Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

GoJet SOP > Flight Safety Sample Questions > Flashcards

Flight Safety Sample Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does the AFM state as the minimum air temperature in flight?

A

70 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is turbulence penetration speed?

A

280 KIAS/ .75 Mach (Whichever is less)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max tailwind component? 10 Kts

A

10 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum pavement for a 180° turn? CRJ 700

A

75 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Door Support Cables must be installed when moving the aircraft with the door open or when the aircraft is on jacks?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All open doors on the EICAS synoptic page will be displayed in amber?

A

False – Main cabin door is RED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What doors are NOT monitored by the EICAS system?
A

Crew escape hatch and aft equipment bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Max weight on the cabin air-­‐stair door?
A

1000 lbs or 4 passengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What provides electrical power for the CRJ-­‐700

A
  • Engine IDG (2) -­‐ 115 VAC, 400 HZ, 40 kVA
  • APU IDG -­‐ 115 VAC, 400 HZ, 40 kVA
  • ADG – 115V, 400 HZ, 15kVA
  • Main Battery – 24V, 17 amp
  • APU Battery – 24V, 43 amp
  • TRU (4) 28 VDC, 120 amp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Max Ramp weight
A

75,250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Max Takeoff weight?
A

75,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Max Landing weight?
A

67,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Max ZFW?
A

62,300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Max pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
A

8000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Max operating altitude?
A

41,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Max ambient temperature for takeoff and landing?
A

ISA +35C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Min ambient temperature for takeoff and landing?
A

-­‐40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. OXY LO PRESS caution will illuminate on the EICAS primary page at?
A

960 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. With the oxygen selector in the normal position, the regulator will supply 100% above what altitude?
A

30,000 ft Cabin Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

AUTO FLIGHT

  1. What altitude does the AFCS automatically select Half Bank mode in flight?
A

31,600 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Half Bank mode is not available in TOGA mode?
A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the SPEED pushbutton used for?
A

Engage the CLB or DES mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Pressing either TOGA switch on the thrust lever does what when airborne?
A

Engages the GA mode of the FD and commands a 10 degree pitch command and heading hold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Back course localizer approaches should be flown with the NAV button selected?
A

False – Use B/C mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What does Half Bank Mode provide?
A

Max bank command of 15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. When is Half Bank Mode inhibited?
A
  • TO Mode
  • GA Mode
  • Onside approach mode capture
  • Any onside localizer capture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. In the pitch mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click will provide how much pitch change?
A

½ degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Pressing either GA switch on the thrust lever will?
A

Disconnect the AP and engage the GA for FD guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. In V/S mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click provides how much change in V/S?
A

100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. To fly a full ILS approach with glideslope, you should select the NAV mode on the FCP?
A

False – Use APPR Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. When conducting a GA from an autopilot coupled approach, you must press the TOGA button and the AP disconnect button on the yoke to disconnect the AP?
A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Prior to using SPEED, V/S or PITCH mode to change altitude, what must first be done?
A

Selection of a new altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Pressing the ALT button on the FCP will?
A

Provide instantaneous capture of the pressure altitude at the time of engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. If the primary trim switches on the yoke are activated when the AP is engaged:
A

AP will disconnect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. When the AP XFR switch is selected to the copilot’s side, what happens?
A

Copilot’s flight control computer (FCC) commands both flight directors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What RPM range will the APU starter cutout?
A
  • Ground = 46%
  • In Flight = 46 – 60%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. What are the APU starter limits?
A

3 attempts in 1 hour with 2 minutes between each attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. What will the APU automatic fire protection provide inflight?
A

Automatic shutdown of the APU, but no automatic discharge of the bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Where does the fuel to operate the APU come from?
A

Left collector tank via a dedicated DC (DC BATT BUS) powered APU fuel pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Prior to APU start what should the minimum battery voltage be?
A

22V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. If the APU rotating above _____% in flight or _____% on the ground, the APU ECU will inhibit start.
A

12% and 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Max altitude for APU start?
A

FL370

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Max altitude for APU operation?
A

FL410

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction?
A

FL250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. The APU can be used as a source of bleed air for ice protection
A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. If the APU door is stuck open or its position is uncertain, what must be done?
A

Max Airspeed 220 knots or run APU continuously with no speed restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Describe the APU door
A
  • Ground -­‐ Door is closed at 0 degrees when off and open at 45 degrees when running
  • Flight – The door modulates between 0 and 45 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. The main priority of the APU is?
A

Electrical Power – 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 40kVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. APU bleed air is controlled by modulating the?
A

APU Load Control Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

COMMUNICATIONS

  1. What happens when the Captains NORM/EMER switch on the ACP is set to EMER?
A

Connects the Captains headset to VHF COM1 and VHF NAV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Steps to make a cabin announcement on the PA?
A
  • Press PA switchlight on interphone
  • Select transmit switch on ACP to PA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. With a failure of the Captains RTU, how can the VHF COMM and NAV frequencies be changed?
A

Either use the backup tuning unit, or press the RTU inhibit switchlight for the Captains RTU and use the 1/2 switch on FO’s RTU for cross side tuning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Which Radios are tuned with the backup tuning unit?
A

VHF COM1 and VHF NAV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Depressing the RTU inhibit switchlight does what?
A

Enables alternate cross side tuning of the radios of the failed RTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ELECTRICS

  1. What does the AC ESS XFER switchlight do when selected?
A

Transfers the AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. How can the DC SERVICE BUS be powered?
A
  • From DC BUS 2 during normal DC operation
  • Or from APU BAT DIR BUS through the DC SERVICE switch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. IF ESS TRU1 & 2 fail, how would the DC ESS BUS remain powered?
A

ESS TIE automatically closes and the CROSS TIE will power the DC BATT BUS and DC ESS BUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Purpose of the ESS TRU 2 TIE contactor?
A
  1. Purpose of the ESS TRU 2 TIE contactor?

Allows AC ESS BUS to power ESS TRU 2 incase:

  • Failure of both AC BUS 2 and ESS TRU 1 or
  • ADG power and ESS TRU 1 fails
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. ADG Powers?
A
  • AC ESS BUS
  • HYD 3B pump
  • ADG BUS
  • ­‐ HYD Pump 3B
  • ­‐ Stab Trim CH2
  • ­‐ Slats and Flaps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Items powered by the DC EMER BUS?
A
  • Engine and APU FIREX
  • FUEL and HYD SOVs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Voltage and Amp ratings for the batteries?
A

Main = 24V, 17A APU = 24V, 43A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. Number of TRUs and their ratings?
A

4 @ 28V, 120A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Normal power source for the AC ESS BUS?
A

AC BUS 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Priority of power for each AC BUS?
A
  • Onside GEN
  • APU GEN
  • Offside GEN
  • External Power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. What part of the IDG keeps the generator at a constant speed of 12,000 RPM?
A

Constant Speed Drive (CSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. Minimum airspeed required for proper operation of the ADG?
A

135 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. What does the AGD power?
A
  • AC ESS BUS
  • HYD 3B pump
  • ADG BUS
  • ­‐ HYD Pump 3B
  • ­‐ Stab Trim CH2
  • ­‐ Slats and Flaps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. What must you do to return the AC ESS BUS and ACMP 3B HYD pump to normal aircraft power once the ADG deploys?
A

Ensure ADG lever is stowed then press PWR XFER OVERRIDE button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. What will happen to the AC ESS BUS and 3B HYD pump after PWR XFER OVERRIDE when the aircraft generator power fails again?
A

Revert back to ADG power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. What Busses are powered with no AC power available and the BATT MASTER off?
A
  • MAIN BAT BUS
  • APU BAT BUS
  • DC EMER BUS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. What 2 conditions will result in an automatic disconnect of the IDG?
A
  • Over Temp
  • Over Torque
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. Cause of the FAULT light illumination on the IDG DISC switchlight?
A

• High Oil Temp (HOT) • Low Oil Pressure (LOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. If the pilot presses the IDG DISC switchlight, the generator can be regained by releasing the switchlight?
A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. How many attempts can be made to reset a failed generator?
A

1 per QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. What DC BUS is not normally displayed on the DC synoptic page?
A

DC EMER BUS – Displayed ONLY when not powered by both BATT BUS and APU BATT DIRECT BUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. What should happen if one of the engine generators fails in flight?
A

AUTO XFER relays will close and allow remaining generator(s) to power both AC systems (GAGE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. What does an illuminated FAIL light on the AUTO XFER switchlight indicate?
A

AUTO XFER was inhibited due to a FAULT on AC BUS 1 or 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. AC ESS ALTN illuminated switchlight indicates?
A

AC ESS BUS is being powered by AC BUS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL SYSTEM

  1. What bleed air systems can be used to supply the air conditioning packs?
A

External APU ENGINES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. What is the maximum altitude for single A/C pack operation?
A

FL310

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. What switch position allows conditioned air to cool the flight deck CRT displays?
A

STDBY on the DISPLAY/AVIONICS fan control panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. How are the avionics cooled?
A

Ambient under floor air or by the avionics exhaust fan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. What happens if the CPC microprocessor fails?
A

Oxygen masks will not drop automatically and seatbelt/no smoking signs will not automatically illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet, what will the CPAM do?
A

Oxygen system will auto deploy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. The “CABIN PRESSURE” aural warning will be heard when?
A

Cabin ALT exceeds 10,000’

Cabin differential exceeds 8.6 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. What does the flight abort mode of the pressurization system do?
A
  • Holds the departure airport elevation setting for 10 minutes after takeoff or
  • 6000 feet above takeoff field elevation; 1000 fpm descent activates it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. Where does the air from the engines used for pneumatics come from?
A

From the 6th and 10th stage bleed sections of the N2 compressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the check valve on the 6th stage bleed line?
A

Prevents back flow of 10th stage air into the engine when the HPV is open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. When does bleed air switching occur during landing?
A

Flaps are greater than 20 degrees or the landing gear is down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. With the bleed valve control in the manual mode, it is possible to provide APU air to the Wing Ice protection system.
A

False

– Wing bleed valves will close and BLEED MISCONFIG message will appear on EICAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. What happens to the water extracted from the conditioned air produced by the A/C packs?
A

It is ducted back into the ram airflow to help cool the heat exchangers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. On the ground, air exhausted from the cooling displays and the avionics area exits the aircraft through?
A

The ground valve and is vented overboard through the bulkhead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  1. Two safety valves in the aft bulkhead serve to?
A

Protect against both over pressurization and negative pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  1. If the automatic temperature control feature of an A/C pack malfunctions, what can the pilot do?
A
  • Select the MAN switchlight for that pack and
  • Control the temperature control valve with the HOT/COLD toggle switch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  1. How is the galley air heated?
A

1000 watt electric heater, controlled by the HEATER switchlight at the galley control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. Maximum positive and negative pressure differential?
A

+ 8.7 PSI -­‐ 0.5 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  1. What will happen if the active cabin pressure controller fails?
A

The standby controller will automatically take control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. The EMER DEPRESS switchlight will allow the
A

outflow to OPEN and the cabin will rise to 14,500 ± 500 ft It should not be selected at altitudes above 15,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. How would select the other auto pressure controller in flight? How would you select the Manual controller?
A
  • Press the PRESS CONT switchlight twice to change active controllers
  • Press it once to select the manual controller. NOTE: Auto switchover occurs 3 minutes after WOW
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. Illuminated FAULT light on the CABIN PRESS panel indicates? What would you do?
A

Failure of BOTH automatic pressure controllers Pilot should take over with MAN Controller per QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. A red CABIN ALT message indicates that
A

the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft. An amber CABIN ALT message indicates the cabin altitude is Between 8,500 and 1000 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  1. Cooling air for the air-­‐conditioning heat exchangers is provide by?
A

Ram Air Scoop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. What is 10th stage bleed air used for?
A

Augment the bleed air supply when 6th stage air cannot meet demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  • *FIRE AND OVERHEAT PROTECTION**
    1. What will the pilot see when conduction a fire system test?
A

7 RED lights

2 MASTER WARNING

APU FURE

L & R ENG FIRE

FWD & AFT CARGO

5 GREEN lights

2 ENG PUSH

APU PUSH

CARGO PUSH
and FIRE SYS OK Advisory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. Selection of AFT CARGO SMOKE Switchlight:
A
  • Arms both bottles to the aft bay
  • Closes both intake and exhaust valves
  • Turns off auxiliary heater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
  1. L/R ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight function:
A
  • Closes FUEL, BLEED and HYD SOVs
  • Trips affected IDG offline
  • ARMS squibs for bottles 1 & 2
  • Inhibits IGN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  1. The engine and APU areas are protected by 2
A

fire detection loops. Normally BOTH loops must detect a fire/overheat condition to produce the appropriate warning indication.

108
Q
  1. It is not allowable to dispatch with ONE fire detection loop INOP for a given area?
A

False, Consult MEL

109
Q
  1. What will happen if the APU detects a fire on the ground? In flight?
A

Ground – Shuts down APU and fires the bottle Flight – Shuts down APU but does not automatically fire the bottle

110
Q
  1. Number of smoke cargo detectors?
A
  • 3 FWD Cargo
  • 2 AFT Cargo
111
Q
  1. Function of the cargo fire protection switchlight?
A

2 Halon bottle dischargers

  • 1st rapid discharge
  • 2nd metered flow for 60 minutes
112
Q
  1. Warning associated with discharge of portable fire extinguisher in flight deck?
A

All flight crews must wear 02 masks at 100%

113
Q
  1. Lavatory FIREX bottle discharged by?
A

Automatic discharge via melting of a heat sensitive capsule

114
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

  1. Function of the roll disconnect handle?
A

• Separates lateral control

  • Frees unjammed aileron
  • Allows the Spoiler & Stabilizer Control Unit (SSCU) to maintain lateral control through the multifunction spoiler on jammed side
115
Q
  1. What are the VFE speeds for selected flap settings?
A

1, 8, 20 230 KIAS 30 185 KIAS 45 170 KIAS

116
Q
  1. If slat travel stops, flaps will continue to their selected position?
117
Q
  1. Function of the EMER FLAP switch?
A

Overrides flap control lever and extends flaps/slats to 20/20 (20/25 old planes)

118
Q
  1. If the ground spoilers fail to deploy, how else can they be deployed?
A

Place GLD switch to MAN ARM

119
Q
  1. Mach trim begins to operate at .4 Mach and is operable in both manual and autopilot flight operations?
A

False – Does not operate when AP is engaged (Mach Tuck protection for manual control)

120
Q
  1. If stab trim is active in the HIGH rate for more than 3 sec
A

a warning clacker will sound.

121
Q
  1. Pecking order for operation of stab trim?
A
  • Pilot
  • Co-­‐Pilot
  • AP • Auto Trim
  • Mach Trim
122
Q
  1. In the event of a runaway trim situation, the pilot should depress STAB TRIM switchlights on the center pedestal to disconnect trim?
A

False – Use TRIM DISC red button on top of control wheel

123
Q
  1. Where are the flap handle gates located?
A

8 FWD 20 AFT

124
Q
  1. When moving control wheel or rudder pedals, what makes respective flight control move?
A

Cables from control wheel to HYD PCU’s actuate respective flight control

125
Q
  1. In the event of a jammed aileron or elevator, how can the pilot regain control of the operable control surface?
A

Use PITCH or ROLL DISC handle on the center pedestal to separate the yokes and restore operation of the working control surface

126
Q
  1. Rudder limiter uses inputs from the FLAP/SLAT POSITION and AIRSPEED to provide
A

protection from overstress and prevent excessive sideslip at 4 – 33 Degrees.

127
Q
  1. What will happen if one of the motors that drives the flaps fail, or ONE channel of the SFECU fails?
A

They will operate in ½ speed and FLAPS HALF SPEED message will appear

128
Q
  1. Lowest altitude for flight spoilers?
A

300 ft AGL

129
Q
  1. EMER FLAPs will not DEPLOY above 230 KIAS?
130
Q
  1. Red AP DISC button on control wheel can accomplish what two functions?
A

Disconnect Autopilot Interrupt stick pusher if active

131
Q
  1. Stick pusher function of stall protection will work as long as at least one of the switches is on?
A

False – Both required

132
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

  1. Where are the reference speeds, MDA, DH an barometric altimeter settings entered?
A

Air Date Reference Panel

133
Q
  1. Pitot tubes P1 and P2 are pitot static tubes while pitot tube 3 is only a pitot tube?
134
Q
  1. AHRS initialization takes approximately how much time?
A

Ground 70 sec Flight 10 – 35 sec

135
Q
  1. Where is the slip indicator located?
A

Below roll pointer

136
Q
  1. When DME HOLD is selected, what is displayed/removed from view on the PFD?
A

Amber H replaces the green NM indication and the identifier for the VOR is removed

137
Q
  1. What does the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) in the upper left corner of the PFD display?
A

Currently active and armed FD status

138
Q
  1. On the ground, how long can the EFIS CRTs be operated without AC power?
A

5 min due to cooling

139
Q
  1. What should be observed when the RA test button is pressed?
A

50 feet is indicated and the rising runway indicator appears

140
Q
  1. What should be done to display TCAS information on the MFD?
A

Press TFC button on the DCP

141
Q
  1. What should the pilot do if their PFD display fails?
A

Select PFD on the MFD Display Reversionary Panel (DRP) to display information on the MFD

142
Q
  1. What should occur if the ED1 screen fails?
A

ED1 screen will appear on ED2 automatically

143
Q
  1. With the failure of ED2, or the failure and automatic transfer of ED1, what happens to the EICAS Control Panel (ECP)?
A

ECP operation is inhibited and the status and synoptic pages are removed. It can be regained by using the MFD Display Reversionary Panel or the Source Select Panel

144
Q
  1. If the only operative ED is displaying a status or synoptic page and a warning is generated by the DCU, what should occur?
A

Operable ED will revert to primary page and the WARNING message will be displayed

145
Q
  1. Color armed mode of Flight Director is shown by?
A

White on the PFD

146
Q
  1. Warning Messages that appear on ED1 will be accompanied by?
A

Red message on the CAS

147
Q
  1. Caution messages that appear on ED1 will be accompanied by:
A
  • Master Caution Flasher
  • Single Chime
  • Amber Message
148
Q
  1. Primary source of control of the MFD navigation formats, navigation sources and bearing sources display?
A

Display Control Panel

149
Q
  1. In the event of a Display Control Panel (DCP) failure, both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP if the proper selection is made on the?
A

Source Select Panel

150
Q

FUEL

  1. Which boost pump is activated if low fuel pressure is detected in left engine the fuel line?
151
Q
  1. How do you manually transfer fuel?
A
  • Select XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN
  • SELECT XFLOW switchlight on the low fuel side
152
Q
  1. Max fuel allowable fuel imbalance?
A

300 lbs – Takeoff 800 lbs – In Flight

153
Q
  1. What maintains fuel balance between the main tanks?
A

Automatically controlled by a Bi-­‐Directional XFLOW pump

154
Q
  1. Bi-­‐Directional XFLOW pump turns on and AUTO XFLOW begins when the fuel imbalance reaches?
155
Q
  1. How does center tank fuel arrive at the engines and APU?
A

Transfer Ejectors >>> Main Tanks

Scavenge Ejectors >>> Collector Tanks

Main Ejectors or Boost Pumps >>>> Engine/APU driven pumps

156
Q
  1. Powered crossflow can be used for T/O if desired, but gravity crossflow cannot?
A

False – Transfer of fuel on T/O is PROHINITED

157
Q
  1. When will the main tank fuel indications on ED2 and fuel synoptic page turn amber?
A
  • Either tank is less than 600 lbs
  • Total fuel is less than 1200 lbs
  • Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs
158
Q
  1. If the Bi-­‐Directional XFLOW pump fails to turn on when the fuel imbalance reaches 200 lbs, the pilot must select GRAVITY XFLOW to remedy the situation?
A

False – MAN XFLOW is first option

159
Q
  1. If there is a failure of motive flow, there is no way to get fuel into collector tanks?
A

False – Gravity Feed lines will keep the collector tanks full

160
Q
  1. Min fuel temperature at engine prior to T/O?
161
Q
  1. Min bulk fuel temperature range?
A

-­‐30 to -­‐40C

162
Q
  1. How are the fuel tanks vented?
A

2 NACA scoop vents on underside of wings

163
Q
  1. What is used to backup the main ejectors to supply fuel to the engines?
A

2 DC Electric Boost Pumps

164
Q
  1. What EICAS message will appear with a significant fuel imbalance?
A

FUEL IMBALANCE

165
Q

HYDRAULICS

  1. Normal hydraulic reservoir quantity?
A

45 – 85%

166
Q
  1. Hydraulic quantity readout is only valid when system is pressurized?
167
Q
  1. What Hydraulic Pumps are not controlled by Hydraulic Control Panel?
A

EDP 1 and EDP 2

168
Q
  1. HYD HI TEMP caution activated at what temperature?
A

above 96 Degrees Celsius

169
Q
  1. Where does HYD Pump 3B receive its power?
A

AC BUS 1 or ADG BUS

170
Q
  1. Problems encountered with HYD 2 LO PRESS message displayed along with loss of HYD SYS 3?
A
  • Nose gear will not extend (HYD 2 uplock)
  • Manual Extension and side slip maneuver may be required to achieve MLG down and locked
  • Nose Wheel Steering INOP
  • Brake Accumulator pressure only
171
Q
  1. How many hydraulic pumps on the CRJ-­‐700?
A

4 Electric

&

2 Engine Driven

172
Q
  1. How can the HYD SOV be closed to interrupt fluid to the EDP?
A

HYD SOV switchlight

&

ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight

173
Q
  1. How is the fluid for system 1 and 2 cooled?
A

Flight – Ram Air scoop directing air over a heat exchanger Ground – Electric Fan

174
Q
  1. With a “B” HYD pump in the AUTO position, what will cause the pump to operate?
A

Movement of the Flaps from the 0 position

175
Q

ICE AND RAIN

  1. How many wing anti ice schedules are there?
A

2,
­When the slats are extended the AILC schedules a higher temperature.

176
Q
  1. In the event of an engine failure, there will be no way to provide air to the respective wing for ice protection.
A

False – Cross bleed from the good engine

177
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for the operation of the windshield wipers?
178
Q
  1. If ice is detected on one of the ice detector probes, the respective ice protection systems will automatically be activated.
179
Q
  1. When are the probes automatically heated?
A

When one engine is started and its generator comes on line

180
Q
  1. What will be seen on the N2 gauges when the wing anti ice system is activated?
A

The arc will turn white up to 77% to indicate power setting that may be required for adequate ice protection

181
Q
  1. What happens if a Cowl Anti Icing duct ruptures?
A

The escaping pressurized bleed air is contained inside the outer duct

182
Q
  1. If the pilot selects the HI position of the windshield heat switch, additional heat will be applied to all four aircraft cockpit windows.
A

FALSE – Only the windshields (front) are heated at the higher level

183
Q
  1. The FAST position of the window wipers will always override any other position selected.
A

FALSE – The last position selected by either pilot will control both wipers

184
Q
  1. What occurs when the wing anti‐icing switch is selected ON?
A

The modulating SOVs will vary their position based on commands from the dual-­‐channel AILC computer, and will maintain a hotter temperature schedule if the slats are extended

185
Q
  • *EICAS**
    1. How can the Status Page be displayed if ED1 fails?
A
  • Select MFD Display Reversionary Panel to EICAS, or
  • Select EICAS selector on Source Select Panel to EICAS
186
Q
  1. If one of the DCU disable switchlights is pressed:

(on Audio Warning Panel)

A

all voice messages will be inhibited except:
EGPWS / TCAS

187
Q
  1. In the event of power failure of the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), what buttons will still be operational?
A

PRI STAT

CAS STEP

188
Q
  1. When can Caution Messages be paged and boxed?
A
  • Paged on ground with engines shutdown
  • Boxed with both engines at stabilized idle and boxing in flight is a function of WOW
189
Q
  1. What EICAS messages cannot be paged?
A

Warnings (RED)

Advisories (GREEN)

190
Q
  1. What EICAS messages cannot be removed from viewing by boxing?
A

Warnings (RED)

Advisories (GREEN)

191
Q
  1. If a red Master Warning is generated on ED1, what other indications will / may accompany it?
A
  • Master Warning Flasher
  • Triple Chime
  • Possible aural warning depending on the cause of the alert
192
Q

LANDING GEAR

  1. Which hydraulic systems must be powered when checking the brake wear indicators?
A

Systems 2 & 3 with the parking brake set

193
Q
  1. Which hydraulic system(s) power the landing gear?
194
Q
  1. Which hydraulic systems can be used to assist manual landing gear extension if the main system fails?
A

System 2

to assist

195
Q
  1. What effect will the loss of both the #2 and #3 hydraulic system have on the landing gear?
A
  • Main Gear will free fall but Nose Gear will NOT
  • No retraction
196
Q
  1. In the event of a #2 and #3 hydraulic system failure, what emergency braking is available?
A

Brake accumulators in both systems should provide reserve pressure for six applications with the anti skid OFF

197
Q
  1. How is the Anti-­‐Skid test performed?
A
  • Self test feature
  • Also tested during “Originating Check” by cycling the Anti-­‐Skid switch
198
Q
  1. What should you do if you are unable to raise the gear handle after takeoff?
A

• Flight Safety Answer: Use the DN LCK REL button next to the gear handle to release the down-­‐ lock mechanism• Real World: Leave them hang and land

199
Q
  1. What effect will the loss of either the #2 or #3 hydraulic system have on braking capability?
A

Anti-­‐skid braking will be available from the remaining system, with a 50% loss of stopping capability

200
Q
  1. Locked wheel protection is provided by the anti-­‐skid system upon landing. When will the system allow braking to occur?
A

Wheel spin up speed reaches 35 kts or 5 seconds after WOW signal is present

201
Q
  1. When the parking brake is set and hydraulic systems are deactivated, what effect does it have?
A

Pressure will bleed off in the #2 system

but

will be maintained from the #3 system brake accumulators because of a parking brake shutoff valve

202
Q
  1. After an overheated brake is cooled in flight by lowering the gear, how can the pilot reset the BTMS indicating system?
A

Press the BTMS OVHT WARN RESET button on the landing gear panel

203
Q
  1. With the same indications of an overheated brake on the ground, what should you do?
A

Do not reset the BTMS system until maintenance has had a chance to inspect the brake

204
Q
  1. Nosewheel steering system allows:
A

Rudder Pedals 8°

Tiller 80°

205
Q
  1. With a failure of the nosewheel steering system, the nosewheel will go into:
A

Free Castering Mode

206
Q
  1. Bumping or moving the nosewheel tiller after landing gear extension will interfere with a system test and cause the nosewheel steering to be:
A

Inoperative upon landing with no advance warning

207
Q
  • *AIRCRAFT LIGHTING**
    1. When the seat belt switch is in AUTO, under what conditions do the seatbelt signs automatically illuminate?
A
  • Cabin Altitude > 10,000 ft
  • Landing gear extended • Flaps > 0
208
Q
  1. If the main wing tip navigation light bulb fails, how do you switch to the secondary bulb?
A

System will do it automatically

209
Q
  1. Taxi/recognition lights should be turned OFF if the aircraft is stopped for more than:
210
Q
  1. Taxi/recognition light will come on, regardless of its switch position if:
A

Respective wing landing light is turned on

211
Q
  1. Emergency lighting system will operate off its dedicated batteries for up to:
212
Q
  1. With the cockpit switch in the ARM position, the emergency lighting system activates if there is a loss of power to:
A

• AC ESS BUS

or

• DC ESS BUS

213
Q

NAVIGATION

  1. Where is the Radar Information Line displayed?
A

Top of the MFD

214
Q
  1. Individual satellites can be deselected from use by entering the identifier for the satellite on the FMS GPS control page?
215
Q
  1. During a wind shear warning, you should increase pitch up to the Pitch Limit Marker?
A

False,

we should follow the
flight director command bars

216
Q
  1. Flight director will provide windshear escape guidance during both a windshear caution or a windshear warning from the EGPWS system?
A

False – Only a warning

217
Q
  1. If DME Hold is selected, you will not be able to use the VOR course information for ILS or VOR tracking if you select another frequency?
218
Q
  1. How many ways can you change the setting of VHF NAV 1?
A
  • RTU
  • Backup Tuning Unit
  • Radio Page on the FMS
219
Q
  1. During a GPS approach, what allows you to continue the approach to the missed approach point?
A

When GPS APPR appears at the bottom of the NAV source info block on the PFD

220
Q
  1. What will happen to the bearing pointer display on the MFD if there is a signal loss?
A

Respective pointer will be removed from view

221
Q

OXYGEN and EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

  1. Minimum oxygen for dispatch? (CRJ 700)
A

2 Crew – 810 PSI
3 Crew – 1110 PSI

222
Q
  1. When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?
A

14,000 ft CABIN ALT

223
Q
  1. How many minutes of oxygen will the passenger oxygen generators provide?
224
Q
  1. Warning associated with the oxygen generators?
A
  • Produce intense heat in excess of 500 C
  • Do not touch or attempt to remove the generator
225
Q
  1. What side of aircraft are the overboard discharge indicator and the oxygen servicing panel located?
A

Blowout Disk = Left

Service Panel = Right

226
Q
  1. The crew oxygen system will supply 100% oxygen at an altitude of
A

30,000 ft

regardless

of the setting.

227
Q

PNEUMATICS

  1. What is the purpose of the Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)?
A

Controls bleed valves

and

bleed distribution by monitoring duct:

• Pressure

  • Position
  • ESC and Anti – Ice valve position
228
Q
  1. Which bleed valves fail in the closed position?
A
  • ENG PRSOV
  • APU LCV
  • ENG HP Bleed Valve
229
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
A

Allows air from any source to supply both sides of the manifold

230
Q
  1. What type of engine air bleed valves are installed on the CRJ-­‐700?
A

ACDC controlled PRSOVs

231
Q
  1. After takeoff (no anti-­‐icing required), what causes the bleeds to transfer from the APU to the engines?
A

Thrust levers retarded from TOGA with gear up and flaps 20 or less

232
Q
  1. When the High Pressure Bleed valve on the 10th stage is providing air, what effect does this have on the 6th stage?
A

6th stage air will be blocked by closure of the 1 – way check valve preventing 10th stage air from backing up in the N2 compressor

233
Q
  1. It is not possible to use APU air in the wing anti-­‐ice system with the Pneumatic system in AUTO, but it can be done with manual control of the bleed air system?
A

FALSE -­‐ NEVER

234
Q
  1. The PRSOVs on each engine should limit the pressure in the pneumatic system to:
A

45 ± 3 PSI

235
Q
  1. With a loss of control power, the HPV, PRSOV and APU LCV will:
A

Fail in the closed position

236
Q
  1. The wing ISOL Valve switch and BLEED AIR SOURCE selector will only have an effect if:
A

Bleed air valves control selector is placed in MANUAL position

237
Q
  1. During engine start, the pilot must select OFF with the A/C packs and open the ISOL valve?
A

False – Proper operation will be automatically controlled by the ASCS computers

238
Q
  1. The wing anti-­‐ice cross bleed selector will allow one engine to be selected even with the bleed valves control selector in AUTO?
239
Q

POWERPLANT

  1. When does engine synchronization occur?
A

N1 1.5%

N2 2.5%

With LEFT EGINE as master

240
Q
  1. What is the engine ignition powered by?
A

IGN A = AC ESS BUS

IGN B = BATT BUS through a Static Inverter

241
Q
  1. What are the FADECs powered by?
A

Below 50% N2 ……… DC Electrics

Above 50% N2 ……….. FADEC Alternator

242
Q
  1. What is the minimum bleed air pressure for engine start?
A

40 PSI

minimum bleed air pressure for engine start

243
Q
  1. What is the minimum oil temperature for start on the ground?
244
Q
  1. Normal and APR Thrust Rating of the CF34-­‐8C5B1?
A

Normal 12,670 lbs

APR 13,790 lbs

245
Q
  1. Bypass air from the N1 Fan produces approximately
A

80% of the engine thrust

246
Q
  1. Fuel pressure from the fuel metering unit is used by FADEC to operate:
A
  • VG Guide Vanes of the N2 compressor
  • Operability Valve
247
Q
  1. During start, the thrust lever should be moved from shutoff at?
A

20% N2,

ITT below 120C

248
Q
  1. Starter disengagement should occur at?
A

50% N2

Starter disengagement

249
Q
  1. Continuous ignition must be on if:
A
  • T/O or Landing on contaminated runways
  • Moderate or greater turbulence
  • Moderate or greater rainfall
  • Vicinity of thunderstorms
250
Q
  1. What will happen if both sources of power to FADEC fail?
A

The engine will shutdown

251
Q
  1. The two channels of each FADEC will never make a simultaneous input to the engine except?
A

Engine overspeed condition

252
Q
  1. With an engine failure, FADEC will schedule One engine Out (OEO) power as follows:
A

TOGA >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> APR

CLIMB >>>>>>>>> MCT

CRUISE >>>> Proportional

253
Q
  1. Oil filter bypass or oil chip detection will be presented to the pilot on the EICAS system.
A

False – only indicated in AFT EQIP BAY

254
Q
  1. Gauges are available to alert the pilot to vibration exceedances in both the N1 and N2 sections of each engine.
A

False

VIB gauges only for N1.
VIB icon will appear inside N2 gauge

255
Q
  1. How many different idle power settings are available from FADEC?
A
  1. Flight idle
  2. Approach idle
  3. Landing idle
  4. Ground idle
  5. Reverse idle
256
Q
  1. How is engine oil temperature kept under control?
A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

257
Q
  1. In the event of FADEC failure, the other engine FADEC can provide fuel control of both engines?
258
Q
  1. One Engine Out (OEO) fuel scheduling from FADEC will occur when the N1 speed difference between the engines exceeds:
259
Q
  1. How will you know that APR power is being scheduled by FADEC?
A

Green APR icon

will appear

inside N1 gauge

260
Q
  1. What will selection of the High Power schedule switchlight do?
A

MCT power on both engines, HOWEVER use is PROHIBITED

261
Q
  1. FADEC continues to update its power calculation during takeoff up to
A

65 kts.

It locks in this setting until 400 AGL

262
Q
  1. Starter assisted N2 limit?
263
Q
  1. Engine cross bleed starts are accomplished using:
A

Bleed air from the other operating engine

264
Q
  1. What occurs during a thrust reverser deployment in flight?
A

FADEC will schedule IDLE trust on the engine but the thrust lever will not move

265
Q

WATER and WASTE

  1. Primary source for the potable/wash water system (PWS)?
A

Bleed air regulated at 30 PSI

266
Q
  1. Drain mast are heated whenever 115VAC power is applied to the controller regardless of the controller ON/OFF state?

GoJet SOP (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions