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United > FOM > Flashcards

FOM Flashcards

1
Q

The captain and the dispatcher are jointly responsible for (blank), (blank), (blank), and if appropriate, the (blank)

A

Preflight planning, delay, dispatch release, and the redispatch of the flight.

FOM chp3 sec10

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2
Q

The captains authority is (blank) during all flight-related operations including pre and post-flight decisions.

A

Absolute

FOM chp3 sec10

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3
Q

The captain is the (blank) and has authority over all assigned crewmembers from the (blank) until (blank).

A

PIC, time they report for duty, termination of the flight.

FOM chp3 sec10.2

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4
Q

The captain is the final decision-making authority as to the operation of the aircraft, but it is the responsibility of (blank) to contribute to the decision-making process to help ensure that the best decisions are made

A

All crewmembers

FOM chp3 sec10.2

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5
Q

The first officer is the (blank)

A

Second-in-command

FOM chp3 sec10.2

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6
Q

CUS words are intended to give crewmembers a CRM strategy to progressively heighten awareness if they determine their concerns are not being conveyed effectively. CUS stands for?

A

Concerned, Uncomfortable, and Safe

FOM chp3 sec20

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7
Q

VVM words are an effective TEM strategy to counter threats and errors encountered during flight operations. Verbalize (blank), Verify (blank), and Monitor (blank).

A

Verbalize plans and ideas, Verity them with others, and Monitor for expected result.

FOM chp3 sec20.2

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8
Q

Threats occur (blank) the influence of the crewmembers, (blank) operational complexity, and require (blank) attention to maintain safety margins.

A

Outside, increase, crewmember

FOM chp3 sec 20.2

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9
Q

Errors are:
A. Unintentional deviations from desired performance.
B. Acts of commission or omission.
C. Inevitable in human activity, but controls are available to reduce them.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All the above

FOM chp3 sec 20.2

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10
Q

Undesired Aircraft state is a (blank), (blank), (blank) or (blank) of an aircraft that reduces safety margins.

A

Position, attitude, condition, or configuration.

FOM chp3 sec20.4

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11
Q

The seven CRM/TEM skills are:

A

Planning and decision making
Leadership Effectiveness
Situation Awareness
Communication
Monitor /Cross-check
Workload Management
Automation Management

FOM chp3 sec20.4

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12
Q

A personal headset may be used on the flight deck for communication only if.

A

Approved under an FAA Technical Standards order TSO for aviation use.

FOM chp17 sec 10

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13
Q

The EFB is company property. In the event of an aircraft incident or accident, the EFB:

A

May be confiscated by United or third parties such as NTSB, FAA, or other international agencies.

FOM chp17 sec 10.2

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14
Q

Software updates to the iPad operating system (IPadOS) are pushed to the EFB by the manufacturer (apple). As these updates may interfere with the United- supplied applications:

A

Do not install them until notified by flight operations.

FOM chp17 sec20

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15
Q

For all flight and simulator events, verify the battery charge:

A

Will be at least 67%

FOM chp17 sec 20

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16
Q

Each pilot must have an operational EFB. At least one Apple OEM charger and power cable must be available for use by the pilots. If this requirement cannot be met:

A

A loner or replacement equipment must be obtained prior to pushback.

FOM chp17 sec30

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17
Q

If an EFB is lost, stolen, damaged, or does not function properly call:

A

Employee service center at 877-UAL-3729

FOM chp17 sec 50

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18
Q

United’s Core4 principals are:

A

Safe
Caring
Dependable
Efficient

FOM chp1 sec10.2

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19
Q

When exercising the privileges of a pilot certificate, photo identification must be carried. United crew badges are the primary photo identification. Other acceptable forms of photo identification are government-issued photo ID’s. Adhered to the following ID display requirements:

A

ID must be worn on outermost garment above waist level
ID must be worn in non-public areas
ID must be current

FOM chp1 sec40.7

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20
Q

Fees are assessed to the pilot for a lost or stolen ID badge replacement as:

A

Automatic payroll deductions

FOM chp1 sec40.7

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21
Q

When traveling to an assignment, exercise prudent judgment, including awareness of weather and other factors affecting travel, so as to allow adequate time to arrive for the scheduled assignment or reserve duty. Specifically, if commuting by air, plan a minimum of a:

A

Plan a minimum of a primary and secondary flight both of which are scheduled to arrive prior to report time for the initial schedule assignment or reserve duty.

FOM chp1 sec90.12

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22
Q

Pilots are prohibited from consuming alcohol when traveling as a jumpseater, whether occupying a seat on the flight deck or in the cabin or if entering/leaving the flight deck while in flight at any time while on duty and for how many hours prior to reporting for duty? Also “duty” includes all the following:

A

At any time while on duty and for 12 hours prior to reporting for duty. Blood alcohol content of 0.02.

FOM chp1 sec90.9

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23
Q

United pilots are professionals and are required to conduct themselves in a manner consistent with the highest professional standards. The discipline required to maintain these extremely high standards requires constant attention. United encourages pilots to review the alpa code of ethics, which consists of five sub parts. The five sub parts to the ALPA code of ethics are:

A

Flight safety
Discharge of duties
Command responsibilities
Personal conduct
Professional honor

FOM chp1 sec90.4

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24
Q

In addition to providing safe and reliable air transportation, United’s success depends on:

A

How we attract and keep our customers. Providing great customer service and delivering reliable operations are critical components to establishing loyalty.

FOM chp1 sec10.3

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25
Q

Pilots are uniquely positioned to help United achieve a high level of customer satisfaction. What three pilot tools and resources outlined in the FOM have proven to resonate with our customers and co-workers:

A

Engage with customers and make connections, as well as set an example for our company-workers.

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26
Q

Historical feedback shows that our customers value effective and timely communication second only to:

A

Operational reliability

FOM chp1 sec10.3

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27
Q

When it comes to irregular operations, our customers do not expect us to provide an answer for every problem; however, they do expect:

A

Empathy and acknowledge that there is a problem. They also expect us to provide them the best most accurate information and if available a planned resolution.

FOM chp1 sec 10.3

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28
Q

On a flight in which a customer will achieve their millonth mile traveled with United miles one time permitting what should the captain present to the customer?

A

Captain should present the coin prior to departure of the milestone leg.

FOM chp1 sec10.4

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29
Q

After anti-ice application flaps should (blank) during taxi to avoid the 24% hold over time (hot) penalty. Plan on positioning flaps for takeoff when approaching (blank) but no later than the initiation of the (blank)

A

Remain retracted
The departure end of the takeoff runway
Before takeoff checklist

FOM chp7 sec20

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30
Q

To avoid losing lateral control on slippery surfaces (blank) are recommended for two-engine aircraft

A

Dual

FOM chp7 sec20.4

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31
Q

For takeoff runway contamination may be referred to as

A

Runway clutter

FOM chp7 sec20.5

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32
Q

Consider retracting the flaps (blank) if during taxi in there is a possibility of substantial ice accumulation

A

Immediately

FOM chp7 sec20.9

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33
Q

The clean aircraft concept is the basis to ensure compliance with FAR 121-629. For an aircraft to be considered clean the critical aircraft surfaces must be

A

Free of adhering frozen precipitation

FOM chp7 sec 30.2

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34
Q

(Blank) is a procedure by which frozen contaminates are removed from the aircraft to provide clean aircraft surfaces.

A

Deicing

FOM chp7 sec30.2

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35
Q

(Blank) is a procedure that protects the aircraft from frozen contaminates adhering to the aircraft’s critical surfaces

A

Anti-icing

FOM chp 7 sec30.4

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36
Q

If freezing precipitation has occurred since the aircraft was determined to be clean either via a preflight inspection or a post device/anti-ice inspection performance inspection from the flight deck of the aircraft’s representative surfaces as outlined in FOM. This inspection is performed shorty prior to takeoff. Perform a wing check if

A

The nose check is inconclusive
The holdover time will be exceeded prior to takeoff
The holdover times are uncertain due to changing conditions

FOM chp7 sec 30.5

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37
Q

If the takeoff is not initiated within the holdover time or if the nose check is unsatisfactory (blank) must be perform a wing check.

A

Pilot assigned to operate the flight.

FOM chp7 sec30.6

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38
Q

(Blank) is a conservative estimated time the application of anti-icing fluid can be expected to prevent the adherence of frost ice snow or slush on the treated surface of an aircraft, as related to the existing weather conditions.

A

Holdover time (hot)

FOM chp7 sec30.15

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39
Q

Pilots have a responsibility to conduct themselves and operate to the core 4 principles. United’s core 4 principles are?

A

Safe
Caring
Dependable
Efficient

FOM chp1 sec10.2

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40
Q

Our goal is to provide safe caring dependable and efficient transportation for our customers (blank) is the single objective that cannot be compromised

A

Safety

FOM chp1 sec10.2

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41
Q

The primary purpose of SMS is to:
A. Manage threats and errors
B. Proactively manage risk to keep it as low as possible
C. Report accidents incidents and injuries

A

B. Proactively manage risk to keep as low as possible.

FOM chp1 sec 10.5

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42
Q

It is the responsibility of all co-workers to consider the impact of safety in everything they do. To accomplish this goal, every employee must:

A. Work to support and maintain a posture safety culture
B. Advocate safety programs
C. Participate in voluntary reporting
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

FOM chp1 sec 10.6

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43
Q

There are two types of flight safety action program:
An (blank) report is used to report operational or security concerns to preflight, mechanical, and operational events.
An (blank) report is suggested anytime a pilot deviation may have occurred and/or safety related issues.

A

Irregular operations report (IOR) used to report operational or security concerns to preflight, mechanical, and operational events.

Flight safety action program (FSAP) is suggested anytime a pilot deviation may have occurred and/or safety related issues.

FOM chp12 sec 30.

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44
Q

FO was the pilot flying. Upon landing and transfer of controls, the captain didn’t hear ATC clear them to continue taxi, right turn on bravo. He stopped the airplane with the tail of the aircraft still on active runway. ATC was required to force the aircraft behind to do a go-around. What kind of report?
Verbal
IOR
FSAP

A

IOR

FOM chp12 sec30.5

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45
Q

During taxi out the captain turned left on yankee because we always turn left on yankee to get to runway 25. We pre-briefed that yankee was closed between C5 and C7 but I guess it didn’t register. Ground caught our mistake as we began the turn. Told us not to worry, turn right at C4 and left on Zulu. No other mention of the problem. Which report should be filled out?

A

FSAP

FOM chp12 sec30.2

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46
Q

During the takeoff roll at around 120 knots IAS a flock of geese flew by the airplane and we heard a loud bang. The captain initiated a high speed abort. Which report to file?

A

IOR.

FOM chp12 sec30.5

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47
Q

An incident involving aircraft proximity to an unmanned aircraft system (drone) requires a report of position altitude approximate lateral separation and if evasive maneuvering to
A. ATC and submit an IOR
B. ATC dispatch and submit and IOR
C. ATC and submit an FSAP
D. FSAP and IOR

A

A. ATC and submit an IOR

FOM chp 12 sec 30.6

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48
Q

An FSAP report should be submitted for
A. FAR deviations
B. SOP violations
C. Failure to follow ATC instructions
D. To report a safety of flight event
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

FOM chp 12 sec30.6

49
Q

The definition of fit for duty is:

A

Being physiological and mentally prepared and capable of performing assigned duties at the highest degree of safety.

FOM chp1 sec 50

50
Q

A class 1 flight crew rest facility (FCRF) is a bunk or other surface that allows for a flat sleeping position that is:

A

Separate from both the flight deck and passenger cabin

FOM chp 1sec50

51
Q

A flight duty period is defined as beginning when a pilot is (blank) for a flight or series of flights and ends when the (blank) after the last flight.

A

Required to report to duty
Aircraft is parked after last flight with no intention for further aircraft movement.

FOM chp1 sec50

52
Q

Using part 117 table A: determine the maximum flight time (hours) for two person, domestic flight crew, with a required report time of 0410.

A

8 hours

FOM chp1 sec 50.4

53
Q

If unforeseen operation circumstances arise after takeoff, maximum flight time limits

A

May be exceeded to the extent necessary to safety land the aircraft at next destination or alternate airport.

FOM chp1 sec 50.4

54
Q

Regarding flight duty period time, the time frame of reference used to determine scheduled duty limitations will be

A

The pilots home base time, unless that pilot has become acclimated to a different theater.

FOM chp1 sec50.4

55
Q

Using part 117 table B determine the flight duty period (FDP) limit for Newark based non augmented crew departing on second day from San Francisco (0400 LCL time start) on a 3 leg day?

A

13 hours

FOM chp1 sec 50.5

56
Q

Regarding augmented FDP limits: how many flight segments may be scheduled in an augmented FDP?

A

Three flight segments

FOM chp1 sec50.5

57
Q

Using part 117 table C Determine the maximum FDP limit for a 4 pilot 787 (class 1 FCRF), San Francisco based crew departing from San Francisco at 2300

A

17 hours

FOM chp1 sec 50.6

58
Q

Regarding augmented flight rest requirements the pilot landing the aircraft must (blank) in the (blank) of the flight duty period unless modified by fatigue risk management system (FRMS)

A

Take 2 consecutive hours of inflight rest
In the second half of the FDP

FOM chp1 sec50.6

59
Q

Pilots must report for duty periods rested and prepared to perform assigned duties. It is the individual pilots responsibility to determine his or her own fitness for duty (FTD) for each flight segment in the FTD period. As part of the dispatch process for every non-deadheading flight segment, each pilot must affirm and certify he is fit for duty by using one of the following methods:

A

Pilot mobile / Sabre flight plan manger
ACARS message to dispatch
Call the dispatcher and advise fit for duty

FOM chp1 sec50.2

60
Q

A flight dispatched with a deferred (missing ) QRC/ flight deck checklist card requires during non-normal operations, when operating without paper QRH that:

A

At least one pilot EFB must be adequately powered
The first officer or relief pilot must have the QRH open in the pilot EFB App and readily available

FOM chp1 sec30.1

61
Q

Regarding seasonal and geographic uniform requirements except for operations in South America, Europe, Middle East, Africa, Australia, and Asia where uniform hat and uniform coat, leather jacket or overcoat are required to be worn between

A

October 15th and April 15th

FOM chp1 sec80.2

62
Q

Delivering great customer service is one of the ways United fulfills our brand promise of becoming the worlds most customer-friendly airline. The customer satisfaction score (CSAT) is a way to measure how well we meet our customers expectations. CSAT helps assess the customers input on two of our core4 operating priorities:

A

Caring and dependable

FOM chp1 10.2

63
Q

A pilot requires at least (blank) hours of rest including (blank) hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity immediately preceding the start of any reserve availability period of FDP.

A

10 and 8

FOM chp1 sec50.11

64
Q

In alignment with 14 CFR part 121/91/125/129 and OPSPEC A012 / A030 what are the various types of operations conducted by United Airlines pilots?

A

Domestic
Extended domestic
Flag operations
Supplemental operations
Non revenue operations

FOM chp4 sec 20.1

65
Q

What are three alternate rules for destination alternates?

A

123 rule
112 rule
113 rule

FOM chp 4 sec 30.2

66
Q

A captain requested fuel increase greater than (blank) or any non ferry fuel quality decrease must be coordinated between the captain and the dispatcher and will require

A

2000 lbs

A new or amended dispatch release

FOM 4 sec 10.4

67
Q

Regarding domestic fuel planning planned REMF fuel shall be

A

Regulatory fuel + CF + ALTN+ ACF+ Extra.

FOM chp4 sec 40.5

68
Q

Regarding flag fuel planning planned REMF fuel shall be

A

Regulatory fuel including PBCF when applicable + CF +ALTN if required plus extra

FOM Chp 4 sec40.5

69
Q

The pilot reconciliation report may be provided by the gate agent on boarding card stock. It can also be obtained from:

A

Pilot mobile
Verbally briefed by CSR

FOM chp 11 sec20.4

70
Q

Confirm OPS Normal message comes across your ACARS from dispatch. What is your only valid response for your flight 738?

A

Flight call sign (no UAL) + ops normal

FOM chp11 sec20.7

71
Q

A passenger in 6a touches the passenger in 6B in a sexually inappropriately way. After speaking with the purser, you determine this is a security threat level. What threat level checklist will you follow?

A

Threat level 2

FOM chp11 sec10.1

72
Q

The declaration of the threat level requires lockdown of the flight deck. If the threat level declaration for 6a’s behavior occurs while the captain is not in the flight deck and subsequently it is deemed necessary for the safety of flight the CA enter the flight deck, the pilots should:

A

Only by the direction of the NOC network director may the flight deck door be opened for the captain to enter during a flight deck lockdown.

FOM chp 11 sec10.9

73
Q

6A is moved to an empty row and no longer posses a security threat level 2. You should:

A. Open the flight deck door to have a face to face conversation with the CA and the purser about calling law enforcement to meet the flight.
B. Prepare to divert to the nearest suitable airport.
C. Contact dispatch to coordinate NOC direction to downgrade the threat level and authorize opening the flight deck door to read it the CA.
D. Declare an emergency while continuing to your destination leaving the captain locked out of the flight deck.

A

C. Contact dispatch to coordinate NOC direction to downgrade the threat level and authorize opening the flight deck door to readmit the CA.

FOM chp11 sec10.9

74
Q

Allowable takeoff gross weight is the lower of

A

The lower of the maximum structural takeoff weight
The takeoff runway limit weight
The takeoff performance limit weight
The enroute limited takeoff weight
Limited takeoff weight

FOM chp19 sec30.39

75
Q

Takeoff runway limit weight is lower of

A

Field length limit weight
The obstacle limit weight
The brake energy limited takeoff weight
Tire speed limit weight

FOM chp19 sec30.41

76
Q

Maximum allowable landing weight the lower of

A

Structural landing limit weight
The landing runway limit weight
Landing performance limit weight

FOM chp19 sec30.41

77
Q

V1 is the maximum speed in the takeoff at which

A

The maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must make the first action (apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the aircraft within the accelerate-stop distance.

FOM chp19 sec30.42

78
Q

V1 is the minimum speed in the takeoff

A

V1 is also the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.

FOM chp19 sec30.42

79
Q

When requesting takeoff data the (blank) is/are the only mandatory input fields in ACARS

A

The takeoff runway and gross weight

FM chp7 sec20.2

80
Q

Regarding a reduced thrust takeoff reduced EPR/N1 (by use of assumed temperatures) is:

A

The minimum thrust required under normal conditions that results in reduced engine wear

FM chp7 sec20.3

81
Q

If the runway surface is determined to be wet select (blank) prompt when requesting takeoff performance data

A

Wet prompt

FM chp7 sec20.4

82
Q

A runway is wet when more than (blank) of the runway surface area within the reported length and width being used is covered by any visible moisture or dampness and the runway is not contaminated

A

Greater than 25%

FOM chp7 sec20.6

83
Q

When an aircraft is scheduled for flight with certain systems or components (blank) the aircraft must be operated in accordance with the limitations stated in the FM as amended by the minimum equipment list (MEL)

A

Inoperative

FOM chp5 sec10.2

84
Q

When the aircraft is scheduled for flight with certain secondary airframe or engine parts or components (blank) the aircraft must be operated in accordance with the limitations stated in the FM as amended by the configuration deviation list (CDL).

A

Missing

FOM chp5 sec10.2

85
Q

Regarding required maintenance documents the captain shall ensure the (blank) and (blank) are on board

A

MRD and Log History

FOM chp5 sec20

86
Q

To avoid delays follow up any maintenance ACARS write up prior to (blank) or after (blank) with verbal report to the controlling maintenance authority.

A

Pushback
Landing

FOM chp5 sec50.2

87
Q

The controlling maintenance authority for pilots and therefore the point of contact for reporting maintenance issues is determined by location and situation as follows.

A

Station maintenance when at a gate in a United maintenance station
Hub maintenance coordination (HMC) hub station
TOMC no maintenance station

FOM chp5 sec 50.1

88
Q

Certain personal may be authorized to occupy the (blank) jump seat and or a (blank) as a jumpseater

A

Flight deck/overhead flight crew rest (OFCR)
Passenger seat

FOM chp 10 sec 20

89
Q

A jumpseater is considered an additional crew member. A jumpseater occupying a cabin seat is also a useful resource for the crew to assist in the cabin. Is a jumpseater occupying a cabin seat allowed to drink alcohol during the flight?

A

No

FOM chp10 sec50.3

90
Q

The number of jumpseaters permitted on a flight is

A

Only limited to the combined total number of available seats and flight deck jump seats.

FOM chp10 sec 20.1

91
Q

All 757 aircraft are treated as having two installed jump seats for United pilots. Therefore if only one jumpseat is installed

A

Cabin seat may be used to accommodate a second United pilot

FOM chp10 sec 50.1

92
Q

Using the jumpseat priority table in section 60. Determine which two jumpseaters from the list below will occupy the two available jumpseat seats .

A

United dispatcher for qualification currency
United pilot

FOM chp10 sec 60

93
Q

At the start of duty period, verify the EFB battery charge meets one of the following criteria

A

Has a charge of 67% or AC power outlet or other approved power source is confirmed operational

FOM chp17 sec20

94
Q

To allow the captain an opportunity to conduct flight planning and briefings pilots shall meet (blank) prior to (blank) unless constrained operationally.

A

In a flight planning area FPA prior to the first flight of a paring

FOM chp3 sec 40.1

95
Q

Pilots accessing the sterile area via KCM checkpoint are subject to (blank) if selected pilots should cooperate fully with security screener.

A

Random screening

FOM chp11 sec 20.2

96
Q

Pilots should arrive at the aircraft with sufficient time to accomplish all preflight duties prior to schedule departure, and should be at their stations on flight deck at least:

A

15 minutes before scheduled departure

FOM chp3 sec40.6

97
Q

Early departures greater than 10 minutes must be coordinated and approved in advance with:

A

Station operations and the NOC

FOM chp3 sec 50

98
Q

Regarding cabin and passenger issues (blank) reports to the captain and is the primary liaison between the captain and the flight attendants

A

Purser

FOM chp3 sec50.2

99
Q

(Blank) prohibits boarding any passenger who is or appears to be inebriated intoxicated.

A

FAR 121.575

FOM chp11 sec 70.1

100
Q

True or false 737 and 777 video monitoring is authorized for flight deck access.

A

False

FOM chp10 sec 10.3

101
Q

During flight attendant briefing why is it necessary to advise the flight attendants if the route of flight will exceed 50 nm from the nearest shoreline?

A

So they can distribute infant life vest

FOM chp3 sec90.3

102
Q

Captains should not hold for connecting customers unless directed by?

A

CSAVER ACARS message

FOM chp3 sec50.15

103
Q

The captain must not allow aircraft movement until:

A

The purser has advised verbally that the cabin is ready
The purser closes the flight deck door and confirms it’s secured closed
The before push checklist has been completed

FOM chp3 sec50.7

104
Q

The controlling maintenance authority for pilots and therefore the point of contact for reporting maintenance issues is determined by location and situation as follows

A

Station maintenance
Hub maintenance
TOMC

FOM chp5 sec 50.1

105
Q

When on or off gate at hub station. Regarding runway incursion prevention measures during taxi operations both pilots must have (blank) displayed

A

10-9, 20-9 AMM

FOM chp3 sec50.26

106
Q

The (blank) uses the airports ground surveillance radar to monitor runway usage and automatically control the runway entrance lights, takeoff hold lights, and the final approach runway occupancy signal.

A

RWSL

FOM chp6 sec 10.4

107
Q

In the (blank) regime, especially at speeds near (blank) a decision to reject should not be based on the perceived ability that the aircraft can be stopped. The decision to reject should be based on the perceived ability that the aircraft can be stopped. The decision to reject should be made only if the failure involved would impair the ability of the aircraft to be safety flown.

A

High speed
V1

FOM chp6 sec40.1

108
Q

Use the appropriate (blank) published on Jeppesen charts for the given runway unless they are supersede by minimums included in a departure procedure.

A

Takeoff minimums

FOM chp6 sec40.2

109
Q

When RNAV off the ground phraseology is being used, the takeoff clearance includes

A

Instructions to takeoff and proceed via an RNAV path. Read back of the full clearance is required.

FOM chp6 sec50.3

110
Q

Pilots should notify (blank) when a wake event is encountered. Pilots are also encouraged to use (blank) to report wake turbulence events.

A

ATC
FSAP

FOM chp6 sec60.3

111
Q

Ensure the aircraft’s ability to safety land and stop by evaluating (blank) per (blank)

A

Landing performance per FM procedures

FOM chp6 sec80

112
Q

Without exception, the flying pilots immediate response to a go-around callout by the pilot monitoring is:

A

The execution of a missed approach

FOM chp6 sec80

113
Q

Regarding stabilized approach, the goal of the approach is:

A

To be stabilized by no more than 1000 feet RA/TDZE

FOM chp6 sec80.2

114
Q

Regarding circle to land minimums, reported ceiling must be (blank) and reported visibility must be

A

1000 ft 3 miles

FOM chp6 sec100.3

115
Q

Use of the autopilot for non-ILS/GPS approaches is required whenever the reported weather is less than:

A

1000 ft ceiling or 3 miles visibility

FOM chp6 sec100.9

116
Q

Continuing from a circling maneuver and landing is authorized only if:

A

All the conditions for a straight in approach are met
All identifiable part of the airport is distinctly visible to the pilot during the circling maneuver

FOM chp6 sec100.17

117
Q

What authorization allows operations below traditional RVR 2400 when TDZ and/or CL are not available for a CAT 1 ILS approach?

A

RVR 1800 authorized with use of FD or AP or HUD to DA

FOM chp6 sec110.2

118
Q

When landing weather is below CAT 1 ILS minimums (blank) and the approach with the (blank) minimums with the aircraft and captain’s authorizations should be briefed and flown.

A

Autoland is required
With lowest minimums

FOM chp6 sec110.7

United (5 decks)

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