Flight procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Which approach types have exceptions to Stable Approach Criteria?

A

Sidestep Offset NPA, SOIA approaches, RNAV Visual with RF Leg final, Circle to land and Visual Circuit approaches.

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2
Q

What is the OM-A limit for taxi speeds? When may the limit be exceeded?

A

30 kts. 10 kts if slippery. When backtracking on an active runway.

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3
Q

Can the purser intiate an evacuation?

A

Yes, if the need for an immediate evacuation is evident.

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3
Q

Does a visual approach have a published missed approach procedure?

A

No, if a visual approach is accepted, the go around requirements must be established.

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3
Q

Is it permitted to land an aircraft overweight?

A

It is permitted to land an aircraft exceeding the:

  1. MLW during Non-normal
  2. MLW and/or RLW in an Emergency.
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4
Q

How often should in-flight fuel checks be made?

A

Every 60 minutes or less.

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5
Q

What is the minimum cleared or treated runway width?

A

30 m.

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5
Q

What are the meaning of the terms “Note”, “Caution”and “Warning” throughout Emirates documentation?

A

a. “Note” advises when an operating procedure, technique, etc. requires emphasis or gives information that is particularly important or useful.
b. “Caution” indicates information that might have an impact on flight safety if not acted upon.
c. “Warning” indicates information that is directly related to flight safety. Ignoring a warning will lead to a reduction in safety margins and injury or loss of life may result.

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6
Q

What must the PNF do during an approach other than ILS if cold weather corrections have been made?

A

Call out every hard altitude before reaching so the PF can crosscheck with his altimeter.

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7
Q

Is the simulation of abnormal or emergency situations requiring the application of part or all of abnormal or emergency procedures and the simulation of IMC conditions by artificial means acceptable during Emirates operations?

A

They are forbidden.

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8
Q

When is Sterile Flight Deck in effect?

A

During all ground operations involiving taxi, below 10000 ft AAL and within 1000 ft of an assigned level.

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9
Q

When can cargo compartment be opened on the ground for inspection after a Fire/Smoke warning occurs? Which precautions must be made regarding doors?

A

If the Fire/Smoke warning is believed to be non-fire related, eg afer insecticide spraying. Aerobridge must be connected and/or passenger doors armed.

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10
Q

Where is the approach ban point for CAT I or better conditions?

A

Outer marker or equivalent point or this does not exist, 1000 ft AAL.

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10
Q

Which weather minima need to be fulfilled to commence an approach?

A

The approach may only be commenced if the reported visibility/RVR meets the relevant minima.

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11
Q

What should be done if no enroute points are available for time intervals exceeding 60 minutes?

A

A recording of an intermediate lat/long and Estimated Fuel On Board (EFOB) at destination should be made.

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11
Q

What is an TA intended to do?

A

TAs are intended to alert the pilot to the possibility of a Resolution Advisory (RA), to enhance situational awareness, and to assist in visual acquisition of conflicting traffic.

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13
Q

Where can delay reporting procedures be found?

A

OM-A 8.3

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13
Q

Can a circling approach be done during night time?

A

No.

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14
Q

When may a EGPWS warning be considered cautionary?

A

When a warning occurs during daylight VMC conditions, and positive visual
verification is made that no hazard exists

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14
Q

In regards to in-flight fuel management, when can a landing be said to be assured?

A

A landing is “assured” if, in the judgment of the Commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground or airborne facilities. Forecasts should be used to assess the probability of landing success when more than two hours from the relevant airport. Within two hours, actual weather reports and trend information may be used.

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14
Q

What should be in the first line of an ACARS delay report message? To what SITA address should the message be sent?

A

The first line of the message requires the code “EKDR”. Should be addressed to SITA address “DXBOWEK”.

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15
Q

Once airborne, which minima needs to be considered for choosing an alternate?

A

The charted landing minima.

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16
Q

May an approach be flown in VNAV if the temperature is outside of the VNAV temperature limitation?

A

Yes, but only to the LNAV minimums.

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17
Q

When may visual circuit approaches be used?

A

Visual Circuit Approach shall only be used for Base Training Flights and expeditious returns following take-off.

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18
Q

Who should the crew contact within the company in the event of an operational contingency? When should it be done?

A

In the event of an operational contingency, the crew shall contact Network Control by the most expedient means available.

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18
Q

What are the actions in case of a pilot incapacitation?

A

a. Assure a safe condition of flight.
b. Take over the controls immediately.
c. Ensure that autopilot is engaged.
d. Declare an emergency.
e. Summon a cabin crew member immediately for assistance.
f. Remove the incapacitated pilot from the controls if practical.
g. Evaluate all operational aspects of the flight.
h. Determine the suitability of en-route airfields for an emergency landing.

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20
Q

When does the Stable Approach Criteria need to be met for CAT II and CAT III approaches?

A

1500 ft AAL.

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21
Q

Can augmenting crew members do the takeoff performance calculations?

A

No.

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21
Q

What is Emirates policy in regards to foam carpets?

A

It is Company policy not to request a foam carpet for an emergency landing with a defective landing gear. There is little evidence that this practice has any advantage for large commercial aircraft. If, however, the service is available and is offered without delay by ATC the Commander may elect to use it.

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23
Q

When can a turn be initiated below 500 feet?

A

When specifically required by the SID, by obstacles or NAP.

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24
Q

If windshear is reported or expected, which precautions should be considered?

A

a. Delayed take-off or landing.
b. Selection of the most favourable runway considering length, obstacles and climb-out direction.
c. Use of maximum thrust for take-off.

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24
Q

What are the rules for instrument approaches in IMC in regards to ceiling and vertical visibility?

A

An instrument approach in IMC may be commenced or continued down to the applicable approach minima irrespective of the reported ceiling/ vertical visibility.

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25
Q

Which commands will the cabin crew use in the event of an evacuation?

A

Open seat belt, leave everything, this way.

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27
Q

What are the rate of descent limitations?

A

5000 fpm to 5000 ft, 3000 fpm to 3000 ft, 2000 fpm to 1000 ft, 1000 fpm to landing.

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28
Q

During FANS operations does ATC instructions issued over VHF or HF supersede digital communication?

A

Yes.

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29
Q

When shall the purser be informed prior to top of descent?

A

The Purser shall be informed via interphone or personally, when twenty minutes remain to Top of Descent.

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30
Q

When should the Stable Approach Criteria be met?

A

At 1,000 ft AAL: if the criteria in Section 8.3.0.8.5.1 Stable Approach Criteria are not met then a go-around shall be flown, unless:

a. The aircraft speed does not meet the criterion but can reasonably be expected to be achieved by 500 ft AAL and the power set is appropriate to achieve this; or
b. The aircraft is in the planned landing configuration and all landing actions have been completed but the landing checklist has not yet been completed.

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31
Q

What is the policy on subsequent approaches following a missed approach?

A

If a second approach is unsuccessful, the aircraft should divert to the alternate airport, or hold until the weather conditions improve sufficiently for a third approach, and the Commander deems that there is a high likelihood of a successful landing from that approach. If a third approach is unsuccessful, the aircraft shall divert to the alternate airfield.

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32
Q

What WX needs to be considered in regards to a NPA, CAT I or GNSS approach?

A

Only the visibility or touchdown RVR.

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33
Q

If the fuel check trend is negative, what should be done?

A

Aircraft fuel consumption should be further investigated. If a fuel leak can be categorically excluded, appropriate corrective actions as follows should be considered.

a. Decrease aircraft speed (down to Max Range Speed/Cost Index minimum).
b. Obtain a more direct route.
c. Fly closer to the optimum FL (taking the wind into account).
d. Select a closer alternate airport.

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34
Q

When must pilot incapacitation be suspected?

A

Incapacitation must be suspected when a flight crew member does not respond to:

a. Two verbal communications when above 1,000 ft AGL.
b. One verbal communication when below 1,000 ft AGL.
c. Any verbal communication associated with significant deviation from the intended flight path.

35
Q

When should the gear be down and locked and the landing flap selected at the latest?

A

1500 feet AAL.

36
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

A runway is considered to be Contaminated, if more than 25% of its surface is covered with more than 3 mm of water, slush, wet snow or dry snow, or with any depth of compacted snow or ice.

36
Q

Where can the table for Approach Type Selection be found?

A

OM-A 8.3.18.3

36
Q

Can approaches be flown without the appropiate plate?

A

No.

36
Q

Which priorities determine the optimum use of autoflight systems?

A

The priorities of safety, efficiency and then passenger comfort will determine the optimum use of autoflight systems.

37
Q

When an en-route fuel check determines fuel at destination will be less than alternate + final RSV, what conditions must be met to continue to destination?

A

a. If maximum delay (if any) known or an EAT (Expected Approach Time) at destination is received from ATC, the flight may continue to destination or to hold, regardless of the number of runways as long as landing at destination is assured and it is possible to reach the destination with at least final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown.
b. If maximum delay not known and EAT at destination not received, the flight may still continue towards destination if it is possible to reach at least two airports at which landing is assured with at least final reserve fuel remaining at touchdown. Two separate and independent runways at a single airport within a flying time of two hours may be considered to be equivalent to two airports, provided that account is taken of fuel burn due any likely ATC delay.

38
Q

What systems take presedence over a TCAS RA?

A

Stall warning, windshear and EGPWS.

39
Q

When shall the 10000 ft/FL100 standard call be made if the airport is located higher than 1,000 ft above sea-level?

A

The called out altitude shall be amended to DEP/DEST ALT + 10,000 ft or + FL100, rounded up to the nearest 1,000 ft or Flight Level. The altitude callout shall be made when passing through the amended altitude/Flight Level, followed by the SOP actions, related to the callout.

41
Q

When are reduced thrust takeoffs not permitted?

A

On contaminated runways.

42
Q

When should the commander be notified in case of a non-normal situation during augmented crew operations?

A

After the appropiate checklist has been completed.

43
Q

What are the guidelines regarding Fly-by confirmation, e.g. for gear down confirmation?

A

They are prohibited.

44
Q

What needs to be done when any altimeter sub-scale setting is altered?

A

Whenever any altimeter sub-scale setting is altered, a crosscheck of all altimeters is to be made to confirm agreement.

46
Q

What is the correct response to a Long Landing alert?

A

An immediate go-around should be flown.

47
Q

What announcements should the Commander make if an emergency landing or ditching is imminent?

A

At 2000 ft: “This is the Captain, Attention Crew at Stations”.

At 500 ft (if the situation requires passengers and crew to brace for impact): “This is the Captain, Brace, Brace”.

48
Q

What needs to be transmitted to the company in case of a diversion?

A

An ACARS diversion report.

49
Q

What must the crew keep in mind when operating off route?

A

When operating even slightly off the route indicated on the Operational Flight Plan, the MORAs previously applicable may no longer be valid and caution must be exercised especially during the climb to and descent from the cruising level.

50
Q

What should a pilot do when radio communication fails?

A

When radio communication fails on an assigned frequency, the Pilot shall attempt to make contact on another set if available. If unable he shall then try to contact on any appropriate radio frequency or 121.5 MHz. A relay through other stations (including another aircraft) with whom communications can be established should be attempted.

If radio communication fails during flight, follow the specific instructions for the country being overflown, or use the ICAO Communications Failure procedures, as contained in the LIDO Route manual, General Part, COM 1.3.

51
Q

Which manual takes presedence over all others?

A

OM-A

52
Q

During descent, when shall the seatbelt sign be switched on?

A

When at or below 20,000 ft AAL during the descent. However should holding or a delayed arrival be anticipated, switching on the Seat Belt sign may be delayed to 10,000 ft AAL at the latest.

54
Q

Can fuel jettison be done in absence of an emergency?

A

Yes, but Flight OPS Management permission is required.

56
Q

Which responsibilities do the crew accept when performing a visual approach?

A

Traffic and wake turbulence seperation as well as navigation and terrain clearance.

58
Q

What is the Emergency Authority of the Commander?

A

The Commander is permitted to deviate from prescribed rules, minima,
regulations and procedures as required for flight safety considerations
during an emergency.

59
Q

What shall a crew member do any time a he makes an adjustment or change to any setting or controls?

A

He shall advise the other crew member of his action and intention, and receive an acknowledgement from the other crew member.

60
Q

If an incapacitation occurs during approach to land, may the remaining pilot continue to land?

A

The remaining pilot may continue the planned approach if he considers that the approach and landing can be completed safely.

62
Q

At which mean wind speed should an airport be considered closed?

A

60 kts or above.

63
Q

What minimum amount of fuel should be onboard after fuelling is complete and the bowser has been released?

A

The amount of fuel remaining should not be less than the fuel required to proceed to an airport where a safe landing can be made, with final reserve fuel remaining.

65
Q

What does the term Polar Operation describe?

A

The operation of flights north of 78 degrees North latitude.

66
Q

What distance should Strong Weather Radar echoes be avoided by?

A

10 nm at or below FL200, 20 nm above FL200.

67
Q

When, in an emergency, shall the commander conduct the landing?

A

When the airplane performance is affected.

68
Q

What is the definition of a hard landing?

A

A landing with a sink rate of 600 fpm or greater.

69
Q

In what level of thunderstorm activity is takeoff and landing prohibited?

A

Heavy.

70
Q

When shall the landing distance be recalculated?

A

The landing distance shall be recalculated if there has been a landing runway change, the runway is contaminated, or the aircraft status has changed to affect its stopping capability.

71
Q

Which malfunctions should be called out during the takeoff roll?

A

Only malfunctions having a direct bearing on the decision to reject should be called out during the take-off roll. The call shall be made in clear and concise terms by the crew member who first notices the malfunction.

73
Q

Is 50 ft to be added to the published MDA?

A

No.

74
Q

For VOR or NDB approaches, if ground based navaids are inoperative or on test, or if the aircraft equipment is not installed or is inoperative, may the approach still be flown?

A

The approach may still be flown. The requirements to conduct the approach are the same as for an RNAV approach.

75
Q

Which conditions need to be met to fulfill Stable Approach Criteria?

A
  • All briefings and checklists have been actioned.
  • Aircraft in the planned configuration, ie. landing gear down and locked, landing flap set and speedbrake armed.
  • Aircraft is on the correct flight path.
  • Speed not more than Vref +10 kts and not less than Vref.
  • Power setting is appropiate for the aircraft configuration.
76
Q

Below which altitude are orbits prohibited? Can they be done during night?

A

1500 ft AGL or circuit altitude, whichever higher. Crew may only request an orbit if it can be conducted in daylight VMC whilst maintaining constant visual contact with terrain. If ATC request an orbit while the aircraft is under radar control, this may be accomplished in IMC or VMC, day or night.

77
Q

If operation in or through an area of turbulence is unavoidable, which precautions shall be taken?

A

a. Seat Belt sign shall be switched on.
b. The purser shall be notified, and a recommendation to limit or cease cabin service made, if appropriate.
c. The ‘Cabin crew take your seats’ call made (if appropriate).
d. All loose objects shall be secured and full harness worn.
e. Where lightning is expected, cockpit lighting should be set to high intensity.
f. Aircraft speed closely monitored in accordance with FCOM turbulence penetration procedures.

78
Q

What are the primary means of vertical navigation when visual for ILS and VNAV approach?

A

For an ILS, the electronic glideslope takes presedence. For a VNAV approach, once suitable visual reference is established, primary means of navigation is the visual flightpath.

79
Q

When is takeoff prohibited on contaminated runways?

A

a. Take-off is prohibited on icy runways.
b. Take-off or landing is prohibited on runways covered with more than 13 mm of standing water, or 13 mm of slush, or 100 mm of dry snow or 25 mm of wet snow.

81
Q

What is the “All Clear” signal?

A

The engineer showing the by-pass pin in one hand, and thumbs up with the other.

82
Q

Is an overweight landing a desirable event?

A

Overweight landing can cause additional stress to the airframe and is, especially for the Boeing fleet, an undesirable event. Every effort should be made to land a Boeing 777 either at or below MLW.

83
Q

After an engine failure in flight what factors should be considered in determining the suiatbility of an airport?

A
  1. Airplane configuration/weight/systems status/fuel remaining.
  2. Wind and weather conditions en-route at the diversion altitude.
  3. Minimum altitudes en-route to the diversion airport.
  4. Fuel burn to the diversion airport.
  5. Weather, wind and terrain in the vicinity.
  6. Runways available and runway surface condition.
  7. Approach navaids and lighting available.
  8. RFF category at the diversion airport.
  9. Known security issues.
  10. Facilities for passenger and crew disembarkation and accommodation.
  11. Pilots familiarity with the airport including characteristics of the airport of choice compared with the nearest suitable airport.
  12. Information about the airport provided to the pilots by the operator.
84
Q

If the Contingency fuel has been consumed due to departure delays, holding altitude or route restrictions, can the flight continue as planned?

A

Yes, the flight should be continued with careful monitoring of the fuel trend.

85
Q

When should a “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL” call be made?

A

If, at any time, it is evident that the aircraft will land with less than Final Reserve.

86
Q

For VOR or NDB approaches, if ground based navaids are inoperative, may the approach still be flown?

A

Yes, if the RNAV requirements are met.

87
Q

When is the use of autobrake recommended?

A
  • CAT II/III landings.
  • Wet or contaminated runways.
  • Landings with OEI.
  • Crosswind in excess of 15 kts.
88
Q

Is the use if reverse thrust permitted during taxi?

A

Only in an emergency.

89
Q

When is the No Contact Period in effect?

A

Start of takeoff roll to L/G retracts. Extension of L/G to RWY vacated.

90
Q

Is a combination of cold temperature and displaced threshold corrections allowed?

A

No.

91
Q

When, during taxi, must the parking break be set?

A

Anytime the aircraft is brought to a complete stop.

92
Q

Below which altitude should paperwork not be done?

A

Below 10000 ft. Only essential below 20000 ft.

94
Q

When shall the aircraft meet the Stable Approach Requirements for CAT II/III approaches?

A

1500 ft AAL.

95
Q

Which restrictions exist for taxi from the right seat?

A

Onto stands with parking guidance only suitable for left seat taxi and no 180 degree turns.

96
Q

Which factors should be considered regarding the suitability of an alternate airfield if a diversion becomes necessary?

A
  1. Weather.
  2. Fuel.
  3. Ground handling facilities.
  4. Apron parking space.
  5. Performance limitiations.
97
Q

Where can guidelines for diversion be found?

A

OM-A 8.3.0.10

98
Q

If, at any time, it becomes apparent that the aircraft may land with less than Final Reserve, what call should be made to ATC?

A

A “MINIMUM FUEL” call shall be made to ATC.

99
Q

When is a runway considered to be wet?

A

A runway is considered to be Wet, if more than 25% of its surface is covered with water, slush, wet snow or dry snow and the depth of the water, slush, wet snow or dry snow is less than or equal to 3 mm. (A Damp runway is considered to be Wet.)

100
Q

What is the basic policy regarding RTO?

A

To be ‘go-minded’, unless the stopping actions can be initiated before V1.