fluid pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Shock (general and hypovlaemic/haemorrhagic)
What is the definition of shock?

A

A reduction in cardiac output or the effective circulating blood volume, resulting in
hypotension, impaired tissue perfusion and cellular hypoxia

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2
Q

What are the major categories of shock? Please give examples

A

● Cardiogenic - AMI, cardiotoxins, arrhythmias
● Obstructive - tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, massive PE
● Hypovolaemic - haemorrhagic, burns, GI losses
● Distributive - anaphylaxis, adrenal crisis
● Neurogenic - spinal injury , spinal anaesthetic
● Some people add in an additional category of Septic shock or systemic
inflammation but this can also be considered a form of distributive shock - sepsis,
pancreatitis, trauma (independent of haemorrhage)

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3
Q

Describe the stages of haemorrhagic shock

A

There are three main stages
● Non progressive - where reflex compensatory mechanisms are able to maintain
vital organ perfusion
● Progressive- which is characterised by tissue hypo-perfusion and the onset of
some early metabolic disturbances
● Irreversible - characterised by non reversible cellular injury, manifesting as
multi-organ failure

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4
Q

What happens at the cellular and tissue level during the irreversible phase?

A

● At a cellular level there is lysosomal rupture, cell membrane damage and
mitochondrial dysfunction
● At a tissue level, it is useful to think about the major organs critically affected in
the shock process:

○ Decreased myocardial contractility
○ Acute tubular necrosis leading to acute renal failure
○ Ischaemic gut leading to bacteraemic shock

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5
Q

Describe the initial clinical presentation of shock

A

● Tachycardia
● Tachypnoea
● Reduced urine output
● Cool peripheries, clammy skin and Increased capillary refill time
● Narrowed pulse pressure
● As shock progresses - hypotension, altered mental state and cyanosis

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6
Q

Septic Shock
What are the mechanisms of gram negative sepsis?

A

Combination of direct microbial injury and overwhelming activation of host inflammatory
responses by endotoxins.

These mechanisms include:
● Activation of the innate cells of the immune system - neutrophils, macrophages
and monocytes
● Humoral interaction to activate complement and coagulation pathways
● Direct endothelial injury and activation

This leads to
● Inflammatory mediator release - TNF, IL (1,6,8,10), PGS, NO, PAF, ROS.
● Metabolic abnormalities (insulin resistance, hyperglycaemia, glucocorticoid
disturbances)
● Immune suppression via activation of counter regulatory mechanisms with
anti-inflammatory mediators, lymphocyte apoptosis and hyperglycaemic inhibition
of neutrophils.

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7
Q

What is an endotoxin?

A

Endotoxin refers to bacterial cell wall lipopolysaccharides, usually associated with gram
negative bacilli. These are only produced when the bacteria lyses - or ‘ends’ hence
endotoxin).
In contrast exotoxins are proteins which are produced and actively excreted by bacteria
(excreted exotoxins, life ending endotoxins)
Consists of a generic fatty acid core and a complex polysaccharide coat unique for each
species.

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8
Q

What is the effect of endothelial cell activation and injury during septic shock?

A

Thrombosis, increased vascular permeability and vasodilation.

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9
Q

What chemical mediators are involved in septic shock?

A

● Vasoactive amines - histamine and serotonin
● Plasma proteases - complement, kinins
● Platelet activating factor
● Cytokines - IL-1 and TNF
● Lysosomal constituents - proteases, lysozymes
● Oxygen free radicals, neuropeptides and nitric oxide

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10
Q

What are the effects of the inflammatory mediators on the coagulation pathway?

A

Microvascular thrombosis, decreased fibrinolysis and DIC

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11
Q

What factors determine the severity and outcome of septic shock in an individual?

A

● Disease factors: Extent and virulence of the infection
● Host factors: Immune status, Presence of other comorbidity, Pattern and level of
mediator production

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12
Q

What are the potential outcomes of septic shock?

A

Good to try and break it down by organ here:
● At the heart we might see depression of myocardial activity, or cardiomyopathy
● Our large blood vessels dilate causing distributive hypotension
● In our lungs, leaky blood vessels permit fluid accumulation in small airways
causing ARDS
● Inappropriate activation of the clotting cascade results in DIC
● Finally theres a cascade of progressive multi organ dysfunction / failure leading
to confusion, coma and death
● Liver failure
● Renal failure

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13
Q

Haemostasis
Describe the sequence of events at the site of a vascular injury

A

● Immediate local blood vessel response: reflexive vasoconstriction mediated by
endothelin

● Primary haemostasis, activated by exposed ECM permits platelet plug formation

● Secondary haemostasis activated by intrinsic / extrinsic pathways permits
stabilisation of the platelet plug with fibrin meshwork
○ Tissue factors exposed, Factor III, thromboplastin, Fac tor VII,
consolidation of the platelet plug with the generation of thrombin and fibrin

● All the while, counter regulatory mechanisms (including tPA) prevent
inappropriate clot extension and local vessel occlusion

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14
Q

Describe the process of primary haemostasis

A

Primary haemostasis refers to formation of the platelet plug.
These steps include: (1) adherence (2) activation (3) aggregation
● Endothelial damage exposes extracellular matrix (collagen, vWF)
● Platelet adhesion via GP1b to the von Willebrand Factor (vWF) on exposed ECM
● Platelets activate, causing shape change from flat to round and secrete granules
- ADP, TXA2 and phospholipids
● Platelet aggregation via platelet GpIIb-IIIa receptor binding to fibrinogen

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15
Q

What are the haematological and clinical effects of von Willebrand disease?

A

● Von Willebrand Disease (VWD) refers to either a deficiency in von Willebrand
Factor. This can either be a functional or true deficiency.
● The main function of vWF is facilitation of the adhesion of platelets to
subendothelial collagen in haemostasis.
● It also leads to factor VIII dysfunction because in normal physiology vWF forms a
complex with Factor VIII preventing it from being degraded.

Haem effects: Increased bleeding time with normal platelets, (Types 1 & 3)
Clinical effects: Spontaneous bleeding from mucous membranes, increased bleeding
from wounds, menorrhagia, bleeding into joints is rare outside of type 3

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16
Q

What are the types of VWF?

A

Three main types:
● Type 1 most common (70%), autosomal dominant, decreased circulating vWF,
usually mild.
● Type 2 less common(15-20%), autosomal dominant, defective vWF, mild.
● Type 3 rare, autosomal recessive, decreased circulating vWF, severe.

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17
Q

Coagulation Cascade
Give an overview of the coagulation cascade.

A

● It is the component of haemostasis resulting in thrombosis.
● It involves a series of conversions of inactive pro-enzymes to activated enzymes,
culminating in the formation of thrombin and insoluble fibrin meshwork.
● It comprises extrinsic and intrinsic pathways.
● The extrinsic pathway is activated by tissue factor exposed at sites of tissue
injury
● The intrinsic pathway is activated by Factor XII
● These pathways converge at the activation of Factor X into the common pathway
● The common pathway involves factor X, prothrombin, thrombin, Factor V,
Calcium and ultimately leads to the conversion of the soluble plasma protein
fibrinogen to fibrin, which is an insoluble protein.
● Fibrin then ultimately becomes cross linked.

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18
Q

What does prothrombin time measure?

A

Extrinsic and common coagulation pathways (factors VII, V, X, prothrombin, and
fibrinogen)

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19
Q

What does the partial thromboplastin time measure?

A

Intrinsic and common pathways
The way I remember this is that the PT, which is a shorter acronym, tests the shorter
pathway (extrinsic)

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20
Q

In the normal coagulation cascade, what happens after factor X is activated?

A

Activation of factor 10 marks the start of the of the common coagulation cascade

● Conversion of prothrombin (II) to thrombin (IIa) requires calcium and activated
Factor V (Va) as cofactors. It occurs on the surface of damaged endothelium
● Activated factor 2 (also known as thrombin) catalyses fibrinogen (I) to fibrin (Ia) in
the presence of calcium
● Thrombin also catalyses factor XIII to XIIIa, which is known as stabilising factor,
permitting increased cross linking of fibrin and the formation of a stable fibrin clot

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21
Q

Regulation of Clot Formation
What mechanisms restrict the activity of the coagulation cascade to the site of a
vascular injury?

A

● Firstly Factor activation is restricted to the site of exposed phospholipids

● Secondly, there are Natural anticoagulants, of which there are three types
○ Antithrombins (e.g AT3) inhibit the activity of thrombin and other serine
proteases (IXa, Xa, XIa, XIIa). AT3 is activated by binding to heparin like
molecules on the endothelium - which is the mechanism we take
advantage of when we use heparin for anticoagulation
○ Protein C & S - these are vitamin K dependent proteins which directly
inactivate factors Va and VIIIa.
○ Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI) impedes the early stages of the
coagulation cascade through affinity for factors VIIa and Xa

● Fibrinolytic Cascade Activation:
○ Plasmin - Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by factor XII or by the two
other plasminogen activators (u-PA or t-PA). It breaks down fibrin and
interferes with polymerisation. The resulting fibrin degradation products
also act as weak anticoagulants.

● Endothelial cells modulate the coagulation/anticoagulation balance by releasing
Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI) which blocks fibrinolysis by inhibiting the
binding of t-PA to fibrin

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22
Q

Describe the process of normal fibrinolysis

A

● Plasmin is produced from circulating plasminogen either by factor XIIa dependent
pathway or by plasminogen activators
● Plasmin breaks down fibrin to fibrin degradation products (detected by D-dimer
test) and disrupts polymerisation
● t-PA from endothelial cells is the most important PA and is most active when
attached to fibrin. Urokinase is similar to t-PA (u-PA) and is a circulating protein
that has the same effect
● Free plasmin is inactivated by alpha 2 plasmin inhibitor

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23
Q

Haemophilia
What is Haemophilia A?

A

A reduction in the amount or activity of factor VIII (also called anti-haemophilic factor)
Factor VIII is a cofactor for factor IX in the activation of Factor X

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24
Q

How is haemophilla A inherited?

A

X-linked recessive trait, so affects males and homozygous females
30% have no family history so it can occur as a result of random mutation

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25
Q

Why do patients with Haemophilia A bleed?

A

Lack of Factor VIII affects the intrinsic pathway, leading to inadequate coagulation.
Normally the extrinsic pathway produces the initial burst of thrombin activation that then
activates the intrinsic pathway. In haemophilia this is not possible.

26
Q

What is the association between clinical severity and Factor VIII levels

A

<1% severe
2-5% moderate
>6% mild

27
Q

What are the other types of haemophilia?

A

Haemphilia B - Christmas disease, affects Factor IX
Haemophilia C - Affects factor XI
These are less severe and happen higher up in the coagulation cascade.

28
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
What is DIC?

A

Dysregulation between the processes of coagulation and fibrinolysis causing
widespread clotting and bleeding

Mediated by tissue factor release from endothelial cells and macrophages →
overwhelming coagulation cascade activation and formation of microthrombi in the
circulation.

Because this is such an overwhelming / widespread process, Consumption of platelets,
fibrin and clotting factors Leads to coagulopathy. Simultaneous activation of fibrinolytic
mechanisms aggravates the potential for haemorrhage.
Clinical picture is of infarction/tissue hypoxia as well as haemorrhage and
microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

29
Q

What are some common triggers for DIC?

A

● Sepsis - particularly from gram negative endotoxins as well as meningococcal,
malaria, histoplasmosis disease
● Major trauma/burns/surgery
● Certain cancers - AML, adenoCa of lung, colon, stomach
● Obstetric complications - placental abruption, amniotic fluid embolism, dead
foetal tissue, toxaemia
● Others - heat stroke, snakebite, liver disease

30
Q

When DIC develops, what is the process?

A

This is a question about pathogenesis.
DIC is triggered via 2 major mechanisms:

● Widespread endothelial damage, causing exposure of subendothelial matrix
which activates platelets and coagulation cascade. TNF is an important mediator
in this case. Seen with heat stroke, burns, trauma, meningococcal infections.
● Release of tissue factor or thromboplastic substances into the circulation. Seen
with endotoxins, amniotic fluid embolism, adenocarcinoma mucus)

This leads to a procoagulant state, further perpetuated by the following:
● TNF causes more Tissue Factor to be expressed from endothelial cells
● Altered levels of Thrombomodulin (which is an anticoagulant)
● Decreased fibrinolysis by increased presence of the inhibitors of plasminogen
activator
● Decreased production of protein C
● Stasis of blood, which decreases the washout of activated coagulation factors
All of these combine to promote the activation of thrombin and fibrin rich thrombi

31
Q

What are the pathological consequences of DIC?

A

In DIC both sides of the clotting cascade are activated
This leads to 2 major consequences

● Deposition of fibrin within microcirculation leading to microthrombosis within
vulnerable organs, haemolytic anaemia and ischaemia

● A consumptive coagulopathy where platelets and clotting factors are used up
leading to a bleeding diathesis

32
Q

In DIC, what would you expect to find on a FBC and coag profile?

A

↓ Hb due to haemolysis (MAHA)
↓ platelets
↓Fibrinogen and ↑ fibrinogen degradation products
↑ WCC
↑ INR/PT
↑ aPTT

33
Q

What pathological mechanisms might contribute to venous thrombus formation in
a vessel?

A

Virchow’s triad!
Endothelial injury + alteration to blood flow (either stasis or turbulence) +
hypercoagulability of blood

34
Q

What are some of the different risk factors for venous thrombosis?

A

Primary / genetic factors
● Mutations - factor V leiden, prothrombin gene
● Increased leveld of factors VIII, IX, XI
● Deficiencies - AT3, Protein C/S
● Fibrinolysis defects
● Non -O blood group

Secondary (acquired)
● Stasis from travel, bed rest, immobilisation
● Tissue injury - burns/fracture
● AF
● Cancer
● Prosthetic valves/intravascular devices
● External vessel compression (pregnancy included)
● Platelet abnormalities
● Hyperoestrogenic states i.e. OCP, post partum, pregnancy
● Sickle cell anaemia
● Smoking
● Antiphospholipid syndrome

35
Q

What are the possible outcomes of a venous thrombus in an area?

A

● Propagation (resulting in occlusion)
● Embolisation - pulmonary or systemic
● Dissolution - due to fibrinolytic activity
● Organisation - fibrosis
● Recanalisation

36
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A detached intravascular solid liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by the blood to a
site distant to its point of origin

37
Q

What are the different types of emboli/.

A

● Thromboembolus - venous to pulmonary, arterial to systemic
● Fat embolus
● Gas embolus
● Amniotic fluid embolus
● Air embolus

38
Q

What is a systemic thromboembolism?

A

Refers to emboli in the arterial circulation

39
Q

What are the possible sources of systemic thromboembolism?

A

Most (80%) are associated with intracardiac mural thrombi, ⅔ of which are associated
with LV infarction and another ¼ associated with left atrial dilation and fibrillation
The remainder originate from aortic aneurysms, thrombi on ulcerated atherosclerotic
plaques or fragmentation of a valvular vegetation with a small fraction due to paradoxical
emboli

40
Q

Where are they most likely to lodge?

A

Systemic thromboemboli are most likely to lodge in the lower limbs (75%), the brain
(10%) or in the intestines/kidney/spleen or upper limbs

41
Q

What is an infarct?

A

An area of ischemic necrosis caused by arterial or venous occlusion

42
Q

What mechanisms can lead to an infarction?

A

Arterial thrombus, embolism, vasospasm, haemorrhage into a plaque, extrinsic vascular
compression (by mass or oedema), torsion of a vessel, traumatic rupture, entrapment in
hernial sac, venous thrombosis

43
Q

What factors determine the development of an infarct?

A

Nature of the vascular supply (end artery vs presence of collateral supply)
Rate of occlusion (may give time for collaterals to develop)
Vulnerability to hypoxia of the tissue type
Oxygen content of blood
Calibre of occluded vessel

44
Q

What factors govern the movement of fluid between the vascular and interstitial
spaces?
Starling forces

A

Hydrostatic pressure, colloid osmotic pressure and normal capillary walls that retain
most protein in the intravascular space, allow fluid to leak out.

45
Q

What is oedema?

A

Increased interstitial fluid

46
Q

Outline the pathogenesis of oedema

A

Can either be inflammatory (occuring as a result of increased capillary membrane
permeability / leakiness) or non-inflammatory (occuring due to an imbalance of
aforementioned starling forces)
Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure normally balance to ensure that net fluid into
and out of capillaries remains equal, with a small amount also removed by lymphatics.
Increased hydrostatic pressure or diminished osmotic pressure OR overload of the
lymphatics will cause fluid to build up in the tissues.

47
Q

What are the major mechanisms of oedema formation and give examples of each.

A

Inflammatory
● Infection, issue necrosis, foreign body, immune, traumatic

Non Inflammatory
● Increased hydrostatic pressure
○ Local venous - venous obstruction, compression, thrombosis
○ Local arterial - dilation, heat, neurohumeral dysregulation
○ Systemic - CCF, constrictive pericarditis, impaired venous return
● Reduced plasma oncotic pressure - mainly vis protein loss i.e. nephrotic
syndrome of poor production i.e. cirrhosis, malnutrition
● Lymphatic obstruction - inflammatory, neoplastic, post surgical, post irradiation
● Sodium retention with water - renal insufficiency, activation of renin-angiotensin
system , renal hypoperfusion

48
Q

What is the difference in composition of fluid between inflammatory and
non-inflammatory oedema?

A

Inflammatory is exudate - high protein concentration (same composition as plasma)
Non inflammatory is transudate - low protein, filtered by an intact cellular membrane

49
Q

What are the clinical features of heart failure?

A

● Lung - dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND, pulmonary oedema, pleural effusions
● Cardiac - 3rd heart sound, displaced apex beat, AF, murmurs, JVP elevation
● Renal - fluid retention pedal oedema AKI
● Brain - confusion secondary to hypoxia
● Hepatic - congestion, ascites, cirrhosis (late)

50
Q

What is the pathogenesis of cardiogenic oedema?

A

Decreased cardiac output, decreased renal perfusion, secondary hyperaldosteronism,
increased blood volume leads to increased venous pressure

51
Q

What are the causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

● Chronic blood loss - GI tract, menorrhagia
● Increased requirements - pregnancy, children
● Dietary lack - developing nations, infants with prolonged breastfeeding, elderly,
restricted diet
● Impaired absorption - coeliac, gastrectomy

52
Q

What are the symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

● General anaemia symptoms - fatigue, pallor, weakness, dyspnoea on exertion,
angina
● Features of cause - menorrhagia, melaena
● Specific to iron deficiency - Koilonychia, alopecia glossitis, pica, pharyngeal web

53
Q

What are the lab findings of iron deficiency anaemia? (Note - they may also hand
you the results and ask you to interpret them)

A

● Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia
● Low Hb
● Low serum ferritin
● Low serum iron
● High transferrin iron binding capacity
● Low transferrin saturation

54
Q

What is the pathogenesis of pernicious anaemia?

A

Immune mediated (likely autoimmune) destruction of gastric mucosa leading to chronic
atrophic gastritis. This causes a Loss of parietal cells and reduced intrinsic factor
production which in turn leads to reduced Vit B12 absorption from the gut, resulting in
macrocytic anaemia

55
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of the disease?

A

● Insidious onset due to large B12 stores
● Progressive unless treated
● Moderate to severe megalopbastic anaemia
● Weakness, tiredness, pallor
● Mild jaundice due to ineffective erythropoesis and enhanced peripheral
haemolysis
● Leukopaenia and thrombocytopaeia
● Atrophic glossitis (shiny, glazed tongue)
● Neurologic manifestations including spasticity, sensory ataxia and lower limb
paraesthesias

56
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

Hereditary haemoglobinopathy
Generally heterozygous (40%) which is asymptomatic unless hypoxic.
In homozygous disease, HbS instead of normal Hb. leads to alteration of the Hb when
deoxygenated causing sickling + red cell membrane changes.

57
Q

What are the major pathological manifestations of sickle cell disease?

A

● Haemolysis and haemolytc anaemia
● Microvascular occlusions - pain crises from tissue ischaemia in the bone, lungs,
liver and spleen
● Splenic enlargement, infarcts and dysfunction (increased susceptibility to
infection with encapsulated organisms e.g. strep pneumoniae, heumophilus
influenzae

58
Q

What are the major precipitants for a sickle cell crisis in a prone individual?

A

Hypoxia, dehydration and/or a drop in pH

59
Q

In general, how are haemolytic anaemias classified?

A

● Inherited genetic defects - spherocytosis, enzyme defects (G6PD),
haemoglobinopathies - thalassemia, sickle cell
● Antibody mediated destruction - transfusion reactions, autoimmune
● Mechanical trauma, HUS, TTP, cardiac valves
● Infection in red cells - malaria
● Toxic - envenomation

60
Q

What are the causes of thrombocytopaenia?

A

Decreased production of platelets
● Generalised bone marrow depression (aplastic anaemia), marrow infiltration
(leukaemia/cancer)
● Impaired platelet production via drugs (alcohol, medications) infections (HIV,
measles)
● Ineffective megakaryopoiesis megaloblastic anaemia, myelodysplastic
syndromes

Decreased platelet survival
● Immune destruction (autoimmune), iso-immune (transfusion, neonatal), drugs
(quinine, heparin) infections (HIV, CMV)
● Non immune destruction (DIC, haemorrhage, TTP)
● Hypersplenism

Dilutional

61
Q

What is the pathogenesis of immune thrombocytopaenic purpura?

A

● Formation of antibodies against platelet membrane glycoproteins (IIb-IIIa or Ib-IX)
● Antibodies evident in 80%
● Opsonised platelets are susceptible to phagocytosis
● Spleen is the major site of removal - 80% of patients improve with splenectomy
● Triggers: primary/idiopathic can be acute or chronic,
● Secondary via drugs or infection
● Can occur after viral infection and is self limiting - resolves in 6 months