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MAGS > Flight Rules and Regulations > Flashcards

Flight Rules and Regulations Flashcards

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1
Q

Name the 5 Air Traffic Organisations

A

ICAO EASA CAA NATS RAF(U) Swanick

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2
Q

What is the purpose of ICAO?

A

SARPS (Standards and Recommended Practices) Applicable to Civilian flying only, so military conforms when it doesn’t conflict with military requirements.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of EASA?

A

Regulation: Certification Airworthiness Air Nav, ATS and aerodynamics Licensing of operators

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4
Q

What does the CAA do?

A

Regulation of: Aviation Safety Use of airspace Economics of major airports Licencing and financial fitness of airlines Manages ATOL (Air Travel Organisor’s Licence)

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5
Q

What does NATS do and where are they based?

A

Leading provider of ATS, manages airports and all Upper airspace over the UK and part of the North Atlantic. Operates from Swanwick and Prestwick.

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6
Q

What does RAFU Swanwick do?

A

ATS outside of controlled airspace Alerting service for emergencies Notifies aircraft movements to Air Defence Organisation

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7
Q

What are the area control centres? (For a bonus point, what are their callsigns?)

A

LACC - London Area Control Centre Civ callsign is London Control Mil Callsign is Swanwick Military ScACC - Scottish Area Control Centre Callsign is Scottish Control

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8
Q

What are the three area control centres based at Swanick?

A

LACC - London Area Control Centre LTCC - London Terminal Control Centre Military ATC

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9
Q

What are the 3 area control centres based at Prestwick?

A

ScACC - Scottish Area Control Centre MACC - Manchester Area Control Centre Oceanic Area Control Centre

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10
Q

What classes of airspace have radar control service available?

A

A-E (And aerodrome traffic)

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11
Q

What are the 4 types of Flight Information Service?

A

Basic Traffic Deconfliction Procedural

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12
Q

What does the Radar Qnalysis Cell at RAFU Swanwick investigate?

A

Airprox (both Mil and civ) Noise complaints (and unauthorised supersonic flights) Airspace breaches Aircraft suspected of involvement in criminal activities

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13
Q

What are the military and Civilian emergency frequencies and which radio is used for each?

A

Military Distress - UHF - 243.000 MHz Distress - VHF - 121.500 MHz

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14
Q

What is the upper FL for the LARS (Lower Airspace Radar Service)?

A

FL 100 and outside controlled airspace

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15
Q

Describe the UK LFS (Low Flying System).

A

Nominated DUAs (Dedicated User Areas) that are booked by a Sqn. Other aviators are informed of the date and time of the bookings via NOTAM. The DUAs are from surface to 2000ft.

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16
Q

What are the vertical limits of the FIR?

A

Surface up to FL 245

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17
Q

What are the vertical limits of the UIR?

A

FL245 up to FL 660

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18
Q

What is the OACC?

A

Oceanic Area Control Centre Over the Eastern half of the North Atlantic Controlled by Shannon and Prestwick- Called Shanwick Provides a procedural service

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19
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Zone Surface to 2000ft AAL Radius of 2nm (2.5nm if runway > 1850m)

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20
Q

What are the dimensions of a MATZ?

A

5nm radius Surface to 3000ft AAL Stubs: 5nm long and 4nm wide, 1000ft-3000ftAAL

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21
Q

What are the 3 types of airspace reservations?

A

Prohibited Danger Restricted

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22
Q

Describe a prohibited area

A

No aircraft are allowed within prohibited areas, except for operational reasons.

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23
Q

Describe a restricted area

A

An airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of authorised aircraft only may fly within certain specified conditions

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24
Q

Describe a danger area, and the 3 types

A

All aircraft must have prior authorisation to fly in a DA. Permanent, scheduled, notified.

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25
Q

What is a HIRTA?

A

High Intensity Radio Transmission Area May affect weapons, comms or nav systems

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26
Q

What are MTA, AIAA, AARA and ATA?

A

Military training area Area of intense aerial activity Air to air refuelling area Aerial tactics area

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27
Q

What is a TRA?

A

Temporary reserved area Temporarily reserved for use by a different aviation authority. Established between FL 195 and FL 245

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28
Q

What are the 3 types of flight rules?

A

VFR SVFR IFR

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29
Q

Under the right of way rule, list the aircraft types in priority order.

A

Balloons Gliders Airships Powered aircraft

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30
Q

Under the right of way rule, describe the action to be taken when two aircraft are approaching head-on

A

Turn right

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31
Q

Describe the overtaking process in the right of way rule

A

The aircraft being overtaken has right of way The overtaking aircraft should alter it’s course to the right, (gliders can go either way)

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32
Q

In a circuit, what aircraft has right of way?

A

Aircraft landing or on final approach

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33
Q

When two or more aircraft are landing, which has right of way?

A

Aircraft at lower Altitude, but should not cut in front of the other ATC order of priority Give way to aircraft making an emergency landing

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34
Q

Describe VMC in and out of CAS above FL100

A

Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically 8km Visibility

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35
Q

Describe VMC in and out of CAS below FL100 and at more than 250kts

A

Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically Flight visibility 8km

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36
Q

Describe VMC in and out of CAS below FL100 and at or below 250kts

A

Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically Visibility 5km

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37
Q

Describe VMC in CAS below 3000ft AMSL

A

Helicopters COCISS Clear of cloud, in sight of surface 1500m visibility

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38
Q

Describe VMC outside of CAS below 3000ft AMSL, over 140kts

A

Distance from cloud: 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically 5km visibility

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39
Q

Describe VMC outside of CAS below 140kts

A

COCSIS clear of cloud, surface in sight 1500m visibility

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40
Q

Describe SVFR

A

Flight cleared into CAS when below VMC and pilots are unable to comply with IFR Must remain COCSIS and vis 1500m and below 140kts Always available in Class A, and in class C/D at night Prior permission to enter airspace must be obtained

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41
Q

Describe the pilot requirements when flying IFR inside and outside CAS

A

Instrument rating

Radio and Nav equipment

Flight Plan

Clearance from ATC

Follow ATC instructions

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42
Q

Name the 3 occasions in UK airspace that IFR flight is mandatory

A

In IMC Class A airspace Class C airspace when VFR operations are not permitted (eg at night)

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43
Q

State the semi-circular rule.

A

When flying westbound, IFR flights use even 1000’s of ft, (FL40, FL60, etc).

When flying Eastbound, IFR flights use odd 1000’s of ft, (FL30, FL50, etc).

At and above FL290, traffic is separated by 4000ft.

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44
Q

Describe the use and dimensions of Class E airspace in the UK

A

Some airways below FL 195

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45
Q

Describe the dimensions of Class A Airspace in the UK

A

Most Airways below FL 195

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46
Q

Describe the dimensions and use of Class C airspace in the UK

A

Airways and all Airspace FL195 - FL 245 in the FIR Air Routes and all Airspace FL 245 - FL 660 in the UIR

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47
Q

What are radar corridors used for?

A

For military traffic to cross Airways Need prior approval from ATC

48
Q

What are the 5 objectives of an ATS?

A

Prevent collisions in the air

Prevent collisions on the ground

The orderly flow of traffic

Provide advice and information

Notify organisations of an aircraft in distress

49
Q

When is a radar service provided?

A

IFR flights in class A, B, C, D, and E airspace

VFR flights in Class B, C, and D airspace

SVFR flights

Aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes

50
Q

Name the 5 things a basic service provides

A

Weather info

Changes of serviceability

Airfield conditions

General airspace activity

Other safety info

51
Q

Describe a traffic service, including the dimensions around the receiving aircraft

A

Surveillance derived information to assist pilot in avoiding other air traffic Relevant traffic within 3000ft vertically or 3nm horizontally

52
Q

Describe a deconfliction service include the dimensions around a receiving aircraft

A

Traffic info plus heading/level to achieve a deconfliction minima 5nm laterally, 3000ft vertically If both ac are being provided with the ATS, 3nm laterally and 1000ft/500ft vertically

53
Q

Describe a procedural service

A

No radar available, ATC rely on the aircraft following their instruction. Used over OACC.

54
Q

Describe a temporary control zone for a royal flight

A

5-10nm radius from centre of aerodrome Surface to designated upper level For inbound/outbound, 15 mins before ETA/ETD, and 30mins after ETD/ETA, respectively.

55
Q

Describe Temporary controlled Airways for a Royal flight

A

Class D established to join control zones/areas. 15mins before ETA until 30mins after ETD 5nm either side of track Designated vertical limits

56
Q

Describe helicopter special ATC arrangements

A

RW Royal flights are given a RLLC (Royal Low Level Corridor) 5nm either side of track Surface to 1000ft above maximum cruise altitude

57
Q

What are the missing words? Authorisation through the appropriate records must be given to ____ before any UK Military flight.

A

Aircraft Commander

58
Q

True or False? Aircrew can assume that they are authorised to night fly if their arrival time is after civil twilight.

A

False

59
Q

True or false? Auth officers are not normally formally trained

A

False

60
Q

What are the aircraft commanders priorities during flight?

A

Safety of passengers/cargo and the completion of the mission

61
Q

What do yellow chevrons at the end of a runway indicate?

A

Stopway

62
Q

How are taxiways lit at night?

A

Green centreline and Blue edge lights.

63
Q

What do red lights in a line at the far side of a runway indicate?

A

End of the runway

64
Q

What height of obstacles are marked with red or flashing white lights?

A

Over 150m

65
Q

What marking on a runway shows that it is equipped with ILS?

A

White edge marking

66
Q

What part of the airfield is used for parking/unloading/refueling?

A

Apron

67
Q

A beacon flashing a 2 letter ID in green indicates what type of airfield?

A

Civil airfield operating at night in the vicinity of other Civilian airfields

68
Q

What does a beacon flashing a 2 letter ID in red indicate?

A

Military airfield near other active military airfields.

69
Q

What should you do if you loose sight of a ground Marshaller?

A

Stop Seek assistance (from ATC)

70
Q

White arrows pointing towards the threshold?

A

Pre-threashold area for aircraft movement and take-off but not for landing

71
Q

X marked in the pre-threshold area?

A

Pre-threashold area is unfit for aircraft movement and unsuitable as a stopway

72
Q

Yellow chevrons in pre threshold area

A

Pre-threashold area fit for use as a stopway but unfit for normal.al aircraft movement

73
Q

Arrows and white chevrons pointing at the threshold?

A

Temporarily displaced threshold with marker boards with pre threshold area fir for aircraft movement but not available for landing

74
Q
A

Taxy centreline

75
Q
A

Runway taxi holding position A

76
Q
A

Runway taxi holding position B

77
Q
A

Intermediate Taxy Holding Position

78
Q
A

Taxiway edge marking

79
Q

Name the 3 types of mandatory signs on an airfield

A

Runway Holding Positions No Entry Intermediate Taxy Holding Position

80
Q

Name the 2 types of information signs on an airfield

A

Location Direction/Destination

81
Q

If using a PAPI and 4 white lights are showing, what does that mean?

A

Too high

82
Q

If using a PAPI, what does 3 white a 1 red light mean?

A

Slightly high

83
Q

When using a PAPI, what does 1 white and 3 red lights mean?

A

Slightly low

84
Q

When using a PAPI, what does 4 red lights mean?

A

Too low

85
Q

What do yellow lights in a ‘3, 2, 1’ pattern show?

A

Rapid Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights

86
Q

Row of red lights spread equally across a runway?

A

Stop bar

87
Q

Green and yellow alternating light on a centreline?

A

Lead-On lights

88
Q

Label this diagram of an ATZ and a MATZ.

A
89
Q

Label this diagram of CAS with the airspace classes and FLs.

A
90
Q

How is Royal Flight information disseminated?

A

Via NOTAM

91
Q

What are the 3 methods of Authorisation?

A

Written

Verbal

Self

92
Q

What are the 3 Authorising Considerations?

A

Crew Composition (SQEP?)

Day/Night Flying (latest hour should take this into consideration)

Met (due consideration to met conditions has been taken)

93
Q

What does the Authorising Officer need to do before authorising a flight?

A

Detail the Aircraft Commander & ensure they understand the aims, are capable, and have thoroughly planned.

Ensure crew are SQEP

Complete Flight Authorisation Record

Follow Authorising SOPs

94
Q

What is the Aircraft Commander ultimately responsible for?

A

The safety of the aircraft, its crew, its passengers, and cargo during the mission.

95
Q

What are the 3 types of flight plan?

A

Full

Repetitive

Abbreviated

96
Q

What is required before one of the following circumstances?

Flight within Class A, B, C, and D irrespective of weather conditions.

Any flight where the destination aerodrome is more than 40km away from the departure aerodrome and the Max Total Weight exceeds 5700kg.

All flights to/from the UK which cross the UK FIR boundary.

Any flight in class F airspace wishing to participate in the Air Traffic Advisory Scheme.

A

It is mandatory to submit a Flight Plan.

97
Q

In the following circumstances, what are the Pilots exempt from?

Cross the UK FIR boundary under the control of a UK air defence, naval vessel or AEW platform.

Flights within the North Wales and East Anglian Training Areas, when active.

A

Exempt from submitting a Flight Plan.

98
Q

What is the numbered parking position for an aircraft on the apron, ramp or dispersal?

A

Aircraft Stand

99
Q

What is the ICAO term for a designated area where aircraft are parked for loading and unloading, refueling, and servicing?

A

Apron (Ramp/Dispersal/Flightline)

100
Q

What is the designated route linking aircraft aprons, runways and other facilities, suitable for all aircraft licenced to operate from the airfield?

A

Taxiway

101
Q

What are positions on taxiways that define the limit of an aircraft’s taxy clearance?

A

Holding Positions

102
Q

What is a defined rectangular area on an airfield prepared for aircraft take-off and landing?

A

Runway

103
Q

What are markings across each end of a designated runway that define the beginning and end of the available landing distance?

A

Threashold

104
Q

That is an area before the beginning threshold of a designated runway that may be available for aircraft movement and take-off?

A

Pre-threshold

105
Q

What is an area after the end of the threshold of a designated runway which can be used in an emergency to bring an aircraft to a full stop, but is not suitable for normal movements, take-off, or landing?

A

Stopway

106
Q

Label these runway markings.

A
107
Q

What does this displaced threshold marking mean?

A

Pre-threshold area fit for aircraft movement and available for thake-off but not available for landing.

108
Q

What does this threshold marking mean?

A

Pre-threshold area unfit for aircraft movement and unsuitable as a stopway.

109
Q

What does this displaced threshold marking mean?

A

Pre-threshold area fit for use as a stopway but unfit for normal aircraft movement.

110
Q

What does this Displaced Threshold marking mean?

A

Temporarily displaced threshold with marker boards with pre-threshold area fit for aircraft movement and take-off but not available for landing.

111
Q

What does the ‘20’ in this image indicate?

A

The magnetic heading of the runway, to the nearest 10 degrees.

112
Q

Label this diagram of approach lighting.

A
113
Q

Label this image of runway lighting.

A
114
Q

This image is of which part of an airfield at night?

A
115
Q

Label this taxiway lights diagram

A
116
Q

What does the image depict?

A

Rapid Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights (RETILs)

MAGS (7 decks)

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