Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Atlas Knowledge > FCOM Vol 1 Limitations > Flashcards

FCOM Vol 1 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Max operating altitude

A

400: 45,100’ PA
-8: 43,100’ PA
LCF: 43,100’ PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max altitude for takeoff and landing

A

400: 10,000’ PA
-8: 10,000’ PA
LCF: 7,300’ PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max field elevation

A

400: 9,500’ MSL
-8: 9,500’ MSL
LCF: 7,300’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

400: 15 kts
-8: 15 kts
LCF: 10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max runway slope

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max speed operating in RVSM airspace

A

400: .9M
-8: N/A
LCF: N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

400 turbulent air penetration speed

A

290-310 kts / .82 - .85 M, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

-8 turbulent air penetration speed

A

310 kts/.83M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Door mounted power assists and escape slides; 400P/LCF main deck

A

Must be armed, verify by checking knob is visible in the viewing port prior to taxi, t/o, and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Door mounted power assists and escape slides; 400C/P upper deck

A

Must be in AUTOMATIC/ARMED mode, verify knob visible in the viewing port prior to taxi, t/o, and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Door mounted power assists and escape slides; 400F/-8

A

Must be in the forward locked position during taxi, takeoff, and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Flight deck security door; 400P

A

Verify operational check of the flight deck access system has been accomplished once each day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ladder Enclosure Door; freighters

A

Must be closed during taxi, takeoff, and landing
Must be closed in flight except when entering or leaving the main deck cargo compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Main deck cargo compartment access; WITHOUT main deck signaling/alert system
(No main deck occupancy placard on the smoke barrier door)

A

Supernumeraries are prohibited from accessing the main deck cargo compartment any time the aircraft is moving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Main deck cargo compartment access; WITH main deck signaling/alert system
(Main deck occupancy placard on the smoke barrier door)

A

No access during taxi, takeoff, and landing
Maximum 3 supernumeraries may access the main deck for live animal or cargo operations
Must be signaled at the onset of smoke, fire, depressurization, turbulence, and prior to landing
One full face mask with O2 for each supernumerary on the main deck
Supernumeraries must be trained in the use of O2 units and verifying operability
O2 units must be carried while on the main deck during flight

If no automatic aural/visual system, main deck occupants must don and use O2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Non-AFM operational information

A

Max demonstrated crosswind takeoff and landing x-wind is 30 kts (not limiting)
Do not operate HF radios during refueling operations
# Avoid weather radar operation in a hangar (N/A for weather radar test mode)
Avoid weather radar operation when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the radome

400P: Without cabin crew on board, cockpit ACMs and supernumeraries are restricted to the the upper deck for taxi, takeoff, and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Altitude display limits for RVSM operations

A

STBY altimeters do not meet altimeter accuracy requirements of RVSM airspace
The maximum allowable in-flight difference between captain and FO altitude displays is 200’

The maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for RVSM are:
Max difference between CA/FO and field elevation: 75’
Max difference between CA and FO: 35’ (sea level to 5,000’), 40’ (5,000 - 9,500’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Oxygen requirements

A

An adequate quantity of oxygen must be provided for each occupant for flight at 25,000 cabin altitude to the nearest suitable airport.
In the event of cabin depressurization for any emergency condition, O2 flow to upper deck occupant’s masks no longer in use must be turned off.

Target O2 pressures:
Land: Crew 950 psi, Pax 1,200 psi
Ocean: Crew/Pax 1,200 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nominal max taxi weight:

A

400F: 397,800 kgs
400C: 395,986 kgs
400P: 395,986/398,254 kgs
-8: 449,056 kgs
LCF: 803,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nominal max takeoff weight

A

400F: 396,893 kgs
400C: 394,893 kgs
400P: 394, 625/396,893 kgs
-8: 447,695 kgs
LCF: 800,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nominal max landing weight

A

400F: 302,092 kgs
400C: 295,742 kgs
400P: 264,897/285,763 kgs
-8: 346,090/350,626 kgs
LCF: 575,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Max zero fuel weight

A

400F: 288,031 kgs **(Variable zero fuel weight, N/A for KZ, PA, and 445/446)
400C: 276,691 kgs
400P: 242,671/251,743 kgs
-8: 329,761/334,297 kgs
LCF: 535,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum cabin pressurization differential

A

Air: 9.4 psi
T/O & LDG: 0.11 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nitrogen Generating System

A

400P: If pack 3 is available, do not move the pack 3 control selector to OFF during normal ground operations unless pack 1 and pack 2 selectors are OFF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

AFDS limitation

A

Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited

26
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot engagement on takeoff

A

250’ AGL

27
Q

Minimum altitude for autopilot on approach

A

50’ below minimums unless coupled to ILS glideslope and localizer or in the go-around mode

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, minimum altitude is 100’ RA
- LCF: Autoland may only be used on runways at or below 5,000’

28
Q

Maximum winds for autoland

A

Headwind: 25 kts
Tailwind: 15 kts (LCF 10 kts)
Crosswind: 25 kts
Crosswind CAT II/III: 15 kts

29
Q

Max min autoland glideslope

A

3.25 - 2.5 degrees

30
Q

Autoland flap settings

A

Autoland requires flaps 25 or 30

31
Q

FLCH on approach

A

Do not use FLCH on final approach below 1,000’ AFE

32
Q

VHF radio limitation

A

LCF, 419, 429, 471
With an operational ACARS system, the center VHF is not approved for ATC voice communications (except for FIR boundary reports)

33
Q

VHF frequency limitation

A

409, 476, 480, 496-499
Do not use the center VHF on 120.000 or 120.005. If those freqs are required, the left and right VHF radios must be operational for dispatch

34
Q

ACARS limitations

A

ACARS is limited to the transmission and receipt of messages which will not create an unsafe condition if the message is improperly received, such as:
- message or parts of the message are delayed or not received
- the message is delivered to the wrong recipient
- the message content may frequently corrupted

PDC, D-ATIS, oceanic clearances, W&B, and performance data are permitted if verified per SOPs

35
Q

ATC datalink

A

ATC clearance data received through the FMC that can only be viewed on the printer must be independently verified with the originating ground station

36
Q

Passenger wireless network

A

Operational use of the wifi system and any portable electronic devices must be discontinued if interference to any electrical or avionic system is experienced

37
Q

SATCOM phone

A

Do not use SwiftBroadband service for ATC communications

38
Q

Engine limit display markings

A

Maximum and minimum limits are red

Caution limits are amber

39
Q

Engine oil system

A

PW: Oil temperature must be greater than 50 degrees before advancing thrust levers to takeoff power

40
Q

Continuous ignition must be ON for:

A

747-400:
Heavy rain
Severe turbulence
Volcanic ash
Icing conditions
Standing water or slush on runway

Note: Continuous ignition is automatically on with nacelle anti-ice

41
Q

Reverse thrust:

A

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited

Backing the airplane with use of reverse thrust is prohibited

42
Q

Tailwind and crosswind ground operations

A

-8
For crosswinds greater than 35 kts, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi (45% N1)
For tailwind component greater than 5 kts and winds greater than 26 kts, limit thrust to 45% N1
For winds greater than 55 kts, limit engine thrust to idle
Engines must be shut down when the 90 degree crosswind component exceeds 55 kts

43
Q

Ground operations in icing conditions

A

-8
If engine vibration indications are available and above 4 units, do not take off

44
Q

APU ground operation

A

Do not operate APU below 1000’ PA

45
Q

Flight control limitation

A

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including VA

46
Q

Max flap altitude

A

20,000’

47
Q

Speedbrakes in flight

A

Use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past 20 is not recommended

249BA, 780BA: Use of speedbrakes with flaps extended past 10 is not recommended

48
Q

LCF cameras

A

The cargo camera system must be operational to enable large cargo to be carried

49
Q

QFE selection

A

LCF: QFE operations are prohibited

50
Q

RNAV/RNP operations

A

Do not delete/add waypoints to RNAV/RNP DPs or STARs
Unless able to proceed visually, go-around for “UNABLE RNP” while on an RNAV approach
In order to use a published RNAV procedure, it must be retrievable from the aircraft nav database

51
Q

RNAV (RNP) AR approaches

A

Operations are not authorized for RNAV (RNP) or RNP (AR) approaches

(FAA: RNAV (RNP); ICAO RNP (AR))

52
Q

VNAV path angle

A

2.75 to 3.5 degrees for approach procedures using VNAV to a DA(H)

53
Q

VNAV selection

A

If leveling off within 2000’ after changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE do not use VNAV to execute the level off if QNH is less than 29.70”/1006 hPa.

54
Q

Max fuel temp

A

54 F

55
Q

Prohibited fuels

A

Jet B and JP-4

56
Q

Minimum in-flight fuel tank temp

A

Must be at least 3 C above the fuel freezing point

57
Q

Fuel density range

A

400: 2.72 to 3.22
-8: 2.84 to 3.22
LCF: 6.43 to 7.1

58
Q

Fuel freezing points

A

Jet A: -40C
JP5: -46C
Jet A1: -47C

59
Q

GPWS look-ahead terrain alerting

A

Do not use terrain display for navigation

Prohibited within 15 NM of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWA database. Identified by company NOTAM.

60
Q

TCAS

A

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS RA

Atlas Knowledge (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions