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Atlas Knowledge > FOM > Flashcards

FOM Flashcards

1
Q

Define safety

A

Safety is managed risk

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2
Q

Current safety philosophy

A

Zero risk is an impossibility, but striving for it is not. Detect and reduce risk before it is revealed by an accident. Proactive not reactive.

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3
Q

Goals of company operations in priority order

A
  1. Safety
  2. Regulatory compliance
  3. Passenger comfort
  4. Schedule performance
  5. Efficiency
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4
Q

Captain’s role

A

Final decision making authority on the aircraft. Encourage all crew members to provide information about operational issues. Has the authority to reject an aircraft prior to departure if dissatisfied with any aspect of the airworthiness and/or maintenance status of the aircraft.

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5
Q

Captain has full responsibility for:

A

Final authority as to the safe and efficient operation IAW FCOM, FOM, and pertinent regs.
In flight security coordinator (ISC)
Workload assignment and distribution
Jointly responsible with Dispatch for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of the flight
Load manifest content
Sufficient fuel
De-/anti-ice
Checklist compliance
Relief pilot duties defined and assigned
Retain required documents and complete aircraft log

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6
Q

Captain is responsible to the Chief Pilot for:

A

Exercise sound judgment in the safe and efficient operation of flights
Current and sound knowledge of the FOM, FCOM, Jepps, and pertinent regulations
Constant awareness of all flight parameters, to include customer schedules, service, and airline image
Be familiar with professional background and experience level of assigned crew members including currency
Ensures proper performance of duties by other crew members
Monitor and counsel other crew members on uniforms standards
Mentor FOs and actively prepare them
Report repeated failures of crew members to properly perform duties
Flight deck free from harassment and display of offensive materials

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7
Q

Alcohol and drug rules

A

Employee rules of conduct 3.1.6
No alcohol within 8 hours of reporting
No alcohol within 8 hours following an accident unless a post-accident test has been given

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8
Q

Tobacco

A

121.317
Smoking and using smokeless tobacco products are not permitted on board at any time

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9
Q

Required uniform components

A

Trousers - navy blue
White shirt with epaulets
Company tie
Black shoes or boots
Black or navy blue socks
Black belt
Company approved jacket (leather, lightweight, or blazer) (optional)

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10
Q

Uniform amplifying information

A

Fit properly, show no signs of wear; clean and wrinkle free
Footwear should be black leather, in good repair and polished. Boots worn under the pant leg.
Shirt and tie at all times in public areas.
Minimum of shirt and slacks at all times on pax flights

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11
Q

Uniform stuff

A

Chapter 3

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12
Q

Required personal equipment

A

121.549
Flashlight
Reflective vest
PCD
pEFB

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13
Q

Crewmember required documents

A

Chapter 3

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14
Q

Passport requirements

A

Chapter 3
Renew at least 15 months prior to expiration

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15
Q

FOM flight and duty limitations

A

121.489, 121.517
Chapter 3

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16
Q

Intermixing Part 121 and Part 117 ops

A

Mixing, even within the same trip, is authorized.
All operations in pax aircraft are conducted under 117 duty and rest rules whether or not there are pax
Apply the mixed rest rules matrix, Table 3.1.1 to determine legality

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17
Q

Part 117 definitions
Acclimated

A

Remaining in theater for 72 hours or receiving at least 36 hours free from duty

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18
Q

Part 117 definitions
Deadhead

A

Transportation as a passenger or non-operating crewmember excluding transportation to and from the layover facility. All deadhead time is duty, but not necessarily flight duty.

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19
Q

Part 117 definitions
Duty

A

Any task that a crewmember performs as required by the company, e.g.
- Flight duty
- Pre- and post-flight duties
- Admin work
- Training
- Deadhead
- Aircraft positioning on the ground
- Aircraft loading or servicing
- Engine runs

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20
Q

Part 117 definitions
Fit for duty

A

Being physiologically and mentally prepared and capable of performing assigned duties at the highest degree of safety

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21
Q

Part 117 definitions
Rest facility

A

A bunk or seat accommodation in an aircraft that provides a crewmember with a sleep opportunity.
- Class 1: A bunk or other surface that allows for a flat sleeping position that is separate from both the flight deck and the passenger cabin
- Class 2: A seat in an aircraft cabin that allows for a flat or near flat sleeping position and is separated from passengers by a minimum of a curtain
- Class 3: A seat in the cabin or flight deck that reclines at least 40 degrees and provides leg and foot support

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22
Q

Part 117 definitions
Flight duty period (FDP)

A

Begins when required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight or flights and ends when the aircraft is parked after the last flight with no intention of further aircraft movement.

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23
Q

Part 117 definitions
Physiological night’s rest

A

Ten hours of rest that encompasses 0100 to 0700 at the crewmember’s home base unless acclimated to a different theater. Then 0100 and 0700 in that theater.

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24
Q

Part 117 definitions
Reserve Availability Period

A

A duty period of short call reserve when a crewmember must be available to receive an assignment

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25
Q

Part 117 definitions
Rest Period

A

A continuous period, determined prospectively, during which a crewmember is free from all duty. FAA “one phone call rule” in effect.

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26
Q

Part 117 definitions
Theater

A

Distance between FDP departure and arrival points is no more than 60 degrees of longitude.

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27
Q

Part 117 - Flight time

A

117.11, 117.23
Flight time limits:
100 hours in 672 consecutive hours
1000 hours in 365 consecutive calendar days
Two pilots: 9 hours within FDP if report time between 0500-1959. Otherwise 8 hours
Three pilots: 13 hours
Four pilots: 17 hours
May be extended to meet extenuating circumstances to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the destination or alternate

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28
Q

Part 117 - Flight Duty Period Time

A

117.23
Max 60 FDP hours in any 168 consecutive hours
Max 190 FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours
Non-augmented, see table 3.1.3; 9-13 hours depending on segments and report times
Augmented, see table 3.1.4; 3 pilots 15-17 hours, 4 pilots 17-19 hours (assuming class 1 rest facility)
- Rest includes 2 hours in the second half for the landing pilot and 90 minutes for the landing PM

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29
Q

Part 117 - FDP extensions

A

Prior to takeoff: up to two hours as long as does not exceed the 60 and 190 FDP hour rules. Requires backside 30 hour rest prior to any further extension more than 30 minutes and captain concurrence.

After takeoff: As required to safely land the aircraft at the destination or alternate. Captain and dispatcher concurrence.

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30
Q

Part 117 - Fitness for duty

A

Signing denotes compliance with FDP limitations. Captain may additionally weigh in on crewmember fitness.

Every operating crewmember must certify fitness on the OFP, Master and Station copies.

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31
Q

Automated Latest Allowable Takeoff Time Message

A

LATT refers to Part 117 duty time limitations and is calculated for each crewmember individually.

Activated by pressing INIT REQ and CONFIRM keys on the INIT page.

Part 117 flights must not depart without a valid LATT.

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32
Q

Part 121 hour limits

A

Domestic: Subpart Q, 121.471

Flag: Subpart R, 121.481 (two pilots), 121.483 (two pilots + 1), 121.485/OpSpec A005 (3 pilots + 1)

Supplemental: 121.503-525

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33
Q

Fatigue call/fatigue reporting policy

A

Don’t fly if you believe that they are fatigued to the point where safety might be affected.
Immediately notify crew scheduling - will be removed from pairing without question.
Fatigue review team and FRMC will investigate and develop preventative actions.
FRMP in Comply 365 for policies and processes

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34
Q

Medical/immunizations

A

FOM Chap 3

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35
Q

Flight deck supernumerary/authorized persons policy

A

Chap 3
Authorized outside of normal passenger carrying rules
Still need a seat, access to emergency egress, and out of the way of operating crew
Requires permission of the captain, an appropriate management official, and the FAA
OAL flight crews who are listed and on CASS are permitted
“Must Ride Cockpit Observers:” Secret Service, FAA inspectors, DoD evaluators, NTSB reps, LCPs, etc
Company employees/Loadmasters/Mechanics
Flight attendants/PSRs: authorized flight deck access for flights they are operating only
Yellow badges: non-employee access (cargo/live animal handlers, etc)

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36
Q

Crew pairing - DoD passenger flights

A

Captains and FOs will not be paired together on DoD passenger flights if the combined experience on that type is less than 250 hours

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37
Q

OE crew compliment

A

OE flights requiring 2: LCP + OE crewmember
OE flights requiring 3: Min crew is four; LCP + OE crewmember + two qualified pilots or one qualified pilot and a low time flight crew member - NOT WAIVERABLE
OE flights requiring 4: Min crew is four; LCP + OE crewmember + two qualified pilots or one qualified pilot and a low time flight crew member

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38
Q

Low time flight crew member definition

A

Less than 100 operating hours in type

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39
Q

Low time flight crew member pairing restrictions

A

2 or 3 pilot crew may only contain one LTFC
4 pilot crew may only contain two

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40
Q

Special tracking pairing restrictions

A

Max one special tracking crew member per crew
An STC and low time flight crew member cannot be assigned to the same flight

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41
Q

Low time FO restrictions

A

CA must make all takeoffs and landings if:
Special PIC qualification airports (marked by Q on OFP)
Prevailing visibility less than 3/4 mile/RVR 4,000’ or less
Runway contaminated/braking action less than good
Crosswind component is greater than 15 knots/wind shear reported in the vicinity of the airport
Any other condition in which the captain determines it to be prudent

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42
Q

Special PIC airports

A

Chapter 5

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43
Q

High minimums captain

A

Less than 100 hours PIC in type (not company specific, but cannot include OE/ILC time)
Normal takeoff restrictions/takeoff alternate requirements apply
Alternate minima may not be less than 300’/1sm
Must add 100’ and 1/2 mile to the approach minima, no less than 300’/1sm
CAT III approaches verboten; CAT I and II have OpSpec guidance
Notify training records after reaching 100 hours to be released from high minimums restrictions

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44
Q

Line checks

A

Chapter 5

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45
Q

High minimums captain exemption - Cat I
OpSpec A005

A

Cat I approach may not be initiated if weather conditions are lower than 1/4 sm visibility (4,000 RVR) AND crosswind component exceeds 15 knots combined with a braking action of less than good.

High mins captain may use lowest applicable Cat I minimums if:
- CA and FO are trained and qualified for Cat II/III instrument procedures
- The autopilot approach coupler or autoland system is used for the approach to decision height or until initiation of a missed approach

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46
Q

High minimums captain exemption - Cat II
OpSpec A005

A

For Cat II approaches, high mins captains may use the lowest applicable Cat II mins if:
- PIC has at least 300 hours as PIC in a turbojet aircraft AND
- The CA and FO are qualified for Cat II/II instrument approach procedures AND
- The autoland system is used for the approach to decision height and subsequent landing or until initiation of missed approach

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47
Q

Max thrust takeoff policy

A

Record all max thrust takeoffs in the aircraft log

Mx determines when one is required - dispatch will make a note on OFP that a max thrust takeoff is req’d.

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48
Q

Autoland policy

A

CA will verify an autoland has been accomplished in the previous 30 days. If not, one must be performed.
If aircraft is expired on autolands, it is restricted to CAT I operations until one has been successfully done.

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49
Q

Additional logbook entries for a max thrust takeoff

A

Takeoff conditions
Blocks 31-40

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50
Q

Logbook entries possibly required by DDG

A

Takeoff conditions - Blocks 31-40
Cruise data - Blocks 41 - 55

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51
Q

Airworthiness

A

Release documented in log and verified by flight crew
Release required after maintenance, preventative maintenance, or alterations (documentation for which must also be in the log)
Missing or inoperative components ok if DDG provides relief via MEL, Configuration Deviation List (CDL), and NEF.

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52
Q

Routine maintenance checks - “letter checks”

A

Letter checks (A, B, C, D) supersede transit and/or daily checks if within the time limits for those checks

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53
Q

Routine maintenance checks - daily check

A

Continuously operating aircraft: Daily check is accomplished each 48 hours of operation. 48 hours begins at block out following the check. Aircraft must be planned to block in prior to the expiration of the 48 hours.

Intermittently active aircraft: Daily check is required prior to departure.
- Considered intermittently active when it sits more than 7 days between block in and block out

Daily checks supersede transit checks

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54
Q

Routine maintenance checks - transit check

A

Accomplished prior to each flight leg and is intended to assure continued serviceability of a transiting plane.

May not be required if an unplanned deviation to a station without approved maintenance occurs.

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55
Q

Remote release

A

At stations where approved maintenance personnel are not available, the captain must contact M/C via dispatch if a maintenance item becomes an issue.
- If the item is deferrable and no Mx specific procedures are specified, CA may defer the item under M/C direction
- If the item requires Mx action, a local A&P may perform the Mx with the concurrence and supervision of M/C

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56
Q

DMI stickers and decals

A

Deferred items must be placarded with stickers on the flight deck and on tin.

Deferred items requiring Mx action prior to each flight are denoted by an orange sticker. DMI must be transferred to each inbound maintenance log entry.

All other DMI stickers are white.

All logbook entries referencing a DMI must use the number.

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57
Q

CA/Dispatch DMI responsibilities

A

CA shall review the aircraft log, DMI placards, and DDG and ensure all Mx procedures have been properly entered in the log.

Prior to issuing a dispatch/flight release, Dispatch shall access DMI program, review deferred items, and annotate the dispatch/flight release as appropriate

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58
Q

“Domestic Operations”

A

Scheduled operations within the contiguous 48 states

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59
Q

“Flag Operation”

A

Scheduled operations with locations outside of the US (e.g. originating within the US and terminating outside, originating outside and terminating in the US, or originating and terminating outside of the US).

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60
Q

“Supplemental Operation”

A

Common carriage operation for compensation or hire where:
- Times and locations are negotiated with customer
- All cargo or pax charter

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61
Q

Destination alternate requirements - domestic

A

Required if wx forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA is less than 2,000’ or 3 sm

If destination and alternate wx are forecast to be marginal (600-2 or lower) at least one additional alternate is required

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62
Q

Destination alternate requirements - international (flag) operations

A

Not required for isolated airport (IAW isolated airport rules)

Required when:
- ETE is more than 6 hours
- ETE is less than 6 hours, but the forecast wx +/- 1 hour of ETA is:
- ceiling less than 1,500’ above lowest circling MDA if a circling approach is required
- ceiling is less than 2,000’ or 1,500’ above lowest approach minimum, whichever is greater
- visibility is than 3 sm or 2 sm above lowest applicable visibility minimum, whichever is greater
* Planned redispatch flights do not require an alternate if the ETE from POR to dest is 6 hours or less and above wx requirements are met

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63
Q

Destination alternate requirements - supplemental

A

Alternate is required in the flight release unless to an isolated airport (IAW isolated airport rules)

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64
Q

Destination alternate requirements - isolated airport

A

Must be on the list of approved isolated airports found in FOM chap 7

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65
Q

Fuel conservation opportunities

A

Reducing APU operation
Starting engines during pushback
Reduced engine taxi (IAW FCOM)/taxi route optimization
Reduced thrust takeoffs
NADP 2 vs NADP 1
Takeoff and landing flap selection
Optimum altitudes and direct routing (fly the flight plan unless conditions indicate otherwise)
Keep aircraft in trim
Power off and continuous descent profiles
Planned landing to meet minimum fuel requirements

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66
Q

Minimum diversion fuel

A

“FMC reserve:” fuel required to fly to the alternate and thereafter for 45 minutes holding at 1500’ AGL

Calculated from top of descent at destination airport

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67
Q

Cost index

A

Cost index based on fuel and time cost for the flight. ECON speed values calculated with cost index. For constant Mach clearances, request Mach number closest in hundredths to the OFP. Request reclearance to different Mach number as required, but ensure waypoint time estimate remains within limits.

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68
Q

Fuel tankering

A

Used when:
Operational tankering: fuel is in short supply or unavailable at the destination
Economic tankering: fuel price differential between departure and destination
To expedite down line transits when extra fuel is not an economic penalty

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69
Q

Fuel requirements for dispatch - domestic

A

Must be planned with enough fuel to:
- fly to the airport to which it was dispatched
- thereafter to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (if req’d) for the airport to which dispatched
- thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising consumption

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70
Q

Fuel requirements for dispatch - international (flag or supplemental)

A

For a route with an available alternate, the flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- fly to the airport to which dispatched
- thereafter to fly an additional 10% of the time required to fly to and land at the planned destination
- thereafter to fly to and land at the most distant alternate (if required)
- thereafter to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500’ AGL above the alternate (or destination if alternate not required)

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71
Q

Fuel requirements for dispatch - planned redispatch

A

Flight must be planned with enough fuel to comply with A or B, whichever is higher.
A: Initial destination (RAPT)
- Fly to the POR then fly to and land at the initial destination
- thereafter fly for 10% of the above time then to fly to and land at the most distant alternate (if alt req’d)
- then fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500’ AGL under standard conditions
B: Final destination (DEST)
- fly to the POR the fly to and land at the final destination
- thereafter fly another 10% then fly to and land at most distant alternate
- then fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500’ AGL under standard conditions

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72
Q

Fuel requirements for dispatch - planned redispatch to isolated airport

A

Basic requirement: fly to isolated airport and thereafter two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption
Company policy: planned with a Point of Safe Return (PSR) using planned redispatch procedures
Enough fuel to comply with A or B, whichever is higher
A: RAPT
- Fly to PSR then 10%, alternate, 30 minutes rule
B: DEST
- Fly to PSR then to destination and land
- thereafter fly for two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption

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73
Q

Order of precedence for performance data - takeoff

A

Primary: Flight deck performance (aero data)
Backup: Takeoff and landing report (TLR)
Tertiary: Live calculation from dispatch

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74
Q

Order of precedence for performance data - landing

A

Flight Deck Performance (FDP)
TLR
Manually calculated from performance in flight
Live calculation

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75
Q

Fuel plan definitions - trip (trip fuel)

A

Fuel burn is the sum of takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing. Included:
- departure and arrival procedures
- one instrument approach
- maintenance deferral items that include a burn penalty
- perishables/livestock
- wind speed and direction forecast
- estimated payload

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76
Q

Fuel plan definitions - ALT1/ALT2 (destination alternate fuel)

A

Conservative calculation from destination to alternate. Includes:
- missed approach
- climb
- long range cruise
- forecast wind and temperature
- descent
- approach and landing
*Most distant alternate is included in the MINF value on the flight plan

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77
Q

Fuel plan definitions - FAR RSV (domestic fuel reserve)

A

Continue flight for 45 minutes after arriving over the alternate (or destination if alternate not required).
Calculated based on top of descent fuel flow.

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78
Q

Fuel plan definitions - FAR RSV (international reserve fuel)

A

Continue flight for 30 minutes after arriving over the alternate airport (or destination if no alternate required). Calculated using:
1,500’ AGL
Standard temp conditions
Holding airspeed
*If no alternate is available, follow the isolated airport two hour rule

79
Q

Fuel plan definitions - 10% RSV (international 10% fuel)

A

10% of the planned time to take off, fly to, and land at planned destination. Calculated at top of descent fuel flow.

80
Q

Fuel plan definitions - ADD.XX (additional fuel)

A

Added to meet company or regulatory requirements.
ADD.TO - ensures minimum fuel at takeoff
ADD.E - ETP/ETOPS (ensures required ETP/ETOPS fuel)
ADD.LD - Landing (ensures minimum REMF of 60 minutes)
ADD.AL - Alternate (ensures minimum fuel at the alternate of 45 minutes)
- Based on fuel to the destination, missed approach, diversion to, and immediate landing at alternate
ADD.RC - Fuel added for dispatch requirements. E.g. if MINF to RAPT is greater than to DEST

81
Q

Fuel plan definitions - CF (contingency fuel)

A

Fuel added by dispatcher for ATC, wx, or anticipated landing delays. Time value based on top of descent fuel flow.

82
Q

Fuel plan definitions - ballast

A

Depending on the aircraft, ballast fuel is used to:
- bring the ZFW CG within limits
- increase ZFW to be greater than the minimum in flight weight
- combination of the above

Except in emergencies, this type of fuel is not usable
OFP ballast fuel must match load sheet.

83
Q

Fuel plan definitions - unusable fuel

A

Required for specific MELs such as a deferred boost pump. Amount required will be listed in the DDG.
Will be listed on the OFP as ballast fuel.

84
Q

Fuel plan definitions - MINF (minimum fuel)

A

Min fuel required for each scenario (per column), ORIG - DEST, POR - DEST, ORIG - RAPT.
Minimum fuel required at brake release for takeoff.
Takeoff shall not be made with less than MINF on board
*747 ADD.TO fuel for MINF less than 25,000 kg
*LCF ferry flights wonky - check chap 7

85
Q

Fuel plan definitions - Extra (extra fuel)

A

Fuel added by dispatcher for tankering, POR pad, or other reasons as specified on OFP. Not required for takeoff unless indicated in the OFP remarks section. Time based on fuel flow at top of descent.

86
Q

Fuel plan definitions - taxi (taxi fuel)

A

Standard taxi time is 20 minutes, but may be adjusted for high density airports based on historical data.

747 assumed taxi burn rate is 45 kg/100 lbs per minute

87
Q

Fuel plan definitions - block (block out fuel)

A

Recommended fuel for block-out includes MINF, EXTRA, and TAXI

88
Q

Aircraft weight limitations - general

A

Dispatcher is responsible to ensure that the TOGW, ZFW, and LDW do not exceed structural or performance limitations under the forecast conditions
Calculations include environmental factors, runway characteristics, MEL/CDL penalties, terrain clearance, ETP limitations, overwater decompression and drift down, and variable zero fuel weight.
Maximum landing weights allow for a full stop within 60% of the effective runway length in dry conditions (company policy is to plan assuming all runways are wet unless it overly restricts fuel/payload)
Except in an emergency, the aircraft structural limit, runway limit, or approach climb limit must not be exceeded.

89
Q

Aircraft weight limitations - takeoff weight verification

A

Ensure TOGW, ZFW, and planned LDW do not exceed structural, adjusted structural, or performance limitations at the time of departure.
CA will record actual ZFW as taken from the load manifest opposite planned ZFW on master and station copies of OFP
CA will verify that actual ZFW does not exceed MZFW

90
Q

Aircraft weight limitations - MINF ADJ procedure

A

If actual ZFW is less than planned, no action required.
A new release is required if actual is more than planned by more than ZFW limits IAW new or amended release policies.
If ZFW limits not exceeded, then use MINF ADJ procedure:
- Divide the increase in ZFW by 1000 and multiply by the adjustment factor
- Add the MINF ADJ to the highest MINF and enter in the space provided in the first column on both the master and station copies
- Add the MINF ADJ to the BLOCK fuel in the space provided in the first column on both the master and station copies
- Advise fuelers as required if more fuel is necessary.
- Record actual TOGW on master and station copies and ensure structural and performance MTOW compliance

91
Q

Dispatch landing performance

A

Thrust reversers not included
All flights dispatched assuming wet runways at dest and alt (unless overly restrictive for fuel/payload)
Planning for dry runway requires the following forecast conditions and no other aggravating factors:
- Scattered showers in the area
- Intermittent drizzle of no greater than moderate intensity
- Intermittent light rain (with surface temperatures above freezing)
- Light snow with surface temperature below 2’C
If wx reports/forecast indicate wet/slippery runways, the req’d rwy length must be 115% of dry runway requirements
Wet runway required if reported visibility is less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 sm

92
Q

Responsibility for operational control

A

Dispatch and CA share operational control of each flight.
- Domestic and flag: Shared responsibility for planning, delay, and release of a flight
- Supplemental: PIC is responsible for planning and operation of the flight, but delegates the planning to dispatch (not the responsibility, just the actual planning). PIC and Part 119 Director of Ops share responsibility for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of all flights. Director delegates the functions to Dispatch, but not the responsibility.

93
Q

PIC responsibility in flight

A

PIC is in command of the aircraft and crew and responsible for the safety of the aircraft, its occupants, and cargo

94
Q

Operations scheduling

A
  • When establishing flight ops schedules, en route time will be planned considering normal cruising speed and prevailing winds.
  • Enough time will be allowed for proper aircraft servicing at intermediate stops.
  • Flight crews and dispatchers will advise the MOD of conditions that may affect the scheduling.
95
Q

Dispatch/flight release requirements

A

Flag/domestic: dispatch release
Supplemental: flight release

All part 121 flights conducted under IFR rules

96
Q

New or amended dispatch release

A

A new or amended release required when:
- A change of alternate, MEL, or performance limitation
- Actual ZFW exceeds PZFW by more than 10,000 kg
- Less than a 10,000 kg over, use MINF ADJ procedure
- Flight delayed past “release valid until” time listed on OFP
- *Regulations don’t actually require a release void time

97
Q

Recording release amendments

A

Note Z time and dispatcher’s initials on the master copy of the release if a verbal/ACARS amendment is made.

98
Q

Briefing package contents

A

3 flight plans
TLR
Company NOTAMS
Wx and NOTAMS
Maps and company documents as required

99
Q

NOTAM/Company NOTAM briefing

A

Dispatch provides flight crew with all available information.
Dispatch will continue to provide NOTAMs that arise during the flight.
For through flights, crews will be issued for the first station all the way through the second.

100
Q

Dispatch communications

A

When calling dispatch, provide:
- Aircraft registration and call sign
- Approximate position report
- Summary of the matter

Dispatcher will provide time and initials for redispatch messages, release amendments, or corrections

101
Q

Dispatching into RNP airspace

A

All 747s authorized to operate RNP-4 Class 2 airspace IAW DDG guidance for operational systems and limits.
If only one RNAV system is installed/operational (e.g. IRS but no GPS):
- Redundant airborne equipment required to conduct IFR Class I navigation using airway navigation facilities
- Capability exists at any point along the route to safely return to airways navigation if the RNAV system fails
- ATC radar control is required for off airway routing

102
Q

Dispatching into RVSM airspace

A

Must be installed and operational to enter RVSM flight level band (FL290-410 inclusive)
- Two independent altimeter systems
- Mode C capable SSR transponder
- Altitude alert system
- Automatic altitude keeping device

FCOM contains RVSM airspace procedures

103
Q

Flight number conflicts

A

If a flight is delayed such that the potential exists for two company aircraft with identical call signs, dispatch must change one of the flight numbers.
- Change is generally made to the delayed aircraft and adds a letter, e.g. GTI 400A
- Dispatch will update overflight permits and note discrepancies on the flight plan
- Flight crews should take extra care that all paperwork has been updated, especially overflight permits

104
Q

Landing at an airport that is not the intended destination

A

May not depart again until given specific authority to do so via dispatch/flight release.
FCIR required

105
Q

Airport classifications/authorizations - regular airport (R)

A

An airport used by the company in scheduled operations and listed in OpSpec C070

106
Q

Airport classifications/authorizations - Refueling airport (F)

A

An airport approved as an airport to which flights may be dispatched for refueling

107
Q

Airport classifications/authorizations - provisional airport (P)

A

An airport approved by the Administrator for providing service to a community when the regular airport serving that community is not available

108
Q

Airport classifications/authorizations - alternate airport

A

An available airport for landing if landing at the intended destination becomes inadvisable.
Alternate airports listed in OpSpec C070
May use any regular, refueling, or provisional airport listed in OpSpec C070 as an alternate
Must be able to accommodate the type of aircraft in question

109
Q

Dispatch to and from refueling or provisional airports (domestic and flag)

A

May not be dispatched to a refueling or provisional airport unless:
- airport meets the requirements of a regular airport AND
- flight is dispatched IAW requirements of a regular airport

110
Q

Unauthorized airport

A

If a landing has been made at an unauthorized airport in the event of an emergency, takeoffs may be made in compliance the applicable regulations. Payloads may not be discharged or picked up.

111
Q

Airports without an operating control tower

A

Operations in Class G airspace and at airports without an operating control tower are authorized provided:
- Airport is served by an instrument approach procedure
- airport has an approved source of weather
- airport has a suitable means to acquire traffic advisories and status of airport services and facilities
- the facilities necessary to safely conduct IFR operations are available and operational at the time of the operation
- all operations are conducted under IFR

Airports without an operating control tower may be used as a destination, alternate, or diversion airport.

112
Q

Takeoff from unlisted and alternate airports

A

Flights may be released to airports that are not listed in the OpSpecs under the regs that govern supplemental operations provided the airports are properly equipped and adequate

The company is authorized to conduct supplemental ops at airports and over routes that are within the area of route operations specified in OpSpec B050

The same route and airport qualification requirements for scheduled ops apply for any supplemental flight

113
Q

Dispatch/Flight release airports

A

Except for the destination, all airports listed on the release have routings listed on the flight plan at the end of the nav log, including the MORA.

When operating on one of these routings, altitude should be the higher of the MORA or FMC optimum altitude. If the engine inoperative or oxygen decompression maximum altitudes are below the MORA, an escape route will also be provided.

114
Q

Airport/Route qualifications and PIC’s signature

A

The PIC must familiarize himself the route and airports IAW regs. The PIC’s signature on the release indicates he has met all requirements for airport and route qualification, including special areas and airports, for the intended flight.

115
Q

Weather radar

A

May not release an airplane under IFR or night VFR when current weather reports indicate that adverse weather that can be detected by weather radar unless wx radar is in satisfactory operating condition.

116
Q

Icing

A

Shall not dispatch an aircraft, continue to operate an aircraft en route, or land an aircraft when, in the opinion of the PIC or dispatcher, icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight.

Dispatching an aircraft into known or forecasted severe icing conditions is prohibited.

117
Q

FAA authorized approach minimums

A

Based on the aircraft in question.
LCF: Cat II
400/-8: Cat III
Subject to:
Approaches available
MEL restrictions
NOTAMS/company NOTAMS
Flight crew’s authorized minimums

For dispatch purposes, approach minima are usually just visibility unless the airport specifies a ceiling minimum.

118
Q

Destination airport minimums

A

Dispatchers may not release a flight unless wx reports or forecasts or combination thereof indicate that conditions at ETA will be at or above minimums.

119
Q

Extended over water rule

A

Any flight planned to operate more than 50 NM from shore

May not dispatch an aircraft for extended over water ops unless wx reports/forecasts indicate that conditions at any airport to which released or to any alternate airport will be at or above minimums at ETA.

120
Q

Alternate airport minimums

A

OpSpec C055
Lower than standard wx minimums are authorized with approved IAP IAW Chap 7 tables
Sans approved IAP, ceiling and visibility must be enough to permit a descent and landing from MEA under VFR at the ETA
Published IAPs that specify alternate airport minimums not authorized when determining alternate airport minimums.

121
Q

Alternate airport minimums basic table

A

At least one operational nav facility providing a straight-in non-precision IAP, a Cat I precision apch, or circle-to-land IAP: add 400 / 1 to MDA/DA and visibility.

At least two operational nav facilities, each providing a straight-in IAP to different runways: add 200 / 1/2 to MDA/DA and visibility to the higher minima of the approaches used.

*Two operational nav facilities means in the event of a failure of one, the other would be operational. Two separate identifiers.

122
Q

Alternate airport minimums, CAT II/III credit

A

One useable authorized CAT II ILS: 300 / 3/4

One useable authorized CAT III ILS: 200 / 1/2

123
Q

Alternate airport minimums, CAT II/III credit

A

One useable authorized CAT II ILS: 300 / 3/4

One useable authorized CAT III ILS: 200 / 1/2

124
Q

Takeoff alternate

A

If wx conditions at departure airport are below CAT I mins or if other conditions prohibit a return, flight may not be released without a takeoff alternate not more than two hours away at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.

Wx conditions at takeoff alternate at ETA must be IAW alternate airport minimums

Approximate distances:
LCF: 800 NM
400/-8: 900 NM

125
Q

ETP alternate wx requirements

A

ETP alternate conditions must be reported or forecast at ETA at or above alternate airport minimums

126
Q

In flight reanalysis

A

Calculated by the flight planning computer like the OFP, but starting is en route position at cruise determined by dispatcher or crew.
Performed when:
- Dispatched to a point short of destination and a planned redispatch is sent to the flight crew
- Crew or dispatcher determines a need for a more optimum route or altitude and to more accurately forecast fuel remaining at destination
- Crew’s request, e.g. for large deviation, unforecasted wx or winds, traffic congestion, ATC re-route/altitude change (100NM off original course or 4,000’ off original altitude)
Starting point far enough ahead of airplane to allow time to calculate and potentially obtaining a new clearance. Crew responsible for new clearance if a new route is required.

127
Q

Information for dispatch for inflight reanalysis

A

Flight plan position from which the reanalysis originates
ETA, altitude, and estimated fuel at that position
ATC re-route, new flight level, and/or non-normal configuration if applicable

128
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - final destination

A

The airport at which the flight is scheduled to terminate

129
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - initial destination

A

Initial airport of release

130
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - point of redispatch (POR)

A

A specified position en route at which the flight will be redispatched to its final destination. May also be referred to as Point of Safe Return (PSR) or Point of No Return (PNR) when using planned redispatch procedures to conduct a flight to an isolated airport.

131
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - planned redispatch

A

A procedure by which a flight is released to an initial destination short of the final destination for the purpose of redispatch en route to the final destination. Used to cover both rereleases (supplemental) and redispatches (flag).

132
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - redispatch message

A

Authorization from dispatch, received en route, releasing the flight over the POR to the final destination. This release is based on updated en route wind data and the latest available forecast final destination and alternate wx.

133
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - redispatch acceptance

A

When the PIC accepts the proposed redispatch message

134
Q

Requirements for planned redispatch

A

Must meet all the requirements for a normal dispatch.
Allowed only for flag and supplemental operations.
For the purposes of redispatch, flight starts to the POR rather than from departure.

Redispatch required to change destination or delete an alternate. Diversion to planned alternate doesn’t count.

Issued no earlier than two hours from POR based on actual flight time

135
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - terminal wx: open

A

3000/5 or greater

136
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - terminal wx: operational

A

Less than 3000/5 but not less than 1000/3

137
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - terminal wx: instruments

A

Less than 1000/3 but not less than 600/1

*Less than 600/1 dispatch will give forecast in plain text

138
Q

Planned redispatch definitions - reserves

A

Sum of 10% reserve fuel, fuel to the alternate, and 30 minutes of holding fuel

139
Q

Redispatch communications

A

Dispatch will not release a flight on a planned redispatch if it is known that two-way communications will not be available for the redispatch.

Crews attempt to contact Dispatch via available means if no RDM within 60 minutes of POR

If no RDM has been received by the POR, the flight must proceed to the initial destination unless the captain, considering all factors, determines that the safest course is to proceed to the final destination. Must continue to try to contact dispatch.

Continue to monitor fuel after RDA. If fuel is at or below MINF at POR advise dispatch for reanalysis.

140
Q

Receiver Autonomously Integrity Monitor (RAIM) prediction

A

For GPS equipped aircraft, the OFP will include RAIM validation remarks:
RAIM VALIDATION PASSED
RAIM VALIDATION FAILURE CONSIDERED - NOT A FACTOR
USE ILS/DME APPROACH AT KORD (for example)

141
Q

One engine inoperative

A

Aircraft must meet terrain clearance requirements for OEI aircraft.
Planning solutions:
Method 1: Payload reduction to ensure performance (climbing at least 2,000’ above all terrain and obstructions w/in 5NM of intended track)
Method 2: Escape routes for diversion off flight planned routing to designated airports (minimum 2,000’ separation from terrain and obstacles) - also provided for depressurization scenarios where MORA is too high

142
Q

Two engines inoperative

A

All company four engine aircraft must meet either of the following:
- Remain within 90 minutes of an adequate airport OR
- Carry sufficient fuel so that if two engines fail simultaneously at the most critical point en route, the aircraft can:
- Fly to an adequate airport and arrive over that field with enough fuel to fly for 15 minutes at 1,500’ AGL AND
- Clear all obstacles and terrain by at least 2,000’ vertically within 5 NM of intended track

143
Q

Four engine aircraft specific - ETP

A

Flights that include route segments more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport must have at least one equal time point (ETP). Multiple ETPs may be provided in order to increase available payload.
- Point along the route where the flight time is the same to two ETP alternate airports, typically ORCA airspace. Once the ETP has been determined, fuel requirements for drift down and cruise to alternate are computed.
- A legal ETP alternate must have reported or forecast wx at the ETA at or above charted IAP minimums.
- If no ETP is specified on the OFP, none is required.

144
Q

Company communications

A

Chap 4
PEFB - Comply365/Jeppesen flight critical. iPad and charger required aircrew equipment.
PCD - Cargo decoder, CASS verification, schedule acknowledgment, crew wake up/connect, station guides
Paper documents on board - QRH, Jepp en route charts, glareshield checklists, supernumerary briefing cards, DDG, HAZMAT guide, spare forms kit

*Two current and operable document libraries required for flight - 1/1 PEFB/paper, or 2 PEFB

145
Q

eHOTs

A

Updated eHOTs app pushed to iPads each year
ADM maintained in Comply365

146
Q

iPad stuff

A

Don’t be an asshole with the iPad. It’s the company’s, as is the data on it.
iPad and charger are required equipment; sole device authorized for retrieval and inflight use of company info
Device must be in good working order
- minimum 67% charge at the beginning of the flight

147
Q

Company special airports

A

Bogota, Colombia SKBO
Campinas, Brazil SBKP
Eldoret, Kenya HKEL
Guantanamo, Cuba MUGM
Kathmandu, Nepal VNKT
Marana, AZ KMZJ
Quito, Ecuador SEQM

148
Q

Events requiring a maintenance inspection

A

(Also an FCIR)
Hard landing, overweight landing
Severe turbulence
Overspeed: flap, MMO/VMO, landing gear, tires
High energy stop, tail strike
Lightning strike, extreme dust
Pilot thinks so
Engine shut down in flight for any reason

149
Q

Dispatch with inoperative runway edge lights

A

Chap 7
May be authorized IAW chap 7 list

150
Q

Command authority and expectations

A

Chap 10
CA has full responsibility and is the final authority for the safe operation of the aircraft.
Ensures all crew members perform in a manner that promotes:
- maximum safety
- regulatory compliance
- passenger comfort
- efficiency
- and on time performance

151
Q

Inflight simulation of emergencies

A

Chap 10
Prohibited while pax or cargo are aboard

152
Q

Automation policy

A

Enhances flight safety, workload management, and better decision making… but does not reinforce pilot skills/knowledge. NOT a substitute for good airmanship or to be used as a crutch.

In low threat environments or where procedures or regulations do not require automation, manual flying is encouraged.

153
Q

Guarding of the controls

A

PF: Encouraged to guard the controls any time the flaps are out of up and required below 2500’ AGL

PM: Must be in a position to effectively take over the controls any time below 1000’ AGL

154
Q

Transfer of control

A

Pre-transfer briefing of pertinent items (e.g. automation, navigation, configuration, etc)
Positive, three way transfer of control

155
Q

APU policy

A

SHOULD be kept to a minimum, taking into consideration external power/air and current operating conditions. Continual equipment cooling is imperative

Do not start APU until 30 minutes prior to departure (*see above), but no later than 5 minutes prior

Except when ground power is to be used, APU must be up and running minimum 1 minute prior to parking

156
Q

Station copies of flight documents

A

Signed copies:
Flight plan
Load manifest
NOTOC or military equivalent

Yellow and pink fuel sheet copies (if required)
Security sheet (if required)

157
Q

Trip envelope

A

Master copies of briefing packet
ACARS printouts:
Clearances (departure, oceanic, release amendments)
Performance (FDP, TLR, live calculation numbers)

If required:
Fuel receipts
Plotting chart
NOTOC/military equivalent
Loadplanner form

158
Q

Departure delay advisories

A

If time and conditions permit, crew should send DEP DELAY message to dispatch with reason and departure estimate

159
Q

GPWS warnings - PULL UP

A

If at night or in IMC, treat as genuine and perform an immediate GPWS recovery procedure

160
Q

GPWS warnings - GLIDE SLOPE

A

Fly the airplane back to the glide slope

161
Q

GPWS warnings - TOO LOW GEAR/FLAPS

A

Mandatory go-around

162
Q

GPWS inhibiting/deactivating

A

Ok if:
Non-normal checklist calls for inhibiting specific systems
Warning occurs under day VMC conditions and it is obvious that aircraft position, altitude, and configuration are satisfactory
GLIDE SLOPE may be inhibited for:
- LOC or back course apch
- Circling approach from an ILS
- Unreliable glide slope signal
- When flight below the glide slope is intentional

163
Q

O2 requirements

A

10,000’+ available to each crew member on flight deck duty
10,000’+ cabin pressure altitude must be in use by all operating and augmenting flight crew
FL250+ quick donning masks must be available
FL410+ remaining crew member must don and use O2 if the other has to leave their station
- Under the above condition, operate mask in NORM. Otherwise should be in 100%.

164
Q

Cell phone policy

A

Off on the flight deck from beginning of the before start checklist until after the shutdown checklist is completed unless an operational need exists.

165
Q

Raised arresting cables

A

No restrictions, but avoid if it makes operational sense.

166
Q

Minimum runway width

A

148’
- unless otherwise specified in OFP

167
Q

Tolerances for flight maneuvers

A

General:
+/- 10kts, +/- 100’, +/- 5 deg

T/O and missed apch:
Airspeed tightens to +/- 5 kts

168
Q

Stabilized approach criteria

A

On flight path
Configured for landing
On speed

Stabilized approach gate of 1,000’
Execute go around if unstable below 1,000’ AGL

169
Q

“On flight path” definition for stabilized approach

A

Correct airport and runway programmed for lateral and vertical guidance
Only small heading/pitch changes required to maintain flight path
Sink rate no higher than 1,000 FPM unless conditions dictate and is pre-briefed
ILS/IAN: within 1 dot vertical/lateral deviation
Non-ILS on VNAV glide path (VTK +/- 75’):
- using the 10 mile scale, LNAV course is touching A/C symbol or XTK deviation w/in 1/2 RNP requirement
- within 1 dot lateral deviation (LOC/VOR)
Visual: on VNAV glide path or visual approach path indicator, on centerline with wings level no lower than 300’
- PAPI indications of four white/red considered unstable

170
Q

“Configured for landing” definition for stabilized approach

A

Aircraft is configured as planned (gear, flaps, speed brake)
Landing checklist complete

171
Q

“On speed” definition for stabilized approach

A

On target speed with normal bracketing and momentary deviations
Thrust is stabilized to maintain target speed

172
Q

Use of reserve fuel

A

Once airborne, flights should be managed to land with reserve fuel unused. It’s there to be used if needed, but use discretion.
If circumstances are such that landing at destination may be with less than either:
- Minimum diversion fuel (FMC reserve) OR
- Fuel required to operate to an isolated airport

173
Q

Use of reserve fuel

A

Once airborne, flights should be managed to land with reserve fuel unused. It’s there to be used if needed, but use discretion.
If circumstances are such that landing at destination may be with less than either:
- Minimum diversion fuel (FMC reserve) OR
- Fuel required to operate to an isolated airport

174
Q

ATC minimum fuel advisory

A

Aircraft’s fuel supply has reached a state where little or no delay can be accepted

Advise ATC on initial contact “SoCal Apch, GTI 400 heavy, minimum fuel)

175
Q

Emergency fuel

A

Fuel on board is predicted to be 30 minutes or less upon landing
- Declare mayday
- State usable fuel remaining in time and souls on board
- Request priority handling from ATC
- Proceed directly to the airport
- Time permitting, advise dispatch

176
Q

Diversion nit picky rules

A

Big list of considerations in chapter 10
“Flight to any airport that is not the destination originally designated in the Dispatch Release.”
Diversion airport does not have to be a designated alternate on the release. However, if it is not, the release must be amended to designate it as an alternate.
A redispatch is not required to divert to a designated alternate.

177
Q

Maintenance discrepancies after block-out

A

Considered flight operations and falls under chapter 6 Maintenance Discrepancies During Flight Operations policy.

178
Q

VFR departures

A

If no ATC facility and unable to obtain an IFR clearance to depart, flight may depart VFR if:
- Basic VFR for departure and must remain VMC for departure
- Obtain IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but may proceed no further than 50 miles from departure airport without a clearance
- Must be able to maintain VMC conditions, VFR cloud clearances, and ground reference with a visual contact with a referenced landmark on a published procedure for the airport
- VFR cloud clearances appropriate to the airspace flying through

179
Q

IFR clearance with VFR climb restriction

A

Expedites departure at a non-radar airport when ATC has an inbound aircraft
Must know location and intentions of inbound aircraft and be able to maintain VFR
Performance requirements must be met
Wx conditions must allow crew to identify/avoid obstacles, safely maneuver using visual reference, and maintain minimum altitudes

180
Q

Takeoff minimums

A

High minimum captain limitations do not apply to takeoffs
Touchdown zone RVR is controlling
If published minimums are higher than company minimums, then published minimums apply
Standard takeoff minimums: RVR 2400’ (750m) or 1/2 SM (800m)
Lower than standard takeoff minimums table:
TDZ RVR 1600’/500m or 1/4 sm vis - May substitute RVR - Adequate visual ref or RCLM or HIRL or CL
TDZ/Mid RVR 1200’/350m, RO RVR 1000’/300m - 2 RVR req’d, all controlling - HIRL or CL (or RCLM - day)
TDZ/Mid/RO RVR 1000’/300m - 2 RVR req’d, all controlling - RCLM and HIRL or CL
TDZ/Mid/RO RVR 500’/150m - 2 RVR req’d, all controlling - HIRL and CL

181
Q

RVSM requirements

A

FL290 - 410 inclusive
Two independent primary altimetry systems
Mode C capable SSR transponder
Altitude alert system
Automatic altitude-keeping device

If aircraft log entries are required for height keeping systems, provide the following:
Altimeter readings and settings
Autopilot used to control the aircraft
Transponder selected to provide altitude information to ATC

182
Q

Position reports

A

Every four hours except in domestic operations
- Flight number
- Position
- Time over position
- Flight level
- Fuel remaining

183
Q

Directs or deviation from planned routes

A

Notify dispatch for any of the following occur
- ETA exceeds 15 minutes beyond flight plan
- Cruise altitude varies by 4,000’ or more from flight plan
- Route deviates more than 100NM from flight plan

184
Q

Minimum runway length - vertical guidance requirement

A

Runways less than 8,000’ must have approved vertical guidance (VASI/PAPI, GS, or VNAV)

185
Q

QNH/QNE

A

QNH sole barometric altitude reference for takeoff, approach, and landing phases unless QFE procedures are required.

186
Q

Airplane category for approach speeds

A

747-8 = category DL
747-400 = category D

187
Q

Fuel requirements for dispatch - basic

A

Changes to planned fuel must be coordinated with dispatcher except for APU or MINF ADJ. Dispatcher must be advised and an annotation made on the OFP.

Flight planned fuel requirements will be reduced to minimum safe values whenever practical.

188
Q

Continuous descent arrival/low drag procedure

A

Minimizes noise and fuel burn
Avoid level segments (not more than 50’ change over a distance of 2NM or more)
Using FLCH and V/S may be necessary in order to achieve CDA profiles due to ATC input

189
Q

Wet runway/Visibility

A

Runways with RVR less than 4000’/1200m or 3/4 sm visibility are considered wet.

Precision instrument runway markings or runway centerline lights are required for initiation of an instrument approach when RVR/visibility are below 4000’/1200m or 3/4 sm

190
Q

Autoland

A

Authorized for all company aircraft to runways with an operating ILS provided all crew members are current and qualified to conduct autoland operations.

May only be conducted to the category for which the approach is certified.

Prior coordination w/ ATC required to ensure protection of the ILS critical area.

191
Q

Circle to land maneuver

A

Instrument apch to a straight in landing is not possible or desirable or inbound course is offset more than 30 degrees

Two parts:
- Instrument apch to authorized minima
- Circling visual apch, which must be conducted clear of clouds and IAW company minimums; visual contact with runway environment must be maintained or go around

Published circle to land MDA, but not less than 1000 HAA
Published visibility, but not less than 3 miles

192
Q

PRM approaches

A

Simultaneous operations to parallel runways spaced closer than 4,300’ apart in IMC.
Must be specifically cleared for a PRM apch, use the apch plate corresponding to it, and follow the instructions there and on the ATTENTION ALL USERS page
Captain only apch/landing
Advise ATC at least 100NM out if unwilling to accept a PRM apch
Monitor two frequencies simultaneously

193
Q

Wx for FO apch and LDG

A

May conduct apch and ldg if the RVR or visibility is at or above authorized Cat I minimums

Atlas Knowledge (6 decks)

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