a) The health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
b) The health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
c) In re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment
d) In re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with its original identification marking

A

b and c
b) The health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops

c) In re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment

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18
Q

Correct

a) In cattle, the last 4 meters of the ileum and the caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
b) In cattle, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
c) In sheep, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
d) In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

A

a and d

a) In cattle, the last 4 meters of the ileum and the caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
d) In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

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19
Q

For which food is the annual sample number determined based on the production figures of the previous year?

a) Swine
b) Cattle
c) Broiler chicken +++
d) Honey

A

c

c) Broiler chicken +++

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20
Q

Which investigation must be performed during the official control of live bivalves?

a) Faecal contamination of the production area
b) Measurement of histamine concentration
c) Biotoxin content of the flesh of live bivalves
d) Measurement of mercury concentration

A

c and d

c) Biotoxin content of the flesh of live bivalves
d) Measurement of mercury concentration

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21
Q

What are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods? (See Practical XI - book)

a) More reliable qualitative analysis
b) More sensitive quantitative analysis
c) More cost-effective procedures
d) All statements are true

A

a and b

a) More reliable qualitative analysis
b) More sensitive quantitative analysis

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22
Q

Which organic acid and what pH was applied successfully during our practice?

a) Formic acid
b) pH 6.5
c) Sorbic acid
d) pH 4.5

A

c and d

c) Sorbic acid
d) pH 4.5

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23
Q

Correct

a) In most European countries single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
c) In most European countries a single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
d) In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

A

b and d

b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
d) In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

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24
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) HACCP plan should be establishment- and product-specific
b) The GHP plan should be establishment- and product-specific
c) The GHP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by HACCP
d) The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP

A

a and d

a) HACCP plan should be establishment- and product-specific
d) The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP

25
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms reduces as the water activity decreases
b) In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
c) The heat resistance of microbes is the lowest at the pH optimum of their growth
d) The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth

A

b and d

b) In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
d) The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth

26
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The infective dose of salmonellae is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
b) The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
c) The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains
d) The infective dose of EHEC strains is higher than that of other E. coli strains

A

b and c

b) The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
c) The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains

27
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in humans
b) The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c) Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in humans
d) Salmonella gallinarum is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in humans

A

b and c

b) The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c) Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in humans

28
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that causes a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b) The toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c) The toxins produced by S. aureus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
d) The botulinum toxin is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

A

b and c

b) The toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c) The toxins produced by S. aureus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

29
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
b) Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level can be used for production of animal feedstuffs
c) Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
d) Carcasses containing prohibited substances can be utilized for production of animal feedstuffs

A

a and c

a) Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
c) Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs

30
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
b) The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing
c) Meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled
d) Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled

A

a and d

a) The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
d) Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled

31
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
b) Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavorable for bacteria
c) Yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
d) Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

A

b and d

b) Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavorable for bacteria
d) Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

32
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
b) The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglobin
c) For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing salt may be used
d) For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

A

a and d

a) The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
d) For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

33
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
b) Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
c) Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
d) Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 0.21 minute

A

a and c

a) Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
c) Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes

34
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
b) Freezing is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
c) Spoilage bacteria can grow even down to -18°C
d) Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18°C

A

a and d

a) Heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
d) Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18°C

35
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
b) After heat treatment at very high temperature (ESL) the milk is packed aseptically
c) UHT-treated milk needs cold storage
d) Milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

A

a and d

a) After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
d) Milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

36
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 100 000/ml
b) The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 400 000lml
c) The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000lml
d) The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 400 000/ml

A

b and c

b) The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 400 000lml
c) The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000lml

37
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) L. monocytogenes is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation
b) L. monocytogenes Is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
d) S. aureus is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurisation

A

b and c

b) L. monocytogenes Is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

38
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
b) Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats
c) Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia
d) Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by coliforms

A

a and c

a) Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
c) Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia

39
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Skimming increases the density of milk
b) Skimming decreases the density of milk
c) Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
d) Mastitis usually reduces the electrical conductivity of milk

A

a and c

a) Skimming increases the density of milk
c) Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk

40
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
b) The fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c) For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperature for 2-3 minutes
d) For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at low temperature without holding

A

A and c

a) The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c) For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperature for 2-3 minutes

41
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at low temperature without holding
b) For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding
c) For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to technological aspects
d) For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects

A

a and d

a) For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at low temperature without holding
d) For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects

42
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
b) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states
d) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation shall be adopted by the individual Member states

A

a and c

a) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states

43
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Food chain information must be prepared by the veterinarian performing the antemortem inspection
b) Food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c) If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hours
d) If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter shall be banned

A

b and c

b) Food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c) If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hours

44
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbial regulation of the EU
b) Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU
c) Carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse
d) Carcasses found positive for salmonella in the process hygiene tests at the slaughterhouse must not be put on the market

A

b and d

b) Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU
d) Carcasses found positive for salmonella in the process hygiene tests at the slaughterhouse must not be put on the market

45
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Small capacity slaughterhouses need not be approved only registered by the authority
b) Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
c) At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position
d) In a small capacity slaughterhouse, pigs can also be bled in a horizontal position

A

b and c

b) Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
c) At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position

46
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
b) The hunted large game shall be skinned in the game collection centre
c) In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals
d) In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals only???

A

a and c

a) The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
c) In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

47
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
b) S. aureus may survive in chocolates, but cannot produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
c) Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey
d) Due to the low water activity and low pH of honey, even bacterium spores are unable to germinate in it

A

a and c

a) S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
c) Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey

48
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by the trained person
b) In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by an official veterinarian
c) In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals
d) In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

A

b and d

b) In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed by an official veterinarian
d) In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

49
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Class “A” eggs shall be cooled to a temperature <5°C in the egg packing centre in order to prevent bacterial contamination
b) Class “A” eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
c) Broken eggs must not be used for human consumption, at all
d) Broken eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

A

b and c

b) Class “A” eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
c) Broken eggs must not be used for human consumption, at all

50
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) If the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
b) If the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the decision depends on the causative agent detected
c) If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption
d) If we detect trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

a and c

a) If the meat inspection reveals a generalised infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
c) If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption

51
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853l2004lEC shall be approved
b) All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authority
c) Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
d) Registration process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit

A

a and c

a) Establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853l2004lEC shall be approved
c) Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit

52
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
b) Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through heat treatment at temperatures exceeding 100°C
c) Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at < 7°C
d) Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at < 4°C

A

a and d

a) Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
d) Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at < 4°C

53
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
b) According to the corresponding EU legislation, food processing establishments shall be controlled at least annually
c) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
d) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

A

a and d

a) The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
d) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

54
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) HACCP is a food-quality risk analysis and management system
b) HACCP is a food-safety risk analysis and management system
c) The HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practice
d) The good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept (Objectives for Good Hygiene Practices)

A

b and d

b) HACCP is a food-safety risk analysis and management system
d) The good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept (Objectives for Good Hygiene Practices)

55
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin are regulated on EU level
b) The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c) Mass catering belongs to retail operations
d) Mass catering belongs to wholesale operations

A

b and c

b) The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c) Mass catering belongs to retail operations

56
Q

At what stage of the food analytical procedure may a vet be responsible (Practical 2)

a) Sampling
b) Sample preparation???
c) Determining the analytical strategy, carrying out the analysis
d) Interpretation of results

A

a and ?? b

a) Sampling
b) Sample preparation???

57
Q

What were the applied technology steps during peasant sausage manufacture in the Technology lab? (Practical 4)

a) Inoculation of meat with starter culture??
b) Stuffing
c) Smoking
d) Heat treatment (cooking)

A

b and c

b) Stuffing
c) Smoking

58
Q

What product groups’ safety are published in the RASFF system?

a) Nutritional supplements???
b) Human foods
c) Animal feeds
d) Medicinal feeds and foods

A

b and c

b) Human foods
c) Animal feeds

59
Q

Which word is not among the terms behind the abbreviation RASFF?

a) Livestock
b) Feed
c) Water
d) Food

A

a and c

a) Livestock
c) Water