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Flight Rules and Regulations Flashcards

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1
Q

Name the 5 Air Traffic Organisations

A

ICAO EASA CAA NATS RAF(U) Swanick

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2
Q

What is the purpose of ICAO?

A

SARPS (Standards and Recommended Practices) Applicable to Civilian flying only, so military conforms when it doesn’t conflict with military requirements.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of EASA?

A

Regulation: Certification Airworthiness Air Nav, ATS and aerodynamics Licensing of operators

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4
Q

What does the CAA do?

A

Regulation of: Aviation Safety Use of airspace Economics of major airports Licencing and financial fitness of airlines Manages ATOL (Air Travel Organisor’s Licence)

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5
Q

What does NATS do and where are they based?

A

Leading provider of ATS, manages airports and all Upper airspace over the UK and part of the North Atlantic. Operates from Swanwick and Prestwick.

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6
Q

What does RAFU Swanwick do?

A

ATS outside of controlled airspace Alerting service for emergencies Notifies aircraft movements to Air Defence Organisation

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7
Q

What are the area control centres? (For a bonus point, what are their callsigns?)

A

LACC - London Area Control Centre Civ callsign is London Control Mil Callsign is Swanwick Military ScACC - Scottish Area Control Centre Callsign is Scottish Control

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8
Q

What are the three area control centres based at Swanick?

A

LACC - London Area Control Centre LTCC - London Terminal Control Centre Military ATC

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9
Q

What are the 3 area control centres based at Prestwick?

A

ScACC - Scottish Area Control Centre MACC - Manchester Area Control Centre Oceanic Area Control Centre

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10
Q

What classes of airspace have radar control service available?

A

A-E (And aerodrome traffic)

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11
Q

What are the 4 types of Flight Information Service?

A

Basic Traffic Deconfliction Procedural

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12
Q

What does the Radar Qnalysis Cell at RAFU Swanwick investigate?

A

Airprox (both Mil and civ) Noise complaints (and unauthorised supersonic flights) Airspace breaches Aircraft suspected of involvement in criminal activities

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13
Q

What are the military and Civilian emergency frequencies and which radio is used for each?

A

Military Distress - UHF - 243.000 MHz Distress - VHF - 121.500 MHz

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14
Q

What is the upper FL for the LARS (Lower Airspace Radar Service)?

A

FL 100 and outside controlled airspace

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15
Q

Describe the UK LFS (Low Flying System).

A

Nominated DUAs (Dedicated User Areas) that are booked by a Sqn. Other aviators are informed of the date and time of the bookings via NOTAM. The DUAs are from surface to 2000ft.

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16
Q

What are the vertical limits of the FIR?

A

Surface up to FL 245

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17
Q

What are the vertical limits of the UIR?

A

FL245 up to FL 660

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18
Q

What is the OACC?

A

Oceanic Area Control Centre Over the Eastern half of the North Atlantic Controlled by Shannon and Prestwick- Called Shanwick Provides a procedural service

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19
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Zone Surface to 2000ft AAL Radius of 2nm (2.5nm if runway > 1850m)

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20
Q

What are the dimensions of a MATZ?

A

5nm radius Surface to 3000ft AAL Stubs: 5nm long and 4nm wide, 1000ft-3000ftAAL

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21
Q

What are the 3 types of airspace reservations?

A

Prohibited Danger Restricted

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22
Q

Describe a prohibited area

A

No aircraft are allowed within prohibited areas, except for operational reasons.

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23
Q

Describe a restricted area

A

An airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of authorised aircraft only may fly within certain specified conditions

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24
Q

Describe a danger area, and the 3 types

A

All aircraft must have prior authorisation to fly in a DA. Permanent, scheduled, notified.

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25
What is a HIRTA?
High Intensity Radio Transmission Area May affect weapons, comms or nav systems
26
What are MTA, AIAA, AARA and ATA?
Military training area Area of intense aerial activity Air to air refuelling area Aerial tactics area
27
What is a TRA?
Temporary reserved area Temporarily reserved for use by a different aviation authority. Established between FL 195 and FL 245
28
What are the 3 types of flight rules?
VFR SVFR IFR
29
Under the right of way rule, list the aircraft types in priority order.
Balloons Gliders Airships Powered aircraft
30
Under the right of way rule, describe the action to be taken when two aircraft are approaching head-on
Turn right
31
Describe the overtaking process in the right of way rule
The aircraft being overtaken has right of way The overtaking aircraft should alter it's course to the right, (gliders can go either way)
32
In a circuit, what aircraft has right of way?
Aircraft landing or on final approach
33
When two or more aircraft are landing, which has right of way?
Aircraft at lower Altitude, but should not cut in front of the other ATC order of priority Give way to aircraft making an emergency landing
34
Describe VMC in and out of CAS above FL100
Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically 8km Visibility
35
Describe VMC in and out of CAS below FL100 and at more than 250kts
Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically Flight visibility 8km
36
Describe VMC in and out of CAS below FL100 and at or below 250kts
Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically Visibility 5km
37
Describe VMC in CAS below 3000ft AMSL
Helicopters COCISS Clear of cloud, in sight of surface 1500m visibility
38
Describe VMC outside of CAS below 3000ft AMSL, over 140kts
Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically 5km visibility
39
Describe VMC outside of CAS below 140kts
COCSIS clear of cloud, surface in sight 1500m visibility
40
Describe SVFR
Flight cleared into CAS when below VMC and pilots are unable to comply with IFR Must remain COCSIS and vis 1500m and below 140kts Always available in Class A, and in class C/D at night Prior permission to enter airspace must be obtained
41
Describe the pilot requirements when flying IFR inside and outside CAS
Instrument rating Radio and Nav equipment Flight Plan Clearance from ATC Follow ATC instructions
42
Name the 3 occasions in UK airspace that IFR flight is mandatory
In IMC Class A airspace Class C airspace when VFR operations are not permitted (eg at night)
43
State the semi-circular rule.
When flying westbound, IFR flights use even 1000's of ft, (FL40, FL60, etc). When flying Eastbound, IFR flights use odd 1000's of ft, (FL30, FL50, etc). At and above FL290, traffic is separated by 4000ft.
44
Describe the use and dimensions of Class E airspace in the UK
Some airways below FL 195
45
Describe the dimensions of Class A Airspace in the UK
Most Airways below FL 195
46
Describe the dimensions and use of Class C airspace in the UK
Airways and all Airspace FL195 - FL 245 in the FIR Air Routes and all Airspace FL 245 - FL 660 in the UIR
47
What are radar corridors used for?
For military traffic to cross Airways Need prior approval from ATC
48
What are the 5 objectives of an ATS?
Prevent collisions in the air Prevent collisions on the ground The orderly flow of traffic Provide advice and information Notify organisations of an aircraft in distress
49
When is a radar service provided?
IFR flights in class A, B, C, D, and E airspace VFR flights in Class B, C, and D airspace SVFR flights Aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
50
Name the 5 things a basic service provides
Weather info Changes of serviceability Airfield conditions General airspace activity Other safety info
51
Describe a traffic service, including the dimensions around the receiving aircraft
Surveillance derived information to assist pilot in avoiding other air traffic Relevant traffic within 3000ft vertically or 3nm horizontally
52
Describe a deconfliction service include the dimensions around a receiving aircraft
Traffic info plus heading/level to achieve a deconfliction minima 5nm laterally, 3000ft vertically If both ac are being provided with the ATS, 3nm laterally and 1000ft/500ft vertically
53
Describe a procedural service
No radar available, ATC rely on the aircraft following their instruction. Used over OACC.
54
Describe a temporary control zone for a royal flight
5-10nm radius from centre of aerodrome Surface to designated upper level For inbound/outbound, 15 mins before ETA/ETD, and 30mins after ETD/ETA, respectively.
55
Describe Temporary controlled Airways for a Royal flight
Class D established to join control zones/areas. 15mins before ETA until 30mins after ETD 5nm either side of track Designated vertical limits
56
Describe helicopter special ATC arrangements
RW Royal flights are given a RLLC (Royal Low Level Corridor) 5nm either side of track Surface to 1000ft above maximum cruise altitude
57
What are the missing words? Authorisation through the appropriate records must be given to ____ before any UK Military flight.
Aircraft Commander
58
True or False? Aircrew can assume that they are authorised to night fly if their arrival time is after civil twilight.
False
59
True or false? Auth officers are not normally formally trained
False
60
What are the aircraft commanders priorities during flight?
Safety of passengers/cargo and the completion of the mission
61
What do yellow chevrons at the end of a runway indicate?
Stopway
62
How are taxiways lit at night?
Green centreline and Blue edge lights.
63
What do red lights in a line at the far side of a runway indicate?
End of the runway
64
What height of obstacles are marked with red or flashing white lights?
Over 150m
65
What marking on a runway shows that it is equipped with ILS?
White edge marking
66
What part of the airfield is used for parking/unloading/refueling?
Apron
67
A beacon flashing a 2 letter ID in green indicates what type of airfield?
Civil airfield operating at night in the vicinity of other Civilian airfields
68
What does a beacon flashing a 2 letter ID in red indicate?
Military airfield near other active military airfields.
69
What should you do if you loose sight of a ground Marshaller?
Stop Seek assistance (from ATC)
70
White arrows pointing towards the threshold?
Pre-threashold area for aircraft movement and take-off but not for landing
71
X marked in the pre-threshold area?
Pre-threashold area is unfit for aircraft movement and unsuitable as a stopway
72
Yellow chevrons in pre threshold area
Pre-threashold area fit for use as a stopway but unfit for normal.al aircraft movement
73
Arrows and white chevrons pointing at the threshold?
Temporarily displaced threshold with marker boards with pre threshold area fir for aircraft movement but not available for landing
74
Taxy centreline
75
Runway taxi holding position A
76
Runway taxi holding position B
77
Intermediate Taxy Holding Position
78
Taxiway edge marking
79
Name the 3 types of mandatory signs on an airfield
Runway Holding Positions No Entry Intermediate Taxy Holding Position
80
Name the 2 types of information signs on an airfield
Location Direction/Destination
81
If using a PAPI and 4 white lights are showing, what does that mean?
Too high
82
If using a PAPI, what does 3 white a 1 red light mean?
Slightly high
83
When using a PAPI, what does 1 white and 3 red lights mean?
Slightly low
84
When using a PAPI, what does 4 red lights mean?
Too low
85
What do yellow lights in a '3, 2, 1' pattern show?
Rapid Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights
86
Row of red lights spread equally across a runway?
Stop bar
87
Green and yellow alternating light on a centreline?
Lead-On lights
88
Label this diagram of an ATZ and a MATZ.
89
Label this diagram of CAS with the airspace classes and FLs.
90
How is Royal Flight information disseminated?
Via NOTAM
91
What are the 3 methods of Authorisation?
Written Verbal Self
92
What are the 3 Authorising Considerations?
Crew Composition (SQEP?) Day/Night Flying (latest hour should take this into consideration) Met (due consideration to met conditions has been taken)
93
What does the Authorising Officer need to do before authorising a flight?
Detail the Aircraft Commander & ensure they understand the aims, are capable, and have thoroughly planned. Ensure crew are SQEP Complete Flight Authorisation Record Follow Authorising SOPs
94
What is the Aircraft Commander ultimately responsible for?
The safety of the aircraft, its crew, its passengers, and cargo during the mission.
95
What are the 3 types of flight plan?
Full Repetitive Abbreviated
96
What is required before one of the following circumstances? Flight within Class A, B, C, and D irrespective of weather conditions. Any flight where the destination aerodrome is more than 40km away from the departure aerodrome and the Max Total Weight exceeds 5700kg. All flights to/from the UK which cross the UK FIR boundary. Any flight in class F airspace wishing to participate in the Air Traffic Advisory Scheme.
It is mandatory to submit a Flight Plan.
97
In the following circumstances, what are the Pilots exempt from? Cross the UK FIR boundary under the control of a UK air defence, naval vessel or AEW platform. Flights within the North Wales and East Anglian Training Areas, when active.
Exempt from submitting a Flight Plan.
98
What is the numbered parking position for an aircraft on the apron, ramp or dispersal?
Aircraft Stand
99
What is the ICAO term for a designated area where aircraft are parked for loading and unloading, refueling, and servicing?
Apron (Ramp/Dispersal/Flightline)
100
What is the designated route linking aircraft aprons, runways and other facilities, suitable for all aircraft licenced to operate from the airfield?
Taxiway
101
What are positions on taxiways that define the limit of an aircraft's taxy clearance?
Holding Positions
102
What is a defined rectangular area on an airfield prepared for aircraft take-off and landing?
Runway
103
What are markings across each end of a designated runway that define the beginning and end of the available landing distance?
Threashold
104
That is an area before the beginning threshold of a designated runway that may be available for aircraft movement and take-off?
Pre-threshold
105
What is an area after the end of the threshold of a designated runway which can be used in an emergency to bring an aircraft to a full stop, but is not suitable for normal movements, take-off, or landing?
Stopway
106
Label these runway markings.
107
What does this displaced threshold marking mean?
Pre-threshold area fit for aircraft movement and available for thake-off but **not available for landing.**
108
What does this threshold marking mean?
Pre-threshold area **unfit for aircraft movement** and unsuitable as a stopway.
109
What does this displaced threshold marking mean?
Pre-threshold area fit for use as a stopway but **unfit for normal aircraft movement.**
110
What does this Displaced Threshold marking mean?
Temporarily displaced threshold with marker boards with pre-threshold area fit for aircraft movement and take-off but **not available for landing.**
111
What does the '20' in this image indicate?
The magnetic heading of the runway, to the nearest 10 degrees.
112
Label this diagram of approach lighting.
113
Label this image of runway lighting.
114
This image is of which part of an airfield at night?
115
Label this taxiway lights diagram
116
What does the image depict?
Rapid Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights (RETILs)

MAGS (7 decks)

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