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LT Exam 2019 > F.O. > Flashcards

F.O. Flashcards

1
Q

At the fire officer I level, emphasis is placed on accomplishing the ___________ and _______ by working through subordinates to achieve desired results. (4)

A

department’s goals and objectives

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2
Q

There are 1.1 million FFs in the U.S. - approximately _____ are full-time career and ____ are volunteers. (7)

A

31% full time career and 69% volunteer

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3
Q

In 24 B.C., who created the first FD and was was it called? (7)

A

Augustus Caesar created the first FD call Familia Publica

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4
Q

Under emperor Nero (A.D. 60), the _______ was comprised of ______ free men. (7)

A

Corps of Vigiles was comprised of 7,000 free men

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5
Q

The first documented fire in North American occurred where and in what year? What was mandated after?(7)

A

Jamestown, Virginia in 1607

Mandated fires be “banked” or covered over, throughout the night

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6
Q

In 1630, ______ established the first fire regulations in North America when it banned wood chimneys and thatched roofs. (7)

A

Boston, MA

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7
Q

The first organized volunteer fire company was in _______. It was called _______ formed in _____, under the leadership of _________. (70)

A

Philadelphia

called Union Fire Company, 1735, by Ben Franklin

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8
Q

Who developed the lightning rod? (7)

A

Ben Franklin

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9
Q

_______ imported one of the first fire engines from England, which he donated to the Alexandria FD in 1765. (7)

A

George Washington

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10
Q

The ________ burned through the city for 3 days.

A

Great Chicago Fire

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11
Q

What is the deadliest fire in U.S. history? How many people lost their lives? (7)

A

Pestigo, Wisconsin; 2,200 died

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12
Q

Who designed the first fire hydrants and in what year? (8)

A

George Smith in NYC in 1817

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13
Q

What is the structure that enables a FD to determine the most efficient and effective way to fulfill its mission and to communicate this information to all members of the department? (11)

A

Chain of command

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14
Q

FD’s use a paramilitary style of leadership. Most FDs are structured on the basis of 4 management principles: (11)

A
  1. Unity of command
  2. Span of control
  3. Division of labor
  4. Discipline
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15
Q

__________ is the management concept that each FF answers to one supervisor and each supervisor answers to only one boss (11)

A

Unity of command

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16
Q

________ refers to the maximum number of personnel or activities that can be effectively controlled by one individual (overall 3-7; emergency ops 3-5) (12)

A

Span of Control

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17
Q

__________ is a way of organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into smaller tasks. (12)

A

Division of Labor

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18
Q

_______ is the set of guidelines that a department establishes for FFs. It can be either ______ when it defines appropriate action, or _____ when it responds to inappropriate actions or behaviors. (12)

A

Discipline; positive; negative

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19
Q

In any FD, who functions as the staffing coordinator and gatekeeper, implementing the department’s rules, regulations and procedures to ensure proper fire company staffing? (13)

A

The Company Officer

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20
Q

What are the four functions of Management? (13)

A
  1. Planning CLOP
  2. Organizing
  3. Leading
  4. Control
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21
Q

Short-range planning = ____________
Medium-range planning = __________
Long-range planning = __________ (13)

A

Short Range covers developing a plan up to a year
Medium Range covers 1-3 years
Long Range covers longer than 3 years in advance

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22
Q

_______ do not leave any room for latitude or discretion. They are “set in stone.” (14)

A

Rules and Regs

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23
Q

________ are developed to provide definite guidelines for present and future actions. (14)

A

Policies

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24
Q

________ are written organizations directives that establish or prescribe specific operational or administrative methods to be followed routinely for the performance of designated operations or actions. (14)

A

SOPs

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25
Q

_________ suggests that a specific step-by-step procedure should be used, but it allows the officer to deviate from this procedure if the conditions warrant doing so. (14)

A

Standard Operating GUIDELINE (SOG)

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26
Q

Fire Officer II can be divided into _______, ______, and ________ activities. (16)

A

Administrative, Nonemergency and Emergency

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27
Q

FO I = _______ fire officer (5)

FO II = _______ fire officer (16)

A

FO I = Supervising fire officer

FO II = Managing fire officer

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28
Q

Departments are using the concepts of ________, _______, and ________ to fully engage FFs in the required tasks to prepare and maintain readiness for a wide range of community needs. (17)

A

employee empowerment, decentralized decision making, and delegation

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29
Q

Firefighting only accounts for ____ of the response workload. EMS accounts for a minimum of ____ of fire company responses. (17)

A 
Firefighting = 5%
EMS = >66%
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30
Q

What are the 3 most common reasons for fire service response? (17)

A
  1. EMS
  2. Activated fire protection systems
  3. Investigating an odor, a hazardous condition, or other service call
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31
Q

_______ and _______ are the primary causes of death within a burning structure. (17)

A

Flashover and collapse

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32
Q

What act established the civil service system? (24)

A

Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act

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33
Q

The rank and the classified job description determine the ______, ______ or ______ emphasis of the examination. (25)

A

Technical, theoretical, or behavioral

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34
Q

Completion of a promotional examination process creates an eligibility list that lasts ______ to _____ years. (25)

A

2 to 6 years

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35
Q

_____________ are the most complex and detailed examinations conducted by a municipality. (26)

A

Public safety promotional examinations

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36
Q

What 2 documents does HR use to define the KSAs that are required for every classified position within the municipality? (26)

A
  1. A narrative job description

2. A technical class specification

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37
Q

A ________ summarizes the scope of the job and provides examples of the typical tasks a person holding that position would be expected to perform. (26)

A

Narrative job description

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38
Q

What HR prepared classification system is a core component of the civil service system and is used to determine the compensation level for a position? (26)

A

Technical class specification

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39
Q

_______ is a timed exercise that measures the candidates ability to organize, prioritize, delegate, and follow up on administrative tasks. (30)

A

In-basket exercise

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40
Q

What is a suggested method for handling in-basket exercises? (5 items) (30)

A
  1. Review
  2. Prioritize
  3. Identify resources/options/alternatives
  4. Follow up
  5. Make notifications
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41
Q

What are the 4 ways in which an “emergency incident simulation” could take? (31)

A
  1. The candidate explains what actions to take in situation described (AKA “data dump” question)
  2. Candidate is provided with a set of basic info and react to the unfolding situation
  3. Candidate participates in an interactive emergency scene simulation (complex and expensive)
  4. Actually don PPE, climb in officer’s seat and respond to realistic scenario (extensive prep and large group)
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42
Q

_________ is designed to test a candidate’s ability to perform effectively as a supervisor. Candidate provided with background info to prepare for the situation, followed by 10-20 minutes of face-to-face interaction with the role player. (31)

A

Interpersonal interaction exercise

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43
Q

What are the key points to meet in an interpersonal interaction assessment? (8 items) (32)

A
  1. Maintain control of the interview
  2. Tell the employee the exact behavior expected
  3. Give the employee a deadline to demonstrate a
    consistent behavioral change
  4. Specifically arrange for follow-up meetings
  5. Attempt to get the employee to buy into or take
    personal responsibility for the improvement plan
  6. Be an empathetic listener, but remain focused on the
    reason for the interview
  7. Clearly explain the consequences if the employee’s
    behavior does not change or improve
  8. Try to finish on a positive note.
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44
Q

What should the 4 sections of your study journal contain? (35)

A
  1. information about the promotional exam
  2. calender, usually in 1-month per page format
  3. written reference materials
  4. information about the announced or anticipated
    components of the promotional exam
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45
Q

What are the 4 most important tasks wanted by chiefs, for new officers to do well? (42)

A
  1. Beginning of the shift report
  2. Notifications
  3. Decision making
  4. Problem solving
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46
Q

What are the 4 times in a FF’s career when a major change occurs in how the individual relates to the formal fire department organization? (45)

A
  1. End of probation
  2. Completes promotional process/works as an officer
  3. Completes promotional process/works as chief officer
  4. FF retires
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47
Q

From the book, “Effective Company Command,” a company officer’s duties are divided into 3 distinct roles: (46)

A
  1. Supervisor
  2. Commander
  3. Trainer
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48
Q

The fire officer has the responsibility of making sure the FFs under his command are _____ and _____ in their skills. (47) What are 3 specific recommendations to assist FOs in this task? (48)

A

confident and competent

personal training library, know the neighborhood, and use problem-solving scenarios

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49
Q

What 3 activities are necessary to ensure a good working relationship? (49)

A
  1. Keep your supervisor informed
  2. Make appropriate decisions at your level of responsibility
  3. Consult with your supervisor before making major disciplinary actions or policy changes
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50
Q

_______ as applied to FDs, means the workforce should reflect the community it serves. (51)

A

Diversity

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51
Q

_______ are employee behaviors that require an immediate corrective action by the supervisor. (53)

A

Actionable items

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52
Q

Complaints settled by a court decision represents _____ of all the harassment, hostile workplace, and discrimination complaints filed against FDs. (54)

A

less than 3%

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53
Q

FFs who want to initiate a harassment complaint have a choice of three methods of doing so, which are? (54)

A
  1. They can start with the federal govt
  2. They can start with the local govt
  3. They can start with the FD
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54
Q

What general guidelines should be followed for performing an initial investigation? (54) (10 items)

A
  1. Keep an open mind
  2. Treat the person who files the complaint with respect and compassion
  3. Do not blame the person filing the complaint
  4. Do not retaliate against the person filing the complaint
  5. Follow established procedures
  6. Interview the people involved
  7. Look for corroboration or contradiction
  8. Keep it confidential
  9. Write it all down
  10. Cooperate with government agencies
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55
Q

What are common reasons that local governments are found liable after a harassment or hostile workplace complaint? (54)

A
  1. Failure to investigate

2. Blaming the person bringing the complaint to you

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56
Q

What steps does the fire officer take to ensure that the fire station maintains a professional work environment? (55)

A
  1. Educate FFs on rules/regs that define behavior. Start with the local govt “code of conduct”
  2. Promote the use of “on-duty speech”
  3. Be the designated adult
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57
Q

___________ occurs whenever two people can exchange information and develop mutual understanding. (62)

A

Successful communication

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58
Q

What are the 5 parts that the communication cycle consists of? (62)

A
  1. Message
  2. Sender
  3. Medium
  4. Receiver
  5. Feedback
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59
Q

The ________ represents the text of the communication and in its purest form, it contains only the information to be conveyed. (62)

A

Message

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60
Q

The _______ is responsible for the receiver properly understanding the message. (63)

A

Sender

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61
Q

The _______ refers to the method used to convey the information from the sender to the receiver. (63)

A

Medium

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62
Q

____________ should contain all five components of the communication process; if one or more is missing, communication does not occur. (63)

A

Effective communication

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63
Q

___________, in a face-to-face situation, is an active process that requires good eye contact, alert body posture and frequent use of verbal engagement. (63)

A

Listening

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64
Q

What techniques could be used to help improve your listening skills? (65)

A
  1. Do not assume anything
  2. Do not interrupt
  3. Try to understand the need
  4. Look for the real reason the person wants your attention
  5. Do not react too quickly
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65
Q

What three areas does the fire officer need to keep the chief officer informed? (65)

A
  1. Progress towards performance goals and project objectives
  2. Matters that may cause controversy
  3. Attitudes and morale
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66
Q

What are the eight suggestions that are intended to improve communications dealing with administration and supervisory activities? (66)

A
  1. Do not struggle for power
  2. Avoid an offhand manner
  3. Keep emotions in check
  4. Remember that words have meaning
  5. Do not assume that the receiver understands the message
  6. Immediately seek feedback
  7. Provide an appropriate level of detail
  8. Watch out for conflicting orders
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67
Q

What are the 8 key points for emergency communications? (66)

A
  1. Be direct
  2. Speak clearly
  3. Normal tone of voice
  4. Radio mic 2” from mouth (IFD = 3”, 1” truck
    headphones, 10-12” for voiceamp)
  5. If using repeater, allow for a time delay after keying
    the microphone before speaking
  6. Use plain English rather than “10 codes”
  7. Use common terminology that is recognized by NIMS
  8. Try to avoid being in the proximity of other noise
    sources, such as running engines
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68
Q

Radio messages must be _____, _____, and ____. (67)

A

Accurate, Brief and Clear

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69
Q

___________ provide information that is related to FD personnel, programs, equipment, and facilities (log book). (68)

A

Routine reports

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70
Q

A ________ is required by state worker’s compensation agencies whenever an employee is injured. (70)

A

Supervisor’s report

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71
Q

_______ are formal documents that address a soecific subject, policy, condition, or situation (73)

A

General orders

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72
Q

_________ are used to distribute short-term and nonessential information that is of interest. (73)

A

Announcements

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73
Q

The goal of a _______ is to provide enough information and make an effective persuasive argument so that the intended individual or body accepts your recommendation. (75)

A

Decision document

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74
Q

A decision document usually includes the following elements: (75)

A
  1. Statements of problem or issue
  2. Background
  3. Restrictions
  4. Options
  5. Recommendation
  6. Next action
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75
Q

Using a written report as a guide, a verbal presentation would consist of 4 parts: (75)

A
  1. Getting their attention (audience’s attention)
  2. Interest statement
  3. Details (report details)
  4. Action (the audience should take)
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76
Q

What are the steps for preparing a news release? (76)

A
  1. Formulate a plan
  2. Develop the concept and write the release
  3. Get the news release out to the media
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77
Q

What should be used on a news release to separate the heading from the text and the text from the ending that should include a contact name and number for further information? (76)

A

5-7 # signs

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78
Q

What is the first step in developing an IAP? (86)

A

Understanding the causes of FF deaths and injuries

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79
Q

What is the primary consideration in the design of apparatus and equipment? (86)

A

Safety

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80
Q

What 4 simple habits can a fire officer develop to improve the safety of his/her crew? (87)

A
  1. Be physically fit
  2. Wear seat belts
  3. Practice safety through training and personal example
  4. Maintain fire company integrity at emergencies
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81
Q

_______ account for the largest percentage of traumatic FF deaths. (88) What is a simple requirement that could prevent 8-12 fatalities per year? (88)

A

Collisions (MVCs)

Wearing seatbelts

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82
Q

A single unit IAP includes the following basic elements: (89)

A
  1. Specifies the incident objectives
  2. States the activities to be completed
  3. Covers a specified time frame, known as an operational period
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83
Q

____ and ___ are prime factors that directly cause death while operating in burning buildings, followed by _____. (89)

A

Asphyxia and burns, followed by trauma

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84
Q

What percentage of the fatal fire suppression incidents tallied in the report involved the death of a single FF? (89)

A

82%

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85
Q

What elements are included in the “two-in, two-out” rule? (89)

A
  1. A designated officer in charge
  2. Two FFs remain in visual/voice contact at all times while wearing SCBA
  3. Two properly equipped and trained FFs who must (RIC TEAM): be positioned outside the IDLH environment, account for the interior team, and remain capable of rescue of the interior team
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86
Q

A PAR system is required by _______ (90)

A

NFPA 1500

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87
Q

What is one exception that can override the two-in, two-out rule? (91)

A

Chance that a victim will be rescued alive

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88
Q

The NFFF summarizes situational awareness by specifying the following items that support the interior firefighting plan: (93)

A
  1. Work as a team
  2. Stay together
  3. Stay oriented
  4. Manage your air supply
  5. Get off the apparatus with tools and thermal imager for every interior operating team
  6. Provide a radio for every member
  7. Provide regular updates
  8. Constantly assess the risk/benefit model
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89
Q

If a situation creates an imminent hazard to personnel and the ISO immediately suspends or alters the activities, when should the ISO inform the IC? (93)

A

Immediately

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90
Q

The ISO must be a FD officer and at a minimum meet the requirements for ______ per NFPA _____. (93)

A

Fire Officer I per NFPA 1021

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91
Q

What are the 3 “lines of defense” for ensuring that FFs obtain appropriate rehab? (94)

A
  1. The individual FF
  2. The Fire Officer
  3. The ISO
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92
Q

For every FF death in the line of duty, nearly ______ FF injuries occur. (95)

A

1,000 injuries occur per FF LODD death

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93
Q

NFFF summarizes incident scene rehab with the following items that support FF rehab guidelines: (95)

A
  1. Stop before you drop
  2. Stay hydrated (non-caffeinated drinks)
  3. Monitor vital signs
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94
Q

EMS responses account for more than _____ of responses in many FDs. (96)

A

70% ( EMS is minimum of 66% on page 17)

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95
Q

NFPA 1581, Standard on FD Infection Control Program identifies 6 components of an infection control program. What are they? (97)

A
  1. A written policy with the goal of identifying and limiting
    exposures
  2. A written risk management plan to identify risks and
    control measures
  3. Annual training and education in infection control
  4. A designated infection control officer
  5. Access to appropriate immunizations for employees
  6. Instructions for handling exposure incidents
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96
Q

What is typically used for decon of medical equipment? (97)

A

1% bleach and water solution

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97
Q

What is the most important first step with any exposure? (97)

A

Wash the exposed area immediately and thoroughly with soap and running water. (waterless soap, antiseptic/alcohol wipes, or other skin cleaning agents ok until soap and running water is made available)

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98
Q

The ___________ is charged with ensuring that all injuries, illnesses, exposures, fatalities, or other potentially hazardous conditions and all accidents involving FD vehicles, fire apparatus, equipment, or FD facilities are thoroughly investigated. (99)

A

Fire Department health and safety officer

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99
Q

What 3 phases does an investigation usually consist of? (99)

A
  1. Identification and collection of physical evidence
  2. Interviews with witnesses
  3. Written documentation (at the end of an investigation)
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100
Q

As a fire officer, you have a duty to perform an initial accident investigation that is ____ and _____. (99)

A

Fair and unbiased

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101
Q

The number of FFs dying on duty declined 30% over a 30 year period. The two primary drivers of the decline are:

A
  1. Reduction in the number of FFs dying of sudden
    cardiac death
  2. Decreasing the number of structure fires
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102
Q

What are the 3 leading causes of FF deaths? (102)

A
  1. Heart attacks
  2. Traumatic injuries
  3. Asphyxiation and burns
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103
Q

What are the four levels of the U.S. Navy’s Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS)? (103)

A

Level 1 : Unsafe Acts
Level 2 : Preconditions of Unsafe Acts
Level 3 : Unsafe Supervision
Level $ : Organizational Influences

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104
Q

What two categories are included HFACS Level 1 : Unsafe Acts and are they intentional or unintentional? (103)

A

Errors and violations
Errors are unintentional based on decisions, skills or perceptions
Violations are intentional classified as routine or exceptional

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105
Q

What does HFACS Level 2 : Preconditions to Unsafe Acts analyze? (103)

A

Substandard conditions and practices of the individuals involved in the incident

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106
Q

What four categories is HFACS Level 3 : Unsafe Supervision broken down into? (103)

A
  1. Inadequate supervision
  2. Allowing inappropriate operations
  3. Failure to correct known problems
  4. Supervisory violations
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107
Q

What is the most difficult HFACS level to analyze in a near miss report? (103)

A

Level 4 : Organizational Influences

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108
Q

What does HFACS Level 4 : Organizational Influences examine during a near-miss report? (103)

A
  1. Resource management

2. Organizational climate

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109
Q

When safety rules are not followed, address the issue with ______, ______, and _______ discipline. (104)

A

Prompt, fair and impartial discipline

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110
Q

What 4 roles must the fire officer fulfill to provide a safe environment for the fire company and ensure that everyone goes home? (105)

A
  1. IDENTIFY unsafe and hazardous conditions
  2. MITIGATE or reduce as many problems as possible
  3. TRAIN and prepare for the remaining hazards
  4. MODEL safe behavior
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111
Q

What are the 4 principles of scientific management (Frederick Winslow Taylor)? (113)

A
  1. Replace “rule of thumb” work methods with methods based on a scientific study of the tasks
  2. Scientifically select, train and develop each worker
  3. Cooperate with the workers to ensure that scientifically methods are being followed
  4. Divide work nearly equally between managers and workers so that managers apply scientific management principles to planning the work and the workers actually perform the tasks.
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112
Q

How much faster did 4 person crews finish tasks than 2 person crews? vs 3 person crews? (114)

A

4 vs 2 = 7 minutes faster (nearly 30% faster)

4 vs 3 = 5.1 minutes faster (nearly 25% faster)

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113
Q

What type of manager believes that people do not like to work, so consequently that need to be closely watched and controlled? (115)

A

Theory X manager

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114
Q

What does a Theory Y managers believe about peoples work ethic? (115)

A

People like to work and that they need to be encourage, rather than controlled

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115
Q

In what 3 situations does the fire officer must temporarily behave as a Theory X manager? (115)

A
  1. When operating at a fire or other high-risk activity
  2. When fire officer must take control of a workplace conflict
  3. When a fire officer is near the end of a series of negative disciplinary measures
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116
Q

Abraham Moslow is most often associated with the concepts of a ________, _______, and ________. (115)

A

Hierarchy of needs, self actualization, peak performances

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117
Q

What are the 5 levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? (115)

A
  1. Physiological Needs (FF needs rehab?)
  2. Safety, Security and Order (employment)
  3. Social needs and affection (group acceptance)
  4. Esteem and status (promotions)
  5. Self-actualization (peak experience)
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118
Q

What are five suggestions that a new fire officer can use to build trust? (117)

A
  1. Know the fire officer job, both administrative and tactical
  2. Be consistent
  3. Walk you talk
  4. Support your FFs
  5. Make FFs feel strong
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119
Q

Blake and Mouton’s Managerial Grid describes 5 behavior models based on a person’s position in this grid. What are the 5 behavior models? (117)

A
  1. Indifferent:Evade and Elude
  2. Controlling: Direct and Dominate
  3. Accommodating: Yield and Comply
  4. Status Quo: Balance and Compromise
  5. Sound: Contribute and Commit
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120
Q

What behavior model in Blake and Mouton’s Managerial grid has the lowest level of concern for both results and people? (117)

A

Indifferent: Evade and Elude

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121
Q

What behavior model in Blake and Mouton’s Managerial grid has a high concern for results, but a low concern for others? (117)

A

Controlling: Direct and Dominate

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122
Q

What behavior model in Blake and Mouton’s Managerial grid has a low concern for results and a high concern for other people? (117)

A

Accommodating : Yield and Comply

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123
Q

The _______ and ________ styles are diametrically opposed in their perspectives. (117)

A

Controlling and Accommodating

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124
Q

What style represents a narrow view that underestimates people, results, and the power of change? (117)

A

Status Quo : Balance and Compromise

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125
Q

What behavioral model is preferred for a candidate who seeks to become a successful fire officer? (117)

A

Sound : Contribute and Commit

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126
Q

____________ is the process of having the right number of people in the right place at the right time who can accomplish a task efficiently and effectively. (118)

A

Human Resources Planning

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127
Q

________ is the process of attracting, selecting, and maintaining an adequate supply of labor. What level is this usually accomplished at? (118)

A

Staffing

usually accomplished at the organizational level

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128
Q

What is human resources development? (120)

A

all activities to train and educate the employees

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129
Q

What formal document outlines the basic reason for the organization’s existence and states how it sees itself? (120)

A

Mission Statement

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130
Q

What are the 7 steps in effective delegation? (120)

A
  1. Define your desired results
  2. Select the appropriate FF
  3. Determine the level of delegation
  4. Clarify expectations and set parameters
  5. Give authority to match the level of responsibility
  6. Provide feedback information
  7. Arrange feedback during the process
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131
Q

Determining the level of delegation (step 3) relates to the amount of decision-making authority provided to the FF. The company officer has 5 options at his/her disposal which include: (120)

A
  1. Take action immediately-no need to report back
  2. Take action and report back when done (ex: task assignment in ICS)
  3. Recommend action that company officer must approve
  4. Provide 2 or more recommended actions from which the company officer will choose
  5. Provide information about the pros and cons of different recommendations
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132
Q

One of the best tools to improve efficiency is _____. (121)

A

Delegation

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133
Q

Evaluation of a FF’s ________ is a primary function of the fire company officer. (121)

A

FF’s performance

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134
Q

What are the four borders of Managing Human Resources? (122)

A

Federal laws, Union contract, City regulations, and Departmental policies

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135
Q

An effective leader uses ______ and _____ to overcome resistance. (128)

A

Persuasiveness and Motivation

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136
Q

What is 5-step approach to making a decision? (129)

A
  1. Clear your mind
  2. List options
  3. Weigh the outcomes
  4. Make a choice
  5. Evaluate decision
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137
Q

The three major leadership styles are traditionally identified as ______, ______, and _______. (129)

A

Autocratic, Democratic , Laissez-Faire

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138
Q

The Autocratic style is an ________ approach that is required in what 2 situations? (129)

A

Iron Hand Approach

  1. When involved in high risk emergency scene
  2. When a F.O. needs to take immediate corrective supervisory activity
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139
Q

The Democratic style is a _______ approach and when should this style be used by an officer? (129)

A

Consultative Approach

Should be used when planning a project or developing the daily work plan of the company

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140
Q

The Laissez-Faire style is a _______ style of leadership. When is it effective? (129)

A

Free-Rein style

Effective when working with experienced FFs and when handling routine duties that pose little personal hazard.

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141
Q

What are the types of power described by French and Raven in their 1959 book “Studies of Social Power”? (130)

A
  1. Legitimate power (right to request/obligation)
  2. Reward power (complies to obtain rewards)
  3. Expert power (belief of special knowledge)
  4. Referent power (admiration of/identification with)
  5. Coercive power (complies to avoid punishment)
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142
Q

Gary Yukl updated the French and Raven taxonomy to define 2 types of power: _____ and _____. (130)

A
  1. Personal power (expert, referent)

2. Positional power (legitimate, coercive, reward)

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143
Q

Examples of positional power are legitimate power, reward power and coercive power. What two additional position-based power descriptions did Yukl give? (130)

A
  1. Information power (control over information)

2. Ecological power (control over environment/technology)

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144
Q

What style of leadership is best used to size up a complicated situation and develop and IAP? What style does the officer assume once the operation is active? (130)

A

Democratic style of leadership for IAP

Autocratic role once operation active

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145
Q

Who is the fire officer’s primary responsibility to? (132)

A

The team of FFs under his direct supervision

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146
Q

What are the two choices the fire officer has in assigning tasks? (132)

A
  1. Preassigning them

2. Assigning them as needed on the scene

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147
Q

What are two examples that require immediate autocratic action? (132)

A

Orders to evacuate a building and a FF Mayday

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148
Q

A mayday requires a complex response from the company operations within a hot zone or burning structure. What are 2 obligations by the fire officer inside the structure? (133)

A
  1. Maintain radio discipline

2. Maintain company or group integrity

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149
Q

An officer who gives the impression of confusion, indecision, or uncertainty fails the first test of ______. (133)

A

Leadership

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150
Q

Close compliance with the ______ SOPs is an important component of effective fire ground command. (134)

A

Communications

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151
Q

What are two general rules for nonemergency activities? (134)

A
  1. Do not compromise the ability of the fire company to respond to emergencies in district
  2. Do not jeopardize the public’s trust in the FD
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152
Q

What is often the strongest force that influences members’ performance and commitment to the organization? (135)

A

Effective Leadership

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153
Q

What are the 4 phases of volunteer participation? (135)

A
  1. Large loss of applicants during initial FF training
  2. Small loss during the probationary period
  3. Moderate to high loss of FFs between 3rd and 6th years of membership
  4. Recommitment between the 15th and 18th years of membership (core of the volunteer FD)
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154
Q

The fire officer must be able to apply methods to inspire subordinates to achieve their maximum potential. What 5 overriding principles apply? (135)

A
  1. Recognize individual differences
  2. Use goals
  3. Ensure goals are perceived as attainable
  4. Individualize rewards
  5. Check for system equality
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155
Q

What is the best known motivational theory? (135)

A

Reinforcement theory

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156
Q

When must reinforcement happen following an action to increase the probability that the desired behavior will recur? What types of reinforcers exist? (135)

A

Happen Immediately
1. Positive reinforcement (reward for good behavior)
2. Negative reinforcement (remove undesirable
consequence)
3. Extinction (ignoring bad behavior)
4. Punishment (punishing bad behavior)

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157
Q

Positive and negative reinforcement ______ the likelihood of good behavior, extinction and punishment _________ the likelihood of bad behavior (136)

A

Increase good behavior (+, -)

Decrease bad behavior (extinction, punishment)

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158
Q

The Motivation-hygiene theory breaks the motivational process into what two parts? (136)

A
  1. Hygiene Factors : external (pay)

2. Motivation Factors : internal (recognition, achievement, responsibility and advancement)

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159
Q

What does the goal setting theory rely on for motivation? What is the key to the motivation? (136)

A

Relies on natural competitiveness of people

Key to motivation is for the officer to set specific goals that will increase performance.

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160
Q

_________ suggests that employees evaluate the outcomes they receive for their inputs and compare them with the outcomes others receive for their inputs. (136)

A

Equity Theory

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161
Q

________ is based on the premise that people act in a manner that they believe will lead to an outcome they value. (136)

A

Expectancy Theory

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162
Q

What are the 3 considerations that the fire officer must address to motivate an individual based on the Expectancy theory? (136)

A
  1. Employee’s belief that his effort will achieve the goal
  2. Employee’s belief that meeting goal = reward
  3. Employee’s desire for the reward or reward’s value to employee
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163
Q

_______ is a method of directing, instructing, and training a person or group of people with the aim of achieving some goals or developing specific skills. (142)

A

Coaching

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164
Q

What is the 4 step method of skill training? What was it renamed during WWII?(143)

A
  1. Prepare
  2. Present
  3. Apply
  4. Evaluate
    Renamed Job Instruction Training
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165
Q

What is the foundation of the work performed at the Fire Instructor I level? (143)

A

The four step method of skill training (Prepare, Present, Apply, Evaluate)

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166
Q

What are three indicators that training is needed? (143)

A
  1. Near miss
  2. Fire ground problem
  3. Observed performance deficiency
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167
Q

What are the 4 levels of the Conscious Competence Learning Matrix? (146)

A

Level 1 : Unconscious Competence (don’t know/don’t do)
Level 2 : Conscious Incompetence (know/can’t do well)
Level 3 : Conscious Competence (know/still think about when doing it)
Level 4 : Unconscious Competence (know/do without thinking)

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168
Q

What qualities make for an effective mentor? (146)

A
  1. A desire to help
  2. Current knowledge
  3. Effective coaching, facilitating, and networking skills
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169
Q

Active learning research recommends spending no more than ____ minutes present a formal lecture or video presentation; the student loses focus after ____ to ___ minutes of passive learning. (147)

A

no more than 10 minutes

15 to 20 minutes of passive learning

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170
Q

What four levels can psychomotor skill levels be classified? (147)

A
  1. Initial (know main streets and street grids/numbering)
  2. Plateau (drive to more than 85% of streets)(competent)
  3. Latency (remember area w/no response for months)
  4. Mastery (anywhere in district/2-3 alternate routes to each)
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171
Q

What four topics are mandated by federal regulations to be covered as part of an emergency service training program? (147)

A
  1. Bloodborne Pathogens (4hrs)
  2. HAZMAT awareness and operations
  3. SCBA fit testing
  4. NIMS
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172
Q

Emergency scene awareness training should include the expected behavior in what 3 areas? (148)

A
  1. Responding to alarms
  2. On-scene activity
  3. Emergency procedures
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173
Q

Per NFPA 1403, during live fire training exercises, each attack and backup line should be capable of flowing a minimum of _____. The water supply resources should be capable of delivering ______ of the minimum needed water supply at the training site from 2 separate sources. (150)

A

attack/backup = 95 gallons per minute

water supply = 150% water needed from 2 sources

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174
Q

Per NFPA 1403, during live fire training exercises, what is the maximum size of a functional crew? (150)

A

max functional crew = 5 trainees

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175
Q

In NFPA 1403, what activities are absolutely prohibited during live fire training? (151)

A
  1. No “live” victims used
  2. Flammable/combustible liquids cannot be used as fuel
  3. Conduct ONLY ONE evolution in acquired structure
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176
Q

What are the 5 steps for developing a training plan? (151)

A
  1. Assess needs
  2. Establish objectives
  3. Develop the training program
  4. Deliver the training
  5. Evaluate the impact
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177
Q

What four criteria does a good lesson plan satisfy? (152)

A
  1. Organizes the lesson
  2. Identifies key points
  3. Can be reused
  4. Allows others to teach the program
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178
Q

What 3 types of academic accreditation are available? (153)

A
  1. Programs meet specific profession/vocation
  2. Educational/training programs meed federal requirements for tuition reimbursement
  3. Education institutions that meet voluntary accrediting requirements to issue degrees and academic transcripts to other educational institutions
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179
Q

The supervising candidate needs ______ years of experience in agency operations and _____ hours of experience as an acting unit officer handling emergency responses and nonemergency activities. (155)

A

3-5 years of experience

200 hours as acting unit officer

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180
Q

The managing fire officer candidate needs _____ years of experience as a qualified supervising fire officer. (156)

A

2-4 years of experience

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181
Q

_______ is a moral, mental, and physical state in which all ranks respond to the will of the leader. (166)

A

Discipline

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182
Q

________ discipline is based on encouraging and reinforcing appropriate behavior and desirable performance. (166)

A

Positive discipline

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183
Q

_______ discipline is based on punishing inappropriate behavior or unacceptable performance. (166)

A

Negative discipline

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184
Q

________ is one of the most effective strategies within the realm of positive discipline. (168)

A

Empowerment

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185
Q

Skills have been shown to deteriorate if not used within ____ days of training. (169)

A

90 days

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186
Q

What is the first level of negative discipline, considered “informal” by many organizations? (169)

A

Oral reprimand, warning, or admonishment

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187
Q

What level of officer issues formal evaluations and discipline per NFPA 1021? (171)

A

Fire Officer II

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188
Q

What four steps are need for annual evaluations? (171)

A
  1. Supervisor fills out standardized evaluation form
  2. Subordinate is allowed to review and comment
  3. Face-to-face feedback interview to discuss evaluation
  4. At end of feedback, establish goals for next period
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189
Q

What type of log is used by the fire officer to maintain a list of the FF’s activities by date, along with a brief description of performance observations? (171)

A

Performance Log

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190
Q

A T-account is a more sophisticated documentation system with ______ on the left side and ____ on the right side. (171)

A

Assets on left; Liabilities on right

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191
Q

Leniency/Severity is where officers tend to rate all their FFs either higher or lower than their actual work performance. Which one reduces conflict? (173)

A

Leniency

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192
Q

An evaluation error that occurs when the evaluator’s perspective skews the evaluation such that the classified job knowledge, skills and abilities are not appropriately evaluated. (183)

A

Personal Bias

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193
Q

An evaluation error in which the FF is evaluated only on incidents that occurred in the last few weeks, rather than on all of the events that occurred throughout the evaluation period. (173)

A

Recency

194
Q

When a officer rates a FF in the middle of the range for all dimensions of work performance. (173)

A

Central Tendency

195
Q

An evaluation error where the FF is evaluated on the basis of the fire officer’s personal ideas instead of the classified job standards. (173)

A

Frame of Reference

196
Q

The fire officer may concentrate on only one aspect of the FF’s performance, good or bad, and apply that perception across the board. (174)

A

Halo and Horn Effect

197
Q

An evaluation error that can occur when the fire officer compares the performance of one subordinate with the performance of another subordinate instead of against the classified job standards. (174)

A

Contrast Effect

198
Q

Is negative discipline or positive discipline a stronger force? (174)

A

Negative discipline

199
Q

A fire officer is often required to with his supervisor before issuing formal negative discipline such as : ______, _____, ______, or _______. (174)

A

Informal oral or Written reprimand
Formal written reprimand
Suspension
Termination

200
Q

A ________ represents an official negative supervisory action at the lowest level of the progressive discipline process. (174)

A

Formal Written Reprimand

201
Q

What starts the formal paper trail of a progressive disciplinary process? ______ are the next step, but have many different forms.(175)

A

Written Reprimand

Suspensions are the next step

202
Q

Suspensions usually run from ___ to ____ days. (175)

A

1 to 30 days

203
Q

In general, who is the only person that can terminate an employee? (176)

A

The Top municipal official, such as the mayor, county executive, city manager or civil service commission

204
Q

A predisciplinary hearing can be conducted by a ______, by the ______ or another ranking officer, or by a ______ officer. (177)

A

Disciplinary board, fire chief, hearing officer

205
Q

What 3 primary components define the range, scope, and tasks of a fire officer’s supervisory activities? (184)

A
  1. The local labor contract
  2. The municipality’s personnel regulations
  3. The FD’s rules, regs and policies
206
Q

What type of written agreement is used often in jurisdictions where government employees do not have formal collective bargaining rights? (184)

A

An MOU (memorandum of understanding)

207
Q

Shop steward is a union member who is appointed or elected to be the first line of what? (184)

A

First line of labor representation at the workplace

208
Q

What were the 3 principal objectives of the IAFF at the time of establishment? (185)

A
  1. Obtain pay raises
  2. Establish the two-platoon or 12-hr workday schedule
  3. Ensure that appointments and promotions were based on individual merit, not political affiliation
209
Q

__________ has improved the quality of protective clothing, the safety of firefighting equipment, the content of training programs, and advanced techniques of emergency incident operations. (185)

A

Labor advocacy

210
Q

What are 4 key recommendations to form the foundation of any strong supervisor/employee relationship? (185)

A
  1. Schedule regular 1-on-1 meetings w/each member
  2. Schedule regular meetings with the whole company
  3. If disagreement arises, work together to develop solutions
  4. If personal and professional relationship “rocky” from the beginning, set areas to succeed together. (set goals and deadlines)
211
Q

The formal line between labor and management is often established at a higher level, such as ________ fire officer. (186)

A

Administrative

212
Q

As a supervisor, a fire officer is generally the first point of contact between the ______ and the _______. (186)

A

workers and the FD organization

213
Q

At what step of the grievance process does the union rep usually become formally involved? (189)

A

Either the first or second step

214
Q

How many calendar days does a supervisor have to reach a decision and provide a written reply to the grievant? What is meant if supervisor fails to respond within the alotted time? (189)

A

10 CALENDAR days;
failure to respond = supervisor DENIED the grievance

(each step = 10 days; 1 = verbal, 2 = written to supervisor, 3 = second level officer, 4 = chief, mediator after 4 if still unresolved)

215
Q

What 4 major pieces of federal legislation established the groundwork for the rules and regulations of the present collective bargaining agreement? (190)

A
  1. Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932
  2. Wagner-Connery Act of 1935
  3. Taft-Hartley Labor Act of 1947
  4. Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959
216
Q

What act specified that an employee could not be forced into a contract by an employer as part of obtaining and keeping a job? This act also said that “yellow dog contracts” were not enforceable in any court in the U.S.(191)

A

Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932

217
Q

________ was passed to mitigate the revolutionary labor climate and avert further economic disruption. (191)

A

Wagner-Connery Act of 1935

218
Q

The Wagner-Connery Act of 1935 defined 5 types of unfair labor practices and declared them illegal. What are they? (191)

A
  1. Interfering with employees in a union
  2. Stopping a union from forming and collecting money
  3. Not hiring union members
  4. Firing union members
  5. Refusing to bargain with the union
219
Q

________ was designed to reduce the power of unions. (191)

A

Taft-Hartley Labor Act of 1947

220
Q

______ established a bill of rights for members of labor organizations. (191)

A

Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959

221
Q

Strikes by employees are illegal in all but ____ states; ____ of local governments have forbidden employee strikes. (192)

A

illegal in all but 10 states; 40% of local governments

222
Q

The first paid FD in the U.S. was established where and in what year? (192)

A

Established in 1853 in Cincinnati, Ohio

223
Q

Who is affected by strikes in the private sector? public sector? (193)

A

Private sector = consumer

Public sector = safety and welfare of general public

224
Q

What act had the primary purpose to establish minimum standards for wages and to spell out administrative procedures covering work time and compensation, including OT entitlement. (194)

A

FLSA (Fair Labor Standards Act)

225
Q

______: process includes a means of analysis, decision, education, implementation, revision and review. (196)

A

Relations by objectives (RBO)

226
Q

What is the greatest challenge to the fire service? (196)

A

Response to terrorism

227
Q

Next to ______, the FD is the most decentralized and community-based function of local government. (204)

A

Next to Schools

228
Q

What is the fundamental goal of a public safety program? (209)

A

Prevent injury, death or loss due to fire or other types of injuries

229
Q

What 4 objectives can a public safety program have? (209)

A
  1. Educate target audience to change a behavior
  2. Instruct how to perform certain tasks; stop/drop/roll
  3. Inform large groups about fire safety issues
  4. Distribute info on timely subjects to target audiences
230
Q

An educational presentation is successful when? (209)

A

Successful when it CAUSES an OBSERVABLE CHANGE OF BEHAVIOR

231
Q

The history of fire prevention week has its roots in the _______. Its observed the Sunday-thru-Saturday period in which _______ falls. (209)

A

Roots in the great Chicago fire; period in which October 8 falls

232
Q

CERT training courses = 9-2.5 hr sessions taking place one evening per week. The training covers what 9 topics? (211)

A
  1. Disaster Preparedness
  2. Fire safety and utility control
  3. Disaster medical operations, part 1
  4. Disaster medical operations, part 2
  5. Light search-and-rescue operations
  6. CERT organization
  7. Disaster psychology
  8. Terrorism and CERT
  9. Course review and disaster simulation
233
Q

What 5 step planning process can help local FDs create and develop public education programs? (212)

A
  1. Identify the problem
  2. Select the method
  3. Design the problem
  4. Implement the program
  5. Evaluate the program
234
Q

What are the ABCDs of course preparation? (212)

A 
A = Identify the AUDIENCE
B = Explain the desired BEHAVIOR the student should demonstrate after the training
C = Under which CONDITIONS will the student perform the task?
D = Which DEGREE of proficiency is expected?
235
Q

At what point does implementation (of a public safety program) begin? (212)

A

Occurs when the program is delivered to the audience

236
Q

What two types of evaluation can be undertaken regarding a public safety program? (212)

A
  1. Immediate feedback (from students)

2. Long-term feedback (effectiveness of program to desired effect)

237
Q

What 3 steps are recommended by NFPA when working with the media? (214)

A
  1. Build a strong foundation (business arrangement)
  2. Use a proactive outreach
  3. Use measured responsiveness
238
Q

A press release should be date and typed on department stationary, with the PIO contact information at the _____. It should be brief, ideally only ____ in length. (215)

A

PIO contact information at the top (pg 76 ending includes name and contact number)

1-2 pages in length

239
Q

What are the guidelines for a fire officer conducting an interview with the media? (215)

A
  1. Be prepared
  2. Stay in control
  3. Look and act the part
  4. It is not over until it is over
240
Q

What are the 10 tips on using social media provided by NFPA leadership? (217)

A
  1. Plan a strategy
  2. Commit
  3. Be authentic
  4. Be current
  5. Be social
  6. Maintain quality
  7. Tailor content to each venue
  8. Be interesting and entertaining
  9. Consider timing
  10. Track results
241
Q

The types of problems that a fire officer could be expected to encounter can be classified into 4 broad categories: ____, ____, ____, and ____ (225)

A
  1. In-house issues
  2. Internal Departmental issues
  3. External issues
  4. High-profile incidents
242
Q

What 5 steps are included in the systematic approach that is recommended to ensure high-quality decision making? (225)

A
  1. Define the problem
  2. Generate alternative solutions
  3. Select a solution
  4. Implement the solution
  5. Evaluate the results
243
Q

What 8 steps assist the fire officer when brainstorming alternative solutions? (225)

A
  1. Using flip chart/whiteboard, write out the problem
  2. Give group time limit (15-25 minutes; groups 4-16)
  3. F.O. function as the scribe
  4. Tell everyone to contribute alternative solutions
  5. Brainstorming time up, group select best 5 ideas
  6. list 5 criteria for judging best solution to solve problem
  7. Everyone rate top 5 as 0-5 (5 = meets all criteria)
  8. Add up scores. Highest score = best solution
244
Q

A fire officer may face 4 different types of internal conflict situations. A FF might come to an officer with a complaint about: ____, ____, ____, or ____. (230)

A
  1. A co-worker
  2. The work environment
  3. FD policy or procedure
  4. The fire officer’s own behavior, decisions or actions
245
Q

The official response to a problem begins when? (230)

A

When a officer becomes aware that a problem exists

246
Q

What are the 4 components of the Conflict Resolution Model? (230)

A
  1. Listen and take notes
  2. Active listening
  3. Paraphrase and Receive Feedback
  4. Do not Explain or Excuse
247
Q

Paraphrasing the issue and receiving feedback from the complaint accomplishes what two goals? (230)

A
  1. The F.O. finished the phases with a good understanding of the issue from the complainant’s perspective
  2. The complainant feels that the officer really listened
248
Q

What 3 objectives does a complete investigative report have? (232)

A
  1. The report must first identify and clearly explain the issue
  2. The report should then provide a complete, impartial, and factual presentation of the background info and relevant facts
  3. The conclusion should be a recommended action plan, which is based on and supported by the information
249
Q

Once the investigation is completed, the F.O. presents the findings and recommended action to a supervisor at a higher level. There are 4 possible responses: (232)

A
  1. Take no further action
  2. Recommend the action requested by the complainant
  3. Suggest an alternative solution
  4. Refer the issue to the office or person who can provide a remedy
250
Q

Michael Taigman’s conflict resolution model consists of what 4 steps? (233)

A
  1. Drain the emotional bubble
  2. Understand the complainant’s viewpoint
  3. Help the complainant feel understood
  4. Identify the complainant’s expectation for resolution
251
Q

Who is in the best position to recommend new departmental policies? (234)

A

The fire officer since he is in direct contact with FFs and citizens

252
Q

When should new policies be discussed? (235)

A

At the beginning of each work shift

253
Q

What three types of citizen complaints could a fire officer be faced with? (235)

A
  1. The conduct or behavior of a FF (or group of FFs)
  2. The fire company’s performance or service delivery
  3. FD policy
254
Q

From what two different perspectives can a F.O. look at buildings? (242)

A
  1. The FD prepares to handle an emergency in the building by developing a pre-incident plan
  2. Members of the FD perform a fire and life safety inspection to ensure that the building meets the appropriate fire prevention code requirements
255
Q

Fire officers play multiple roles in relation to properties within their communities, including handling these critical tasks: (242)

A
  1. Identifying and correcting fire safety hazards through safety checks and code enforcement
  2. Developing and maintain pre-incident plans
  3. Promoting fire safety through public education
256
Q

What 6 steps should be used when preparing a pre-incident plan? (244)

A
  1. Identify physical elements and site considerations
  2. Identify occupant considerations
  3. Identify fire protection systems and water supply
  4. Identify special hazards
  5. Identify emergency operation considerations
  6. Identify special or unusual characteristics of common occupancy
257
Q

What is the difference between plot plans and floor plans? (244)

A

Plot plans = exterior (access, doors, utilities)

Floor plans = interior views of the building

258
Q

________ refers to the total quantity of all combustible products found within a room or space. This also affects the number of required fire companies need for incident stabilization. (244)

A

Fuel load (fuel loading)

259
Q

Fire develops in what four phases? (244)

A
  1. Incipient
  2. Free burning
  3. Flashover
  4. Smoldering/decay
260
Q

At what point should the facility provide the FD with an on-site liaison? (244)

A

As soon as command is established

261
Q

_______ mean that local jurisdiction do not have the option of adopting more restrictive regulations (248)

A

Mini/max codes

262
Q

In what two ways can a model code (developed by organization like NFPA) be adopted by a local jurisdiction? (248)

A
  1. Adoption by reference - specific edition

2. Adoption by transcription - entire text of model code

263
Q

What are the first 2 main reasons that a fire company should perform inspections? (249)

A
  1. Clarifying means of access and egress

2. Status of built-in fire protection systems (Inspection is best method of ensuring work as intended)

264
Q

What type of automatic sprinkler system is designed to reduce the risk of water damage due to accidental sprinkler discharge or a broken pipe? (250)

A

Preaction System

265
Q

What are the 3 classes of standpipes based on their expected use? (250)

A

Class I = 2.5” outlets (use by FD)
Class II = 1.5” coupling with hose in cabinet (Occupant)
Class III = 1.5” and 2.5” connections (1.5” by occupant until FD arrives)

266
Q

Who should confirm that the fire pump has passed the annual performance test? (250)

A

Fire Officer

267
Q

What are the four types of special extinguishing systems that may be used in various structures? (250)

A
  1. Carbon dioxide (displace O2, heavier than air)
  2. Dry or wet chemical (wet for cooking equipment)
  3. Halon/clean agent (250% more efficient than CO2)
  4. Foam (low expansion = flammable/combust liquids)
268
Q

What 2 ways could a dry or wet chemical system be activated? (250)

A

Fusible link that melts on flame contact or pull station

269
Q

Noncombustible Type IIA resist fire for? Type IIB? (252)

A 
IIA = 1 hour
IIB = not expected to resist the effects of fire
270
Q

What construction type building at the most common structures? (252)

A

Type V : Wood frame

271
Q

An educational occupancy is used for educational purposes through the _______. (255)

A

12th Grade

272
Q

A healthcare occupancy for care of how many people? Detention and correctional occupancy for how many people? (255)

A

both are 4 or more persons

273
Q

A residential occupancy has 5 subcategories that include: (255)

A
  1. 1-2 family dwelling (no more than 2 units with cooking/bathrooms)
  2. Lodging or rooming houses (16 or fewer people on transient or permanent basis)
  3. Hotels (more than 16 persons and mostly transient)
  4. Dormitories (group sleeping accomidations more than 16 persons not members of same family)
  5. Apartment buildings (3 or more units with cooking/bathrooms)
274
Q

In what systematic fashion should an inspection occur? (259)

A
  1. Circle the area as you park to get general overview
  2. Meet property owner/manager to let them know you arrived and will begin the inspection
  3. Begin inspection on exterior and work through interior, lowest level to the top
  4. Conduct exit interview with the contact person
  5. Write a formal report of the inspection
275
Q

What includes measures taken to limit or control the consequences, extent, or severity of an incident that cannot be reasonably prevented? (264)

A

Mitigation

276
Q

The emergency/disaster management and business continuity plan is published in what 6 parts? (265)

A
  1. Strategic plan
  2. Emergency operations/response plan
  3. Prevention plan
  4. Mitigation plan
  5. Recovery plan
  6. Continuity plan
277
Q

What part of the emergency/disaster management and business continuity plan established interim and long-term actions to reduce the impact of hazards that cannot be eliminated? (265)

A

Mitigation plan

278
Q

The __________ provides the short- and long-term priorities for restoration of functions, services, resources, facilities and programs (265)

A

Recovery plan

279
Q

What 6 steps does the budget cycle consist of? (272)

A
  1. ID of needs and required resources
  2. Prep of budget request
  3. Local govt and public review of requested budget
  4. Adoption of approved budget
  5. Administration of approved budget
  6. Close-out of budget year
280
Q

_______ are both advocates and gatekeepers in developing the local budget. (273)

A

Elected officials

281
Q

What type of tax can be used only to build or maintain roads? (274)

A

Fuel tax

282
Q

What are the top 3 local tax revenue sources representing about half of the total revenues collected by local governments? (274)

A
  1. General sales and gross receipt taxes
  2. Property taxes
  3. Individual income taxes
283
Q

Budget reductions drastically affect FD operations. What 5 difficult choices need to be made (in increasing order in difficulty)? (275)

A
  1. Defer scheduled expenditures (apparatus replacement)
  2. Regionalize or consolidate services
  3. Privatize/contract out elements of the service provided
  4. Reduce the workforce
  5. Reduce the size of the department
284
Q

The petty cash _______ should always have the authorized amount on hand in the form of either cash or receipts. (277)

A

Petty cash CUSTODIAN

285
Q

Whats are purchase orders and requisitions? Which has more stringent requirements? How do they differ from each other? (279)

A

P.O. = method ensuring budget account has funds
Requisition = occurs for large purchases (more stringent)
Differ in that the exact amount of the purchase is not known in a requisition, but is in a P.O.

286
Q

How do RFPs and bid processes differ? (279)

A

RFPs = exact specs wanted and select best meeting the needs specified
Bid Process = specs stated, awarded to lowest bidder

287
Q

Proposals (RFPs) are typically assessed based on ______ as well as _____. (279)

A

performance as well as price

288
Q

What 4 step method did the U.S. Fire Administration provide to develop a competitive grant proposal? (280)

A
  1. Conduct a community and FD needs assessment
  2. Compare community needs to the priorities of the grant program
  3. Decide what to apply for
  4. Complete the application
289
Q

When seeking grant funding, what is the first step? (280)

A

determine whether a grant program exists that covers your problem area

290
Q

What must a grant application describe? What must it demonstrate?(280)

A
  • how the dept’s needs fit the priorities of the grant program
  • the Dept’s financial need and explain why it needs outside assistance
291
Q

FD expenditures are generally divided into what 3 general areas? (281)

A
  1. Personnel costs (FF salaries)
  2. Operating costs (fuel for vehicles)
  3. Capital Expenditures (construction of new stations)
292
Q

More than ______ of a career FD’s budget is likely to be allocated to salaries and benefits. (281)

A

more than 90%

293
Q

When a budget needs to be trimmed, what expenditures are usually the first area to be considered as a target for cost-cutting efforts? (281)

A

Operating expenditures

294
Q

In most cases, the replacement of a pumper, aerial, or specialized suppression rig will be a _______. (281)

A

Capital item

295
Q

_________ comprise purchases of durable items that cost more than a predetermined amount and will last for more than one budget year. (282)

A

Capital expenditures

296
Q

When discussing or responding to a budget proposal, remember to focus on the annual expenses in addition to the initial purchase cost. The annual cost falls into what 2 areas? (282)

A
  1. Continuity (spare device/initial training)

2. Personnel (largest expense for career FDs)

297
Q

What is a certificate of debt issued by the government or corporation? It guarantees payment of original investment plus interest by a specified future date. How long should the repayment period be? (282)

A

Bonds

repayment period at least equal to anticipated life span of the facility

298
Q

In what 3 ways is “vehicle service life” determined? (284)

A
  1. years of service
  2. miles accumulated
  3. specific vehicle cost
299
Q

What are the 5 components of NIMS? (294)

A
  1. Preparedness
  2. Communications and Information management
  3. Resource management
  4. Command and management
  5. Ongoing management and maintenance
300
Q

What should always be the purpose of a postincident review process? (294)

A

To serve as an educational or training tool (not place blame)

301
Q

What is the best way to evaluate the effectiveness of procedures? (296)

A

determine whether following them actually produced the anticipated results

302
Q

What is the last step in conducting an incident review? (296)

A

write a summary of the incident for departmental records

303
Q

What position in the ICS is the ONLY position that is always filled? (296)

A

Incident commander

304
Q

What a first arriving fire officer does in the first _______ of the incident dictates how the scene will run for the next hour. (296)

A

5 minutes

305
Q

What is the recommended span of control for one supervisor during emergency operations? (297)

A

3-5 individuals to 1 supervisor

306
Q

What are the 3 levels of command included in the ICS? (297)

A

Strategical level, Tactical level and Task level

307
Q

At what level of the ICS is the overall direction and goals set at? Who always functions at this level? (297)

A

set at Strategic level

IC always functions at Strategic level

308
Q

________ defines the actions that are necessary to achieve the strategic goals. Who would manage a group of resources to accomplish this? (297)

A

Tactical-level objectives; Tactical-level supervisor manages a group to achieve the objectives

309
Q

What are the tactical-level components called in medium- to large-scale incidents? (297)

A

divisions, groups or units (each could include several companies)

310
Q

Tactical assignments are usually defined by a _______ or a ______ responsibility. (297)

A

defined by a geographical area or a functional responsibility

311
Q

In what level of assignments is the physical work accomplished? (297)

A

Task level assignments

312
Q

The IC is responsible for the completion of what 3 strategic priorities? (297)

A
  1. Life safety
  2. Incident stabilization
  3. Property conservation
313
Q

Other than life safety, incident stabilization and property conservation, what other 3 aspects of operations is the IC also responsible for? (297)

A
  1. Building command structure matching organizational needs of the incident
  2. Translating strategic priorities into tactical objectives
  3. Assigning the resources required to perform tactical assignments
314
Q

Who is expected to assume command of the incident? (298)

A

First fire officer OR FD member to arrive at the scene

315
Q

What are the 3 options that the first-arriving company level officer has when arriving at the incident and assuming command? (298)

A
  1. Investigation
  2. Fast attack
  3. Command mode
316
Q

When does the fast attack mode end? (298)

A
  1. situation stabilized
  2. situation not stabilize, withdraw and establish ICP
  3. command transferred to another officer
317
Q

During the command mode, the initial IC remains outside and the rest of the company members should do one of the following: _____, _____, or _____. (298)

A
  1. Initiate suppression or emergency action
  2. work under another company officer
  3. stay with IC to perform staff functions assisting command
318
Q

What are the 9 functions of command? (299)

A
  1. Determining strategy
  2. Selecting incident tactics
  3. Setting the action plan
  4. Developing the ICS organization
  5. Managing resources
  6. Coordinating resource activities
  7. Providing for scene safety
  8. Releasing information about the incident
  9. Coordinating with outside agencies
319
Q

What 3 command functions must be completed as part of the first-arriving officer’s size up and initial actions? (300)

A
  1. Determining strategy
  2. Selecting incident tactics
  3. Setting the action plan
320
Q

Once the initial actions are under way, what are the next 4 functions the IC works on? (300)

A
  1. Developing the ICS organization
  2. Managing resources
  3. Coordinating resource activities
  4. Providing for scene safety
321
Q

What are the last 2 functions the IC works on once the incident action plan is fully operating? (300)

A
  1. Releasing information about the incident

9. Coordinating with outside agencies

322
Q

What is the ONLY reason that command should be transferred? (300)

A

to improve the quality of the command organization

323
Q

What 4 steps should the transfer of command follow? (300)

A
  1. officer assuming command, face-to-face/radio with IC
  2. initial IC briefs new IC
  3. command transferred ONLY WHEN new IC briefed
  4. command transfer told to dispatch/fire ground units
324
Q

What level officer may be assigned as a division or group supervisor? (300)

A

company-level officer

325
Q

Divisions are _______ and Groups are _______. (306)

A

Divisions are geographical and Groups are functional

326
Q

Managing and supervising fire officers may be assigned to _____, ____, _____ and _____ assignments within the IMS. (302)

A

section, branch, division and group assignments

327
Q

What 3 officers are ALWAYS part of the command staff? (302)

A
  1. Safety officer (safety on scene)
  2. Liaison officer (p.o.c. for outside agencies)
  3. Information officer (PIO, incident info to news)
328
Q

Where should the location of the liaison area be located? the media briefing location? (302)

A

liaison area = adjacent to, but not inside the ICP

media briefing location = separate from the ICP

329
Q

What are the 4 major functional components of the ICS model in which everything that occurs at the emergency incident can be divided amongst? (302)

A
  1. Operations “FLOP”
  2. Planning
  3. Logistics
  4. Finance/administration
330
Q

What are the people that are in charge of the four major sections of the ICS (FLOP) known as? Who are they always in direct contact with? (302)

A

ICS General Staff

always in direct contact with the IC

331
Q

What section of ICS is responsible for the management of all actions that directly related to controlling the incident? (303)

A

Operations section (produces most visible results)

332
Q

What section of ICS is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination and use of information relevant to the incident? (303)

A

Planning section (responsible for developing/updating IAP)

333
Q

What 5 units may the planning section be delegated into? (303)

A
  1. resources unit
  2. situation unit
  3. documentation unit
  4. demobilization unit
  5. technical specialists
334
Q

What outlines the strategic objectives and states how emergency operations will be conducted? (303)

A

Incident Action Plan (IAP)

335
Q

What section of ICS is responsible for providing supplies, services, facilities, and materials during the incident? (303)

A

Logistics section (ensures resources available/functional)

336
Q

What section of ICS is responsible for the administrative, accounting and financial aspects of an incident? (304)

A

Finance/administration section (handles legal issues also)

337
Q

What are the 4 subunits that the finance/administration section may incorporate to handle its duties efficiently? (304)

A
  1. time unit
  2. procurement unit
  3. compensation and claims unit
  4. cost unit
338
Q

The exterior sides of a building are designated as sides A (______), B (______), C(______), and D(______). (304)

A

Alpha, BAKER, Charlie, Delta

339
Q

What is differences between divisions, groups and units? (306)

A
  • divisions are geographical
  • groups are functional
  • units can be geographical or functional
340
Q

Between divisions, groups and units, which are the most often used during routine FD emergency operations? (306)

A

Divisions

341
Q

T/F: Sometimes groups are established with both functional AND geographical designations.

A

True

342
Q

What is the smallest organizational element within the IMS? (307)

A

Unit

343
Q

Who assigns division, group, or unit supervisors? (307)

A

Incident commander

344
Q

Divisions ______ report to groups and groups _____ report to divisions. (307)

A

Divisions DO NOT report to groups and groups DO NOT report to divisions. (they coordinate efforts)

345
Q

A ________ is a supervisory level established in either the operations or logistics functions to provide the appropriate span of control. (307)

A

branch

346
Q

What is the difference between Level 1 and Level 2 staging? (308)

A

Level 1 = predetermined to scene, others on street

Level 2 = designated standby location away from scene

347
Q

What does a task force include? Who does it operate under? Where are communications from units directed to? (308)

A
  • 2 to 5 single resources assembled for a specific task

- operates under and communications directed to TASK FORCE LEADER

348
Q

A ________ consists of 5 units of the SAME TYPE with an assigned leader. In most cases, the team operates under a command officer known as ______. (308)

A

Strike team = 5 of same type

Strike team leader = command officer

349
Q

How much water and energy bars are carried by companies who plan for a 2-day excursion in wildland areas? What about in the summer? (309)

A

5 gallons of water and 6 energy bars per FF

summer = 10 gallons of water per FF

350
Q

What are the 11 rules of engagement for structural firefighting? (318)

A
  1. Size up area of tactical operation
  2. Determine occupant survival profile
  3. Don’t risk life for lives/property not saveable
  4. Extend limited risk to protect savable property
  5. Extend vigilant/measured risks to protect/rescue lives
  6. Go in together, stay together, come out together
  7. Maintain continuous awareness of your air/situation/location/fire conditions
  8. Constantly monitor fireground communications for critical radio reports
  9. You are required to report unsafe practices/conditions that could harm you (stop, evaluate, and decide)
  10. You are required to abandon position/retreat before deteriorating conditions harm you
  11. Declare a mayday as soon as you THINK you are in danger
351
Q

What is the difference between and opened structure and an enclosed structure? Which of these structures do 3/4 of disoriented FF deaths occur? (319)

A 
opened = enough windows/doors for prompt ventilation/evacuation
enclosed = NOT enough windows/doors for prompt ventilation/evacuation (most FFs deaths occur in)
352
Q

During what rule of engagement for structural firefighting should the 360 walk around occur? (320)

A

Rule 1 : size up your tactical area of operation

353
Q

What should be achieved before proceeding with the primary and secondary search efforts? (320)

A

Fire control

354
Q

Who must recognize that they cannot always save a life while doing a risk/benefit analysis? (321)

A

Company officer and IC

355
Q

Who should be vigilant and measured–restrained, calculated, and deliberate–when applying strategy and tactics during a search and rescue event? (323)

A

All Members

356
Q

Savable lives is used to describe occupants who may potentially survive both the _____ and the _____. (323)

A

survive both the fire conditions and the rescue event

357
Q

At what point should a mayday be declared if a FF becomes separated and cannot get reconnected with his or her partner? (324)

A

If reconnection is not accomplished after three radio attempts or reconnection does not take place within 1 minute. (FF reconnected before RIC arrives, cancel mayday)

358
Q

What 4 items should you maintain continuous situational awareness of? (326)

A
  1. air supply
  2. situation
  3. location
  4. fire conditions
359
Q

What are 6 major benchmarks for checking you air supply? (326)

A
  1. Before entry
  2. After going up or down stairs
  3. Before entering and searching a room
  4. After exiting a room
  5. After going down a hallway or aisle
  6. Before and after doing a labor-demanding task
360
Q

What is the SCBA low-pressure alarm called? It moved from _____ to _____ of SCBA capacity in the 2013 edition of NFPA 1981. (326)

A
  • end-of-service time indicator (EOSTI)

- moved from 25% to 33% of SCBA capacity

361
Q

Using the tolerance of 0 to +5%, the low-air alarm will activate when the air supply reaches what capacity? (326)

A

33%-38% of SCBA capacity

362
Q

The national near-miss reporting system lists _______ as the most commonly reported cause of a life-threatening near-miss event. (326)

A

situational awareness

363
Q

Situational awareness is the relationship between what? (326)

A

relationship between what one perceives is happening and what is really happening

364
Q

What percentage of errors on the fireground, determined by Chief LeSage, happen when individuals fail to intervene in known or observed unsafe situations? (328)

A

74% of errors

365
Q

During what rule of engagement for structural firefighting does it apply the principles of crew resource management by encouraging all FFs to apply situational awareness and be responsible for their own safety and that of other FFs? Who are the hazards reported to?(328)

A

Rule 9 : Requirement to report unsafe practices/conditions that can harm you. Stop, evaluate and decide.

Hazards reported immediately to command OR your supervisor

366
Q

What percentage of FFs would declare a mayday if faced with “zero-visibility, no contact with hoseline or lifeline, do not know the direction out?” What if they could not find an exit in 60 seconds? (330)

A

82% if faced with “zerovisibility/no contact/don’t know direction out”

58% if no exit found in 60 seconds

367
Q

What should a FF do once the mayday is declared? (330)

A

manually activate the PASS device

368
Q

Structural firefighting is a practice built upon _____ and ______. (340)

A

experience and experiments

369
Q

What does fuel limited mean (older fires)? (340)

A

without intervention, fire will consume all of the fuel

370
Q

Modern fires are ______, resulting in a different time-temperature curve. (340)

A

ventilation limited

371
Q

What are four factors that distinguish modern dwellings from legacy dwellings(build before 1980)? (341)

A
  1. Larger homes
  2. Open house geometries
  3. Increased fuel loads
  4. New construction materials
372
Q

_______ is the volume between an inlet and an exhaust that allows the movement of hear and smoke from a higher-pressure area within the fire area toward lower-pressure areas via doors, windows and openings. (342)

A

Flow path

373
Q

What is the only way to go from a ventilation-limited to a fuel-limited fire? (342)

A

application of water BEFORE vertical ventilation

374
Q

What is meant by “softening the target?” (342)

A

applying 30-90 seconds of water into the compartment dramatically reducing fire development and improving conditions.

375
Q

What size ventilation hole is needed to localize fire growth or reduce temperatures in ventilation-limited structure fires? (342)

A

You cannot make a big enough ventilation hole

376
Q

What is an important factor in limiting heat release and temperatures in the house? (342)

A

limiting flow paths until fire suppression water is ready

377
Q

The officers’s personal and physical involvement in fire suppression activities should never override what? (343)

A

his/her supervisory duties

378
Q

Who serves as the eyes and ears for the IC? (343)

A

Each company officer

379
Q

______ provide a framework to allow activities to be efficiently completed through the efforts of everyone involved in the event. (344)

A

SOPs

380
Q

When does “size-up” begin and end? (344)

A
  • begins long before arrival (specific size-up=dispatch)

- continues until the incident is stabilized

381
Q

What is the end result of a good size-up?(345)

A

IAP

382
Q

The IC must consciously differentiate among what is _____, what is ______, and what is ______ in processing size-up information. (345)

A

what is known
what is assumed
what is anticipated

383
Q

What is one of the most significant factors in size-up? (345)

A

Visualization

384
Q

What does vigorous dark smoke mean? In dark smoke, what is more concentrated (carbon or oxygen)? What should be done to a compartment belching dark, billowing smoke prior to introducing additional air? (345)

A

high heat release (flashover conditions present)
dark smoke = more carbon particles in the smoke
soften the target prior to introducing additional air

385
Q

What type of size up should increase the officer’s caution and awareness of conditions inside the structure? (345)

A

no smoke showing

386
Q

Why is fuel load an important factor during size-up? (345)

A 
to determine method of attack
class A combustibles = direct attack with water
class B combustibles = use of foams
387
Q

What is the 5 step process for analyzing emergency situations presented in the book “Fundamentals of Fire Tactics” by Chief Layman? (345)

A
  1. Facts
  2. Probabilities
  3. Situation
  4. Decision
  5. Plan of Operation (develop actual plan)
388
Q

Analyzing the “situation” during emergency operations involves what 3 considerations? (345)

A
  1. units on scene/en route = sufficient to handle incident
  2. specific capabilities/limitations of resources in relation to problem
  3. capabilities/limitations of the personnel, based on training and experience
389
Q

Analyzing the “decision” during emergency operations involves what 4 questions? (345)

A
  1. enough resources on scene/en route for mitigation?
  2. sufficient resources/conditions allow interior attack?
  3. most effective assignment of on-scene resources?
  4. most effective assignment of responding resources?
390
Q

The ongoing size-up requires a constant flow of feedback information to the IC. What items does the IC need to know? (347)

A
  1. an assignment is completed
  2. assignment cannot be completed
  3. additional resources needed
  4. resources can be released
  5. conditions have changed
  6. additional problems have been identified
  7. emergency conditions exist
391
Q

What determines the appropriate strategy for an incident? What are the strategies? (347)

A

Risk-benefit analysis

Offensive, Defensive, Transitional

392
Q

What strategy drives most FD training, operations and organizational structures? What must be present to take the risk? (347)

A

Offensive

lives or valuable property present

393
Q

What strategy is used when the risks outweigh the benefits? (347)

A

Defensive

394
Q

What are the 2 major components to the IAP? (348)

A
  1. determination of appropriate strategy for mitigation

2. development of tactics to execute the strategy

395
Q

______ are general, whereas _____ are specific and measurable. (348)

A

strategies are general

tactics are specific and measureable

396
Q

What are the 3 basic priorities for an IAP? (348)

A

life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation

397
Q

RECEO VS is an acronym that covers the critical factors in developing a strategy. First 5 in priority order, final 2 can be used at any point to support the first 5. What does the acronym stand for? (349)

A 
Rescue
Exposures
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
398
Q

What is the best method to protect occupants from harm? (349)

A

Extinguish the fire quickly

399
Q

The hot zone is under the direct supervision of who? (350)

A

unit, branch or group leader

400
Q

What are 3 situations in which a fire crew would have to disrobe at the incident scene? (350_

A
  1. exposure to asbestos building components
  2. drug laboratories
  3. chemical/biological weapons
401
Q

An initial rapid intervention crew consists of _______. (350)

A

2 members from the initial attack crew

402
Q

A RIC by comparison, consists of ______ and is sometimes identified as a RIT. (350)

A

RIC = 4 members

403
Q

What always becomes the highest priority at the incident scene? (352)

A

report of a missing FF

404
Q

What should the fire officer indicate when making assignments for hoselines, unless they are predetermined by departmental SOPs? (353)

A

line size as well as placement

405
Q

The resources assigned to an incident vary greatly and are influenced by what? (353)

A

history, tradition and budgets

406
Q

What method is most commonly used by a fire officer to activate the local emergency plan is to ______. (354)

A

notify the dispatch center

407
Q

Who is normally responsible for maintaining and coordinating the plan, as well as facilitating the response to emergency situations? (354)

A

emergency management office

408
Q

What should the fire officer consult for determining evacuation distances, based on the product, quantity, and environmental conditions? (354)

A

ERG, local hazmat team, CHEMTREC

409
Q

In what dwellings do more civilian deaths occur than in any other type of occupancy in the U.S.?

A

one or two-family dwellings

410
Q

What sprinkler system provides a greater protection to occupants by may increase difficulty for FFs? What does this system not protect? (354)

A
  • NFPA compliant 13R automatic sprinkler system

- The 13R system does not protect the attic area/void spaces

411
Q

What does a zero-clearance chimney consist of? (356)

A

inside steel flue and outside flue, separated by 1” of air

412
Q

Due to the complexity of a high-rise fire, the IC often expands the ICS to include what sections? (356)

A

planning, operations, and logistics

413
Q

Built in sprinkler systems fail in about ___ in ___ fires. (356)

A

fail in about 1 in 14 fires

414
Q

What may be the last operations section position that a fire officer might be called on to fill at a high-rise incident? (356)

A

Staging area supervisor

415
Q

What 2 branches is the logistics section divided into? Who are the branches headed by? What are they responsible for?(356)

A

service(svc branch DIRECTOR)-communications/rehab

support(spt branch DIRECTOR)-supplies/personnel/equip

416
Q

The support branch director is usually located at a _____. The ICP may be co-located, but only 1 per incident.(356)

A

base (area where primary logistics functions coordinated and administered)

417
Q

What is the first priority for the support branch at a high-rise fire? (356)

A

Spare SCBA cylinders

418
Q

Who does the lobby control officer report to? (356)

A

Logistics section chief (IC if not established)

419
Q

Who does the stairwell support unit leader report to? (356)

A

support branch director OR logistics section chief

420
Q

The stairwell support group usually positions firefighters on every ______. (356)

A

every third floor

421
Q

What are the recommended practices for residential high-rise buildings? (356)

A
  • comply with organizations SOPs
  • consider bringing the big attack line first
  • beware of weather conditions
  • assemble an adequate crew
422
Q

Who is responsible for conducting the investigation as well as completing the NFIRS documents or a local equivalent report? (364)

A

the IC (sometimes delegated to another F.O., typically first arriving F.O)

423
Q

What is the first goal of the fire officer delegated investigating fire cause is to determine what?(364)

A

whether a formal fire investigation is needed

424
Q

In situations where no formal investigation occurs and a fire investigator does not respond to the scene to determine the cause and origin, the ______ is responsible for determining and reporting the fire cause. (364)

A

IC

425
Q

When should a fire investigator be called? (365)

A

death or serious burn injury occurs

426
Q

Fire follows the same growth pattern as the smoke and heat which is? (365)

A

Rising toward the ceiling, spreading out, banking down

427
Q

When does the smoldering phase of the fire occur? (366)

A

may occur before or after flashover

428
Q

What is required for any search once cause and origin have both been determined? (367)

A

search warrant or consent

429
Q

______ search warrants are needed for reentry that is not a continuation of a valid search and the purpose is to determine the cause of the fire. (367)

A

Administrative search warrants

430
Q

A _______ search warrant is needed when reentry is not a continuation of a valid search and the purpose is to gain evidence for prosecution. (367)

A

Criminal search warrant

431
Q

What 3 types of evidences must the fire officer consider? (367)

A
  1. Demonstrative evidence (tangible items)
  2. Documentary evidence (written form/photos)
  3. Testimonial evidence (witnesses speaking under oath)
432
Q

To prove that a crime of arson occurred, what must the fire investigator rule out? (367)

A

all potential accidental and natural causes of the fire

433
Q

What is the fire investigator’s ultimate goal? (367)

A

identify point of origin and cause of the fire

434
Q

Who is responsible for protecting the fire scene evidence both from the public and from excessive overhaul and salvage? (368)

A

fire officer

435
Q

Who is the first step in the chain of evidence that is vital to successful prosecution of arson cases.?(368)

A

fire officer

436
Q

What is the proper methodology for a fire or explosion investigation? (368)

A

FIRST, determine and establish origin
NEXT, investigate the cause: circumstances, conditions, or agencies that brought the ignition source, fuel and oxidant together

437
Q

What location does a fire investigator usually start his investigation? (368)

A

starts in area with least damage and follows patterns back to area of greatest fire damage

438
Q

Determining the point of origin requires the analysis of information from what 4 sources? (369)

A
  1. Physical marks (fire patterns left by fire)
  2. Observations reported (witnesses)
  3. Analysis of the physics and chemistry
  4. Notice the location where electrical arcing
439
Q

The V-shaped or U-shaped pattern is also known as a _______ pattern because it allows tracing back to origin. (369)

A

movement pattern

440
Q

What pattern indicates how much heat (energy) was transferred to the surrounding areas and objects? (369)

A

intensity pattern

441
Q

The intensity is indicated by the response of various materials to the fire’s rate of _____ and _____. What is produced indicating the area closest to the point where the greatest amount of heat was produced? (369)

A
  • rate of heat release and heat flux

- Line of demarcation produced

442
Q

What is the blackened remains of a carbon-based material after is has been burned? (369)

A

char (deeper the char=longer burned=closer to origin)

443
Q

“Cause” determination can be approached by what 3 step process? (369)

A
  1. determine the source of ignition
  2. determine the fuel that was first ignited
  3. determine the circumstances or human actions that allowed the ignition source and the fuel to come together
444
Q

After all investigative possibilities have been exhausted, if 2 or more potential causes remain, the cause of the fire is considered __________. (370)

A

undetermined

445
Q

A competent ignition source has what 3 components? (370)

A
  1. Generation
  2. Transmission
  3. Heating
446
Q

The _____ first ignited refers to the nature of the material itself. The form of the material tells us _____ (370)

A

type of material=nature of material itself

form of material=how that material is used

447
Q

Where are cause and origin interviews usually conducted? (372)

A

conducted at the fire scene

448
Q

Who should conduct interrogations? (372)

A

only trained fire or police investigator

449
Q

What percentage of vehicle fires were caused by mechanical failure or malfunction? (372)

A

47%

450
Q

What should be determined when asking the driver/owner at a vehicle fire? (373)

A
  1. when last driven and how far
  2. what total vehicle mileage is
  3. operating abnormalities
  4. when last service took place
  5. when vehicle was last fueled
  6. how the vehicle was equipped
  7. which personal items were in the vehicle
451
Q

Wildland fires tend to spread vertically through ______ from lower vegetation to taller vegetation and horizontally through _______. (373)

A

vertically through convection

horizontally through radiation

452
Q

When a tree burns and falls, the remaining trunk is usually burned at an angle, creating a point. The point generally appears on what side of the trunk? (373)

A

side of the stump OPPOSITE the direction of FIRE APPROACH

453
Q

What are the 3 leading causes of residential fires? (most frequent to least) (374)

A
  1. Unattended cooking
  2. Smoking materials
  3. Heating
454
Q

What is the chemical decomposition resulting in a gradual lowering of the ignition temperature of the woof until autoignition occurs? (374)

A

Pyrolysis

455
Q

What happens if a building’s electrical system is involved with a lightning strike? (374)

A

surge usually fuses or melts the main fuses/circuit breakers

456
Q

What 5 general categories may indicate conditions of factors that indicate that the incident involved an intentional fire? (375)

A
  1. Disabled built-in fire protection
  2. Delayed notification or difficulty in getting to the fire
  3. Accelerants and trailers
  4. Multiple points of origin
  5. Tampered or altered equipment
457
Q

National statistics indicate that ___ in every ___ fires iso of incendiary origin. (377)

A

1 in every 4 (highest rate of youth involvement when compared to all crimes logged in FBI index of most serious felonies)

458
Q

What are the 6 basic motives for arson? (377)

A
  1. Profit (insurance; extortion/eliminate competition)
  2. Crime concealment (destroy records)
  3. Excitement (thrills, attention, recognition)
  4. Spite/Revenge (intense emotions)
  5. Extremism (abortion clinics, religious)
  6. Vandalism (damage for its own sake)
459
Q

An __________ has scientific, technical or other specialized knowledge that can be relied on to interpret the facts. They are allowed to give an opinion based on the facts or data on the case. (379)

A

expert witness

460
Q

After searches are completed and the fire is declared under control, the fire officer must consider _____. (379)

A

Evidence preservation

461
Q

What 5 steps should every FD take to create a safety culture? (387)

A
  1. Provide honest sharing of safety information without the fear of reprisal from superiors
  2. Adopt a nonpunitive policy toward errors.
  3. Take action to reduce errors in the system. Walk the talk.
  4. Train FFs in error avoidance and detection
  5. Train fire officers in evaluating situations, reinforcing error avoidance, and managing the safety process
462
Q

What are Dupont’s “dirty dozen” which is a comprehensive list of reasons and ways that humans make mistakes? (387)

A
  1. Lack of communication
  2. Complacency
  3. Lack of knowledge
  4. Distraction
  5. Lack of teamwork
  6. Fatigue
  7. Lack of resources
  8. Pressure
  9. Lack of assertiveness
  10. Stress
  11. Lack of awareness
  12. Norms
463
Q

Dr. James Reason cites what 2 reasons why holes appear in the layer of defense? (387)

A
  1. Active failures (unsafe acts)

2. Latent conditions (“resident pathogens”)

464
Q

Crew Resource Management (CRM) is an error management model that incorporates what 3 activities? (388)

A

avoidance, entrapment, and mitigating consequences

465
Q

The fire service CRM model covers what 6 areas? (388)

A
  1. Communication Skills
  2. Teamwork
  3. Task allocation
  4. Critical decision making
  5. Situational awareness
  6. Debriefing
466
Q

What 3 components comprise the triangle of leadership? (389)

A
  1. trust and respect
  2. effective leadership
  3. leadership skills
467
Q

What 3 competencies is respect based on? (389)

A
  1. Personal (internal strengths, capabilities, character)
  2. Technical (perform tasks requiring knowledge/skills)
  3. Social (interact effectively with others)
468
Q

What are the 5 steps in which an assertive statement runs? (389)

A
  1. Use an opening/attention getter
  2. State your concern
  3. State the problem as you see it
  4. State a solution
  5. Obtain agreement or buy-in
469
Q

The focal point of CRM in conflict resolution is to focus on what? (391)

A

WHAT is right, NOT WHO is right

470
Q

What 4 critical areas of self assessment need to be considered to show their ability to function as part of a team? (391)

A
  1. Physical condition (good = more aware/alert/oriented)
  2. Mental condition (full attention)
  3. Attitude (follow orders)
  4. Understanding human behavior (how behavior relates to others and team as a whole)
471
Q

What is the first step in the CRM task allocation phase? (391)

A

knowing one’s own limits and the capacity of the team

472
Q

Fire officers fall into what 3 categories when is comes to multitasking ability? (391)

A
  1. Reluctant to admit overwhelmed and believe better when more hectic
  2. overwhelmed before full complexity of event recognized
  3. LEADERS effectively assess incident, calls for additional resource early and manages to stay ahead of the incident and balance the span of control
473
Q

___________ describes how commanders can recognize a plausible plan of action. (392)

A

Recognition-primed decision making (RPD)

474
Q

___________ describes how commanders make decisions in their natural environment. (392)

A

Naturalistic decision making

475
Q

What are the 6 steps that should be followed to maintain emergency scene situational awareness? (393)

A
  1. Fight the fire
  2. Assess problems in the time available (take extra 30-60 seconds to absorb/process info)
  3. Gather information from all sources
  4. Choose the best option
  5. Monitor results and alter the plan as necessary
  6. Beware of situational awareness loss factors
476
Q

What are some situational awareness loss factors? (393)

A

ambiguity (event/order w/more than 1 meaning)
distraction (external or internal)
fixation (tunnel vision)
overload (more things than 1 can process)
complacency (inattentiveness breads carelessness)
improper procedure (Immediate action required)
unresolved discrepancy (don’t ignore conflicts)
nobody fighting the fire (stay big picture)

477
Q

What are the 5 “disconnects” described with implementing NFFF Life Safety initiatives? (395)

A
  1. “culture change” viewed by some as threat
  2. bad (unsafe) behaviors/attitudes allowed to leach into membership as part of “tradition”
  3. safety and mission within organizational cultures are imbalanced
  4. voices (and actions) of safety leadership are either subconsciously muffled or consciously subdued
  5. lessons from behavioral safety science not embraced by fire service leaders, much less operations
478
Q

The fire officer who wants to recommend changes to existing policies or create a new policy should start with the results of a ___________. (395)

A

Post-incident debriefing

479
Q

High reliability organizations that have embraced CRM have seen reductions of 70%-89% in their rates of ______, ______ and ______. (395)

A

incidents, accidents, and injuries

480
Q

Implementing the error management model provides specific practices in what 6 areas? (395)

A
  1. Communication skills
  2. Teamwork
  3. Task allocation
  4. Critical decision making
  5. Situational awareness
  6. Debriefing

LT Exam 2019 (5 decks)

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