Flight Safety Sample Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What does the AFM state as the minimum air temperature in flight?
A
70 C
2
Q
What is turbulence penetration speed?
A
280 KIAS/ .75 Mach (Whichever is less)
3
Q
Max tailwind component? 10 Kts
A
10 Kts
4
Q
Minimum pavement for a 180° turn? CRJ 700
A
75 ft
5
Q
Door Support Cables must be installed when moving the aircraft with the door open or when the aircraft is on jacks?
A
True
6
Q
All open doors on the EICAS synoptic page will be displayed in amber?
A
False – Main cabin door is RED
7
Q
- What doors are NOT monitored by the EICAS system?
A
Crew escape hatch and aft equipment bay
8
Q
- Max weight on the cabin air-‐stair door?
A
1000 lbs or 4 passengers
9
Q
What provides electrical power for the CRJ-‐700
A
- Engine IDG (2) -‐ 115 VAC, 400 HZ, 40 kVA
- APU IDG -‐ 115 VAC, 400 HZ, 40 kVA
- ADG – 115V, 400 HZ, 15kVA
- Main Battery – 24V, 17 amp
- APU Battery – 24V, 43 amp
- TRU (4) 28 VDC, 120 amp
10
Q
- Max Ramp weight
A
75,250
11
Q
- Max Takeoff weight?
A
75,000
12
Q
- Max Landing weight?
A
67,000
13
Q
- Max ZFW?
A
62,300
14
Q
- Max pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
A
8000 ft
15
Q
- Max operating altitude?
A
41,000 ft
16
Q
- Max ambient temperature for takeoff and landing?
A
ISA +35C
17
Q
- Min ambient temperature for takeoff and landing?
A
-‐40C
18
Q
- OXY LO PRESS caution will illuminate on the EICAS primary page at?
A
960 PSI
19
Q
- With the oxygen selector in the normal position, the regulator will supply 100% above what altitude?
A
30,000 ft Cabin Altitude
20
Q
AUTO FLIGHT
- What altitude does the AFCS automatically select Half Bank mode in flight?
A
31,600 ft
21
Q
- Half Bank mode is not available in TOGA mode?
A
True
22
Q
- What is the SPEED pushbutton used for?
A
Engage the CLB or DES mode
23
Q
- Pressing either TOGA switch on the thrust lever does what when airborne?
A
Engages the GA mode of the FD and commands a 10 degree pitch command and heading hold
24
Q
- Back course localizer approaches should be flown with the NAV button selected?
A
False – Use B/C mode
25
6. What does Half Bank Mode provide?
Max bank command of 15 degrees
26
7. When is Half Bank Mode inhibited?
* TO Mode
* GA Mode
* Onside approach mode capture
* Any onside localizer capture
27
8. In the pitch mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click will provide how much pitch change?
½ degree
28
9. Pressing either GA switch on the thrust lever will?
Disconnect the AP and engage the GA for FD guidance
29
10. In V/S mode, rotating the pitch wheel one click provides how much change in V/S?
100 ft
30
11. To fly a full ILS approach with glideslope, you should select the NAV mode on the FCP?
False – Use APPR Mode
31
12. When conducting a GA from an autopilot coupled approach, you must press the TOGA button and the AP disconnect button on the yoke to disconnect the AP?
False
32
13. Prior to using SPEED, V/S or PITCH mode to change altitude, what must first be done?
Selection of a new altitude
33
14. Pressing the ALT button on the FCP will?
Provide instantaneous capture of the pressure altitude at the time of engagement
34
15. If the primary trim switches on the yoke are activated when the AP is engaged:
AP will disconnect
35
16. When the AP XFR switch is selected to the copilot’s side, what happens?
Copilot’s flight control computer (FCC) commands both flight directors
36
1. What RPM range will the APU starter cutout?
* Ground = 46%
* In Flight = 46 – 60%
37
2. What are the APU starter limits?
3 attempts in 1 hour with 2 minutes between each attempt
38
3. What will the APU automatic fire protection provide inflight?
Automatic shutdown of the APU, but no automatic discharge of the bottle
39
4. Where does the fuel to operate the APU come from?
Left collector tank via a dedicated DC (DC BATT BUS) powered APU fuel pump
40
5. Prior to APU start what should the minimum battery voltage be?
22V
41
6. If the APU rotating above \_\_\_\_\_% in flight or \_\_\_\_\_% on the ground, the APU ECU will inhibit start.
12% and 5%
42
7. Max altitude for APU start?
FL370
43
8. Max altitude for APU operation?
FL410
44
9. Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction?
FL250
45
10. The APU can be used as a source of bleed air for ice protection
False
46
11. If the APU door is stuck open or its position is uncertain, what must be done?
Max Airspeed 220 knots or run APU continuously with no speed restrictions
47
12. Describe the APU door
* Ground -‐ Door is closed at 0 degrees when off and open at 45 degrees when running
* Flight – The door modulates between 0 and 45 degrees
48
13. The main priority of the APU is?
Electrical Power – 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 40kVA
49
14. APU bleed air is controlled by modulating the?
APU Load Control Valve
50
COMMUNICATIONS
1. What happens when the Captains NORM/EMER switch on the ACP is set to EMER?
Connects the Captains headset to VHF COM1 and VHF NAV1
51
2. Steps to make a cabin announcement on the PA?
* Press PA switchlight on interphone
* Select transmit switch on ACP to PA
52
3. With a failure of the Captains RTU, how can the VHF COMM and NAV frequencies be changed?
Either use the backup tuning unit, or press the RTU inhibit switchlight for the Captains RTU and use the 1/2 switch on FO’s RTU for cross side tuning
53
4. Which Radios are tuned with the backup tuning unit?
VHF COM1 and VHF NAV1
54
5. Depressing the RTU inhibit switchlight does what?
Enables alternate cross side tuning of the radios of the failed RTU
55
ELECTRICS
1. What does the AC ESS XFER switchlight do when selected?
Transfers the AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 2
56
2. How can the DC SERVICE BUS be powered?
* From DC BUS 2 during normal DC operation
* Or from APU BAT DIR BUS through the DC SERVICE switch
57
3. IF ESS TRU1 & 2 fail, how would the DC ESS BUS remain powered?
ESS TIE automatically closes and the CROSS TIE will power the DC BATT BUS and DC ESS BUS
58
4. Purpose of the ESS TRU 2 TIE contactor?
4. Purpose of the ESS TRU 2 TIE contactor?
Allows AC ESS BUS to power ESS TRU 2 incase:
* Failure of both AC BUS 2 and ESS TRU 1 or
* ADG power and ESS TRU 1 fails
59
5. ADG Powers?
* AC ESS BUS
* HYD 3B pump
* ADG BUS
- ‐ HYD Pump 3B
- ‐ Stab Trim CH2
- ‐ Slats and Flaps
60
6. Items powered by the DC EMER BUS?
* Engine and APU FIREX
* FUEL and HYD SOVs
61
7. Voltage and Amp ratings for the batteries?
Main = 24V, 17A APU = 24V, 43A
62
8. Number of TRUs and their ratings?
4 @ 28V, 120A
63
9. Normal power source for the AC ESS BUS?
AC BUS 1
64
10. Priority of power for each AC BUS?
* Onside GEN
* APU GEN
* Offside GEN
* External Power
65
11. What part of the IDG keeps the generator at a constant speed of 12,000 RPM?
Constant Speed Drive (CSD)
66
12. Minimum airspeed required for proper operation of the ADG?
135 KIAS
67
13. What does the AGD power?
* AC ESS BUS
* HYD 3B pump
* ADG BUS
- ‐ HYD Pump 3B
- ‐ Stab Trim CH2
- ‐ Slats and Flaps
68
14. What must you do to return the AC ESS BUS and ACMP 3B HYD pump to normal aircraft power once the ADG deploys?
Ensure ADG lever is stowed then press PWR XFER OVERRIDE button
69
15. What will happen to the AC ESS BUS and 3B HYD pump after PWR XFER OVERRIDE when the aircraft generator power fails again?
Revert back to ADG power
70
16. What Busses are powered with no AC power available and the BATT MASTER off?
* MAIN BAT BUS
* APU BAT BUS
* DC EMER BUS
71
17. What 2 conditions will result in an automatic disconnect of the IDG?
* Over Temp
* Over Torque
72
18. Cause of the FAULT light illumination on the IDG DISC switchlight?
• High Oil Temp (HOT) • Low Oil Pressure (LOP)
73
19. If the pilot presses the IDG DISC switchlight, the generator can be regained by releasing the switchlight?
False
74
20. How many attempts can be made to reset a failed generator?
1 per QRH
75
21. What DC BUS is not normally displayed on the DC synoptic page?
DC EMER BUS – Displayed ONLY when not powered by both BATT BUS and APU BATT DIRECT BUS
76
22. What should happen if one of the engine generators fails in flight?
AUTO XFER relays will close and allow remaining generator(s) to power both AC systems (GAGE)
77
23. What does an illuminated FAIL light on the AUTO XFER switchlight indicate?
AUTO XFER was inhibited due to a FAULT on AC BUS 1 or 2
78
24. AC ESS ALTN illuminated switchlight indicates?
AC ESS BUS is being powered by AC BUS 2
79
ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL SYSTEM
1. What bleed air systems can be used to supply the air conditioning packs?
External APU ENGINES
80
2. What is the maximum altitude for single A/C pack operation?
FL310
81
3. What switch position allows conditioned air to cool the flight deck CRT displays?
STDBY on the DISPLAY/AVIONICS fan control panel.
82
4. How are the avionics cooled?
Ambient under floor air or by the avionics exhaust fan
83
5. What happens if the CPC microprocessor fails?
Oxygen masks will not drop automatically and seatbelt/no smoking signs will not automatically illuminate
84
6. If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet, what will the CPAM do?
Oxygen system will auto deploy
85
7. The “CABIN PRESSURE” aural warning will be heard when?
Cabin ALT exceeds 10,000’
Cabin differential exceeds 8.6 PSI
86
8. What does the flight abort mode of the pressurization system do?
* Holds the departure airport elevation setting for 10 minutes after takeoff or
* 6000 feet above takeoff field elevation; 1000 fpm descent activates it
87
9. Where does the air from the engines used for pneumatics come from?
From the 6th and 10th stage bleed sections of the N2 compressor
88
10. What is the purpose of the check valve on the 6th stage bleed line?
Prevents back flow of 10th stage air into the engine when the HPV is open.
89
11. When does bleed air switching occur during landing?
Flaps are greater than 20 degrees or the landing gear is down
90
12. With the bleed valve control in the manual mode, it is possible to provide APU air to the Wing Ice protection system.
False
– Wing bleed valves will close and BLEED MISCONFIG message will appear on EICAS
91
13. What happens to the water extracted from the conditioned air produced by the A/C packs?
It is ducted back into the ram airflow to help cool the heat exchangers
92
14. On the ground, air exhausted from the cooling displays and the avionics area exits the aircraft through?
The ground valve and is vented overboard through the bulkhead
93
15. Two safety valves in the aft bulkhead serve to?
Protect against both over pressurization and negative pressure
94
16. If the automatic temperature control feature of an A/C pack malfunctions, what can the pilot do?
* Select the MAN switchlight for that pack and
* Control the temperature control valve with the HOT/COLD toggle switch
95
17. How is the galley air heated?
1000 watt electric heater, controlled by the HEATER switchlight at the galley control panel
96
18. Maximum positive and negative pressure differential?
+ 8.7 PSI -‐ 0.5 PSI
97
19. What will happen if the active cabin pressure controller fails?
The standby controller will automatically take control
98
20. The EMER DEPRESS switchlight will allow the
outflow to OPEN and the cabin will rise to **14,500 ± 500** ft It should **not** be selected at altitudes above **15,000**
99
21. How would select the other auto pressure controller in flight? How would you select the Manual controller?
* Press the PRESS CONT switchlight twice to change active controllers
* Press it once to select the manual controller. NOTE: Auto switchover occurs 3 minutes after WOW
100
22. Illuminated FAULT light on the CABIN PRESS panel indicates? What would you do?
Failure of BOTH automatic pressure controllers Pilot should take over with MAN Controller per QRH
101
23. A red **CABIN ALT** message indicates that
the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft. An amber CABIN ALT message indicates the cabin altitude is Between 8,500 and 1000 ft.
102
24. Cooling air for the air-‐conditioning heat exchangers is provide by?
Ram Air Scoop
103
25. What is 10th stage bleed air used for?
Augment the bleed air supply when 6th stage air cannot meet demands
104
* *FIRE AND OVERHEAT PROTECTION**
1. What will the pilot see when conduction a fire system test?
**7 RED lights**
2 MASTER WARNING
APU FURE
L & R ENG FIRE
FWD & AFT CARGO
**5 GREEN lights**
2 ENG PUSH
APU PUSH
CARGO PUSH
and **FIRE SYS OK Advisory**
105
2. Selection of AFT CARGO SMOKE Switchlight:
* Arms both bottles to the aft bay
* Closes both intake and exhaust valves
* Turns off auxiliary heater
106
3. L/R ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight function:
* Closes FUEL, BLEED and HYD SOVs
* Trips affected IDG offline
* ARMS squibs for bottles 1 & 2
* Inhibits IGN
107
4. The engine and APU areas are protected by 2
fire detection loops. Normally BOTH loops must detect a fire/overheat condition to produce the appropriate warning indication.
108
5. It is not allowable to dispatch with ONE fire detection loop INOP for a given area?
False, Consult MEL
109
6. What will happen if the APU detects a fire on the ground? In flight?
Ground – Shuts down APU and fires the bottle Flight – Shuts down APU but does not automatically fire the bottle
110
7. Number of smoke cargo detectors?
* 3 FWD Cargo
* 2 AFT Cargo
111
8. Function of the cargo fire protection switchlight?
2 Halon bottle dischargers
* 1st rapid discharge
* 2nd metered flow for 60 minutes
112
9. Warning associated with discharge of portable fire extinguisher in flight deck?
All flight crews must wear 02 masks at 100%
113
10. Lavatory FIREX bottle discharged by?
Automatic discharge via melting of a heat sensitive capsule
114
**FLIGHT CONTROLS**
1. Function of the roll disconnect handle?
• Separates lateral control
* Frees unjammed aileron
* Allows the Spoiler & Stabilizer Control Unit (SSCU) to maintain lateral control through the multifunction spoiler on jammed side
115
2. What are the VFE speeds for selected flap settings?
1, 8, 20 230 KIAS 30 185 KIAS 45 170 KIAS
116
3. If slat travel stops, flaps will continue to their selected position?
True
117
4. Function of the EMER FLAP switch?
Overrides flap control lever and extends flaps/slats to 20/20 (20/25 old planes)
118
5. If the ground spoilers fail to deploy, how else can they be deployed?
Place GLD switch to MAN ARM
119
6. Mach trim begins to operate at .4 Mach and is operable in both manual and autopilot flight operations?
False – Does not operate when AP is engaged (Mach Tuck protection for manual control)
120
7. If stab trim is active in the HIGH rate for more than 3 sec
a warning clacker will sound.
121
8. Pecking order for operation of stab trim?
* Pilot
* Co-‐Pilot
* AP • Auto Trim
* Mach Trim
122
9. In the event of a runaway trim situation, the pilot should depress STAB TRIM switchlights on the center pedestal to disconnect trim?
False – Use TRIM DISC red button on top of control wheel
123
10. Where are the flap handle gates located?
8 FWD 20 AFT
124
11. When moving control wheel or rudder pedals, what makes respective flight control move?
Cables from control wheel to HYD PCU’s actuate respective flight control
125
12. In the event of a jammed aileron or elevator, how can the pilot regain control of the operable control surface?
Use PITCH or ROLL DISC handle on the center pedestal to separate the yokes and restore operation of the working control surface
126
13. Rudder limiter uses inputs from the **FLAP/SLAT POSITION** and **AIRSPEED** to provide
protection from overstress and prevent excessive sideslip at **4 – 33 Degrees.**
127
14. What will happen if one of the motors that drives the flaps fail, or ONE channel of the SFECU fails?
They will operate in ½ speed and FLAPS HALF SPEED message will appear
128
15. Lowest altitude for flight spoilers?
300 ft AGL
129
16. EMER FLAPs will not DEPLOY above 230 KIAS?
True
130
17. Red AP DISC button on control wheel can accomplish what two functions?
Disconnect Autopilot Interrupt stick pusher if active
131
18. Stick pusher function of stall protection will work as long as at least one of the switches is on?
False – Both required
132
**FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS**
1. Where are the reference speeds, MDA, DH an barometric altimeter settings entered?
**Air Date Reference Panel**
133
2. Pitot tubes P1 and P2 are pitot static tubes while pitot tube 3 is only a pitot tube?
True
134
3. AHRS initialization takes approximately how much time?
Ground 70 sec Flight 10 – 35 sec
135
4. Where is the slip indicator located?
Below roll pointer
136
5. When DME HOLD is selected, what is displayed/removed from view on the PFD?
Amber H replaces the green NM indication and the identifier for the VOR is removed
137
6. What does the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) in the upper left corner of the PFD display?
Currently active and armed FD status
138
7. On the ground, how long can the EFIS CRTs be operated without AC power?
5 min due to cooling
139
8. What should be observed when the RA test button is pressed?
50 feet is indicated and the rising runway indicator appears
140
9. What should be done to display TCAS information on the MFD?
Press TFC button on the DCP
141
10. What should the pilot do if their PFD display fails?
Select PFD on the MFD Display Reversionary Panel (DRP) to display information on the MFD
142
11. What should occur if the ED1 screen fails?
ED1 screen will appear on ED2 automatically
143
12. With the failure of ED2, or the failure and automatic transfer of ED1, what happens to the EICAS Control Panel (ECP)?
ECP operation is inhibited and the status and synoptic pages are removed. It can be regained by using the MFD Display Reversionary Panel or the Source Select Panel
144
13. If the only operative ED is displaying a status or synoptic page and a warning is generated by the DCU, what should occur?
Operable ED will revert to primary page and the WARNING message will be displayed
145
14. Color armed mode of Flight Director is shown by?
White on the PFD
146
15. Warning Messages that appear on ED1 will be accompanied by?
Red message on the CAS
147
16. Caution messages that appear on ED1 will be accompanied by:
* Master Caution Flasher
* Single Chime
* Amber Message
148
17. Primary source of control of the MFD navigation formats, navigation sources and bearing sources display?
Display Control Panel
149
18. In the event of a Display Control Panel (DCP) failure, both MFDs can be controlled by one DCP if the proper selection is made on the?
Source Select Panel
150
**FUEL**
1. Which boost pump is activated if low fuel pressure is detected in left engine the fuel line?
Both
151
2. How do you manually transfer fuel?
* Select XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN
* SELECT XFLOW switchlight on the low fuel side
152
3. Max fuel allowable fuel imbalance?
300 lbs – Takeoff 800 lbs – In Flight
153
4. What maintains fuel balance between the main tanks?
Automatically controlled by a Bi-‐Directional XFLOW pump
154
5. Bi-‐Directional XFLOW pump turns on and AUTO XFLOW begins when the fuel imbalance reaches?
200 lbs
155
6. How does center tank fuel arrive at the engines and APU?
Transfer Ejectors \>\>\> Main Tanks
Scavenge Ejectors \>\>\> Collector Tanks
Main Ejectors or Boost Pumps \>\>\>\> Engine/APU driven pumps
156
7. Powered crossflow can be used for T/O if desired, but gravity crossflow cannot?
False – Transfer of fuel on T/O is PROHINITED
157
8. When will the main tank fuel indications on ED2 and fuel synoptic page turn amber?
* Either tank is less than 600 lbs
* Total fuel is less than 1200 lbs
* Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs
158
9. If the Bi-‐Directional XFLOW pump fails to turn on when the fuel imbalance reaches 200 lbs, the pilot must select GRAVITY XFLOW to remedy the situation?
False – MAN XFLOW is first option
159
10. If there is a failure of motive flow, there is no way to get fuel into collector tanks?
False – Gravity Feed lines will keep the collector tanks full
160
11. Min fuel temperature at engine prior to T/O?
5C
161
12. Min bulk fuel temperature range?
-‐30 to -‐40C
162
13. How are the fuel tanks vented?
2 NACA scoop vents on underside of wings
163
14. What is used to backup the main ejectors to supply fuel to the engines?
2 DC Electric Boost Pumps
164
15. What EICAS message will appear with a significant fuel imbalance?
FUEL IMBALANCE
165
**HYDRAULICS**
1. Normal hydraulic reservoir quantity?
45 – 85%
166
2. Hydraulic quantity readout is only valid when system is pressurized?
**True**
167
3. What Hydraulic Pumps are **not controlled** by **Hydraulic Control Panel?**
**EDP 1** and **EDP 2**
168
4. **HYD HI TEMP** caution activated at what temperature?
_above_ **96** Degrees Celsius
169
5. Where does **HYD Pump 3B** receive its power?
**AC BUS 1** or **ADG BUS**
170
6. Problems encountered with **HYD 2 LO PRESS** message displayed along with loss of **HYD SYS 3**?
* Nose gear will not extend (HYD 2 uplock)
* Manual Extension and side slip maneuver may be required to achieve MLG down and locked
* Nose Wheel Steering INOP
* Brake Accumulator pressure only
171
7. How many **hydraulic pumps** on the CRJ-‐700?
**4** Electric
&
**2** Engine Driven
172
8. How can the HYD SOV be closed to interrupt fluid to the EDP?
**HYD SOV** switchlight
&
**ENG FIRE PUSH** switchlight
173
9. How is the fluid for system 1 and 2 cooled?
**Flight** – **Ram Air** scoop directing air over a **_heat exchanger_ Ground** – **Electric Fan**
174
10. With a “**B**” **HYD** **pump** in the **AUTO** position, what will cause the pump to _operate_?
Movement of the **Flaps** from the **0** position
175
**ICE AND RAIN**
1. How many wing anti ice schedules are there?
**2,**
When the slats are extended the **AILC** schedules a **higher temperature**.
176
2. In the event of an engine failure, there will be no way to provide air to the respective wing for ice protection.
False – Cross bleed from the good engine
177
3. What is the maximum speed for the operation of the windshield wipers?
250 KIAS
178
4. If ice is detected on one of the ice detector probes, the respective ice protection systems will automatically be activated.
False
179
5. When are the probes automatically heated?
When one engine is started and its generator comes on line
180
6. What will be seen on the N2 gauges when the wing anti ice system is activated?
The arc will turn white up to 77% to indicate power setting that may be required for adequate ice protection
181
7. What happens if a Cowl Anti Icing duct ruptures?
The escaping pressurized bleed air is contained inside the outer duct
182
8. If the pilot selects the HI position of the windshield heat switch, additional heat will be applied to all four aircraft cockpit windows.
FALSE – Only the windshields (front) are heated at the higher level
183
9. The FAST position of the window wipers will always override any other position selected.
FALSE – The last position selected by either pilot will control both wipers
184
10. What occurs when the **wing anti‐icing** switch is selected **ON**?
The modulating SOVs will vary their position based on commands from the dual-‐channel **AILC** computer, and will maintain a hotter temperature schedule if the slats are extended
185
* *EICAS**
1. How can the Status Page be displayed if ED1 fails?
* Select **MFD Display Reversionary Panel** to EICAS, or
* Select EICAS selector on **Source Select Panel** to EICAS
186
2. If one of the **DCU** disable switchlights is pressed:
(on **Audio Warning Panel**)
all voice messages will be inhibited except:
**EGPWS / TCAS**
187
3. In the event of power failure of the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), what buttons will still be operational?
**PRI STAT**
**CAS STEP**
188
4. When can Caution Messages be paged and boxed?
* Paged on ground with engines shutdown
* Boxed with both engines at stabilized idle and boxing in flight is a function of WOW
189
5. What EICAS messages cannot be paged?
**Warnings (RED)**
**Advisories (GREEN)**
190
6. What EICAS messages cannot be removed from viewing by boxing?
**Warnings (RED)**
**Advisories (GREEN)**
191
7. If a red Master Warning is generated on ED1, what other indications will / may accompany it?
* Master Warning Flasher
* Triple Chime
* Possible aural warning depending on the cause of the alert
192
**LANDING GEAR**
1. Which hydraulic systems must be powered when checking the brake wear indicators?
Systems **2** & **3** with the **parking brake set**
193
2. Which hydraulic system(s) power the **landing gear**?
**System 3**
194
3. Which hydraulic systems can be used to assist manual landing gear extension if the main system fails?
**System 2**
**to assist**
195
4. What effect will the **loss** of **both** the **#2** and **#3** hydraulic system have on the landing gear?
* Main Gear will free fall but **Nose Gear will NOT**
* No retraction
196
5. In the event of a #2 and #3 hydraulic system failure, what emergency braking is available?
Brake accumulators in both systems should provide reserve pressure for **six applications** with the **anti skid OFF**
197
6. How is the Anti-‐Skid test performed?
* Self test feature
* Also tested during “Originating Check” by cycling the Anti-‐Skid switch
198
7. What should you do if you are unable to raise the gear handle after takeoff?
• Flight Safety Answer: Use the **DN LCK REL** button next to the gear handle to release the down-‐ lock mechanism• Real World: Leave them hang and land
199
8. What effect will the loss of either the #2 or #3 hydraulic system have on braking capability?
Anti-‐skid braking will be available from the remaining system, with a 50% loss of stopping capability
200
9. Locked wheel protection is provided by the anti-‐skid system upon landing. When will the system allow braking to occur?
Wheel spin up speed reaches **35 kts** or **5 seconds** after **WOW** signal is present
201
10. When the parking brake is set and hydraulic systems are deactivated, what effect does it have?
Pressure will bleed off in the **#2** system
but
will be maintained from the **#3** system brake accumulators because of a **parking brake shutoff valve**
202
11. After an overheated brake is cooled in flight by lowering the gear, how can the pilot reset the BTMS indicating system?
Press the **BTMS OVHT WARN RESET** button on the landing gear panel
203
12. With the same indications of an overheated brake on the ground, what should you do?
Do not reset the BTMS system until maintenance has had a chance to inspect the brake
204
13. Nosewheel steering system allows:
Rudder Pedals **8**°
Tiller **80**°
205
14. With a failure of the nosewheel steering system, the nosewheel will go into:
Free Castering Mode
206
15. Bumping or moving the nosewheel tiller after landing gear extension will interfere with a system test and cause the nosewheel steering to be:
**Inoperative upon landing with no advance warning**
207
* *AIRCRAFT LIGHTING**
1. When the seat belt switch is in AUTO, under what conditions do the seatbelt signs automatically illuminate?
* Cabin Altitude \> 10,000 ft
* Landing gear extended • Flaps \> 0
208
2. If the main wing tip navigation light bulb fails, how do you switch to the secondary bulb?
System will do it automatically
209
3. Taxi/recognition lights should be turned OFF if the aircraft is stopped for more than:
10 min
210
4. Taxi/recognition light will come on, regardless of its switch position if:
Respective wing landing light is turned on
211
5. Emergency lighting system will operate off its dedicated batteries for up to:
10 min
212
6. With the cockpit switch in the ARM position, the emergency lighting system activates if there is a loss of power to:
• *AC* **ESS** BUS
or
• *DC* **ESS** BUS
213
**NAVIGATION**
1. Where is the Radar Information Line displayed?
Top of the MFD
214
2. Individual satellites can be deselected from use by entering the identifier for the satellite on the FMS GPS control page?
True
215
3. During a wind shear warning, you should increase pitch up to the Pitch Limit Marker?
False,
we should follow the
**flight director command bars**
216
4. Flight director will provide windshear escape guidance during both a windshear caution or a windshear warning from the EGPWS system?
False – Only a warning
217
5. If DME Hold is selected, you will not be able to use the VOR course information for ILS or VOR tracking if you select another frequency?
False
218
6. How many ways can you change the setting of VHF NAV 1?
* RTU
* Backup Tuning Unit
* Radio Page on the FMS
219
7. During a GPS approach, what allows you to continue the approach to the missed approach point?
When **GPS APPR** appears at the bottom of the NAV source info block on the PFD
220
8. What will happen to the bearing pointer display on the MFD if there is a signal loss?
Respective pointer will be removed from view
221
**OXYGEN and EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT**
1. Minimum oxygen for dispatch? (CRJ 700)
2 Crew – **810** PSI
3 Crew – **1110** PSI
222
2. When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?
14,000 ft CABIN ALT
223
3. How many minutes of oxygen will the passenger oxygen generators provide?
**13 min**
224
4. Warning associated with the oxygen generators?
* Produce intense heat in excess of 500 C
* Do not touch or attempt to remove the generator
225
5. What side of aircraft are the overboard discharge indicator and the oxygen servicing panel located?
Blowout Disk = Left
Service Panel = Right
226
6. The crew oxygen system will supply 100% oxygen at an altitude of
**30,000** ft
regardless
of the setting.
227
**PNEUMATICS**
1. What is the purpose of the Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)?
Controls bleed valves
and
bleed distribution by monitoring duct:
• Pressure
* Position
* ESC and Anti – Ice valve position
228
2. Which bleed valves fail in the closed position?
* ENG PRSOV
* APU LCV
* ENG HP Bleed Valve
229
3. What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
Allows air from any source to supply both sides of the manifold
230
4. What type of engine air bleed valves are installed on the CRJ-‐700?
ACDC controlled PRSOVs
231
5. After takeoff (no anti-‐icing required), what causes the bleeds to transfer from the APU to the engines?
Thrust levers retarded from TOGA with gear up and flaps 20 or less
232
6. When the High Pressure Bleed valve on the 10th stage is providing air, what effect does this have on the 6th stage?
6th stage air will be blocked by closure of the 1 – way check valve preventing 10th stage air from backing up in the N2 compressor
233
7. It is not possible to use APU air in the wing anti-‐ice system with the Pneumatic system in AUTO, but it can be done with manual control of the bleed air system?
FALSE -‐ NEVER
234
8. The PRSOVs on each engine should limit the pressure in the pneumatic system to:
45 ± 3 PSI
235
9. With a loss of control power, the HPV, PRSOV and APU LCV will:
Fail in the closed position
236
10. The wing ISOL Valve switch and BLEED AIR SOURCE selector will only have an effect if:
Bleed air valves control selector is placed in MANUAL position
237
11. During engine start, the pilot must select OFF with the A/C packs and open the ISOL valve?
False – Proper operation will be automatically controlled by the ASCS computers
238
12. The wing anti-‐ice cross bleed selector will allow one engine to be selected even with the bleed valves control selector in AUTO?
True
239
**POWERPLANT**
1. When does engine synchronization occur?
N1 1.5%
N2 2.5%
With LEFT EGINE as master
240
2. What is the engine ignition powered by?
IGN **A** = AC ESS BUS
IGN **B** = BATT BUS through a Static Inverter
241
3. What are the FADECs powered by?
Below 50% N2 ......... DC Electrics
Above 50% N2 ........... FADEC Alternator
242
4. What is the minimum bleed air pressure for engine start?
**40 PSI**
**minimum** bleed air pressure for **engine start**
243
5. What is the minimum oil temperature for start on the ground?
**‐40C**
244
6. Normal and APR Thrust Rating of the CF34-‐8C5B1?
Normal 12,670 lbs
APR 13,790 lbs
245
7. Bypass air from the N1 Fan produces approximately
**80%** of the engine thrust
246
8. Fuel pressure from the fuel metering unit is used by FADEC to operate:
* VG Guide Vanes of the N2 compressor
* Operability Valve
247
9. During start, the thrust lever should be moved from shutoff at?
20% N2,
ITT below 120C
248
10. Starter disengagement should occur at?
50% N2
Starter disengagement
249
11. Continuous ignition must be on if:
* T/O or Landing on contaminated runways
* Moderate or greater turbulence
* Moderate or greater rainfall
* Vicinity of thunderstorms
250
12. What will happen if both sources of power to FADEC fail?
The engine will shutdown
251
13. The two channels of each FADEC will never make a simultaneous input to the engine except?
Engine overspeed condition
252
14. With an engine failure, FADEC will schedule One engine Out (**OEO**) power as follows:
**TOGA** \>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\> **APR**
**CLIMB** \>\>\>\>\>\>\>\>\> **MCT**
**CRUISE** \>\>\>\> **Proportional**
253
15. Oil filter bypass or oil chip detection will be presented to the pilot on the EICAS system.
False – only indicated in AFT EQIP BAY
254
16. Gauges are available to alert the pilot to vibration exceedances in both the N1 and N2 sections of each engine.
False
VIB gauges only for N1.
VIB icon will appear inside N2 gauge
255
17. How many different idle power settings are available from FADEC?
1. Flight idle
2. Approach idle
3. Landing idle
4. Ground idle
5. Reverse idle
256
18. How is engine oil temperature kept under control?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
257
19. In the event of FADEC failure, the other engine FADEC can provide fuel control of both engines?
False
258
20. One Engine Out (OEO) fuel scheduling from FADEC will occur when the N1 speed difference between the engines exceeds:
15%
259
21. How will you know that APR power is being scheduled by FADEC?
Green **APR** icon
will appear
**inside** N1 gauge
260
22. What will selection of the High Power schedule switchlight do?
MCT power on both engines, HOWEVER use is PROHIBITED
261
23. FADEC continues to update its power calculation during takeoff up to
**65** kts.
It **locks** in this setting until **400** AGL
262
24. Starter assisted N2 limit?
45% N2
263
25. Engine cross bleed starts are accomplished using:
Bleed air from the other operating engine
264
26. What occurs during a thrust reverser deployment in flight?
FADEC will schedule IDLE trust on the engine but the thrust lever will not move
265
**WATER and WASTE**
1. Primary source for the potable/wash water system (PWS)?
Bleed air regulated at 30 PSI
266
2. Drain **mast** are heated whenever **115VAC** power is applied to the controller regardless of the controller **ON/OFF** state?
True
