Flight Deck and Crew Awareness Flashcards

1
Q

What does EDS stand for and what are the main components?

A

Electronic Display System. Main components are: 5 display units, 1 guidance panel, 2 cursor control devices (CCDs), 2 multifunction Control display units (MCDUs), 1 EICAS full button, 2 reversionary panels, MAU hardware, Control I/O modules, EDS application software on processor module

ASM 2-15

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2
Q

What main information is displayed on the PFD?

A

Airspeed, Altitude, ADI, HSI, Vertical Speed Indicator, Flight director, Radio altitude data, Radio Aids, Autopilot

AMS 2-17

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3
Q

If information is mismatched between 2 PFDs what happens?

A

No information at all will be presented

ASM 2-17

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4
Q

Which display has the menu softkeys?

A

MFD

ASM 2-20

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5
Q

The MFD presents what 2 navigation formats?

A

Map and Plan

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6
Q

What is the third primary function of the MFD?

A

Displays various systems synoptic formats

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7
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System

ASM 2-22

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8
Q

In addition to crew alerting, what else does the EICAS display?

A

Engine and various system parameters such as flaps, gear, spoilers, trim, fuel, APU, and environmental

ASM 2-22

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9
Q

Which displays can be reverted? Which displays cannot be reverted?

A
  • MFDs (DU 2 & 4) can be reverted to either EICAS or PFD
  • PFDs (DU 1 & 5) and EICAS (DU 3) cannot be reverted

ASM 2-17

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10
Q

What is the reversionary priority (highest to lowest)?

A
  1. PFD, 2. EICAS, 3. MFD

ASM 2-17

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11
Q

How many reversionary panel controls are in the airplane?

A

2, one for each pilot

ASM 2-31

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12
Q

What does DU3 always display?

A

EICAS

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13
Q

Which display units will always operate as primary flight displays?

A

DU1 and DU5

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14
Q

What happens with the DISPLAYS selector in AUTO?

A
  • EICAS failure EICAS is displayed on associated MFD
  • PFD failure Respective PFD displays associated side MFD
  • MFD failure No auto reversion
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15
Q

Explain the ‘PFD’, ‘MFD’, and ‘EICAS’ selections on the REVERSIONARY panel

A
  • PFD Respective PFD will display on associated MFD
  • MFD MFD cannot be reverted
  • EICAS EICAS displays on the associated MFD
  • Automatically reverts the MFD in case of display failure
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16
Q

How many ADSs (Air Data Systems) are installed and how are they assigned?

A

• 5 installed: ADS 1 = Captain, ADS 2 = First Officer, ADS 3 = Standby, ADS 4 = IESS, ADS 5 = Flight Controls

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17
Q

How would you display the Captain’s PFD on DU 2?

A

On the Captain’s reversionary panel move the selector to PFD

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18
Q

What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?

A

ADS 3 automatically becomes the source, If ADS 3 fails, then the respective cross-side ADS is used (i.e. ADS 1 reverts to ADS 2)

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19
Q

What happens if the ADS button is pushed?

A
  • The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3
  • The respective onside ADS reverts to the xXside ADS if the button is pushed a second time
  • The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed
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20
Q

What indication would you get when you push the ADS or IRS pushbutton?

A

A white striped bar illuminates on the button

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21
Q

How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed?

A

An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD

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22
Q

Is there an associated ADS or IRS source flag displayed anywhere?

A

Yes, on the PFD

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23
Q

Briefly describe what a Modular Avionics Unit (MAU) is?

A

It’s a cabinet that houses modules assigned to different functions in an integrated architecture and also avionics and non avionics functions

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24
Q

Where are MAUs 1 and 2 located? MAU 3?

A

1 & 2 are in FWD Electronics bay. 3 is in Central Electronics Bay

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25
Q

What are the 2 power sources for MAU 1? MAU 2? MAU 3?

A

MAU 1 = DC1 & ESS 1, MAU 2 = DC 2 & ESS 2, MAU 3 = DC 2 & ESS 2

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26
Q

What does the SRC button do?

A

It alternates the Captain and First Officer AFCS side as the data source

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27
Q

What does the green arrow on the FMA indicate?

A

The green arrow indicates the selected AFCS source

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28
Q

Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure?

A

No, it must be manually reverted

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29
Q

When IRS 1 fails what must be done?

A

IRS 2 must be selected on the reversionary panel

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30
Q

What happens if the IRS button is pushed?

A

The respective IRS to the xXside IRS source

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31
Q

What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS’s fail?

A

IESS

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32
Q

What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS?

A

LOC BC

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33
Q

Where would each pilot control the brightness of their PFD, MFD, and EICAS display?

A

On their respective glareshield lights control panel but the Captain controls the EICAS

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34
Q

Where is the STBY/CLK brightness control located?

A

On the First Officers Glareshield Lights Control Panel

ASM 2-34

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35
Q

How many aural warning controllers are installed?

A

2

ASM 19-26

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36
Q

What are the levels of aural alerts?

A

Emergency (level 3), Non-Normal (level 2), Advisory (level 1), Information (level 0)

ASM 19-26

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37
Q

What happens when the vertical speed exceeds 4,000 fpm?

A

The pointer parks at the end of the scale and the digital display shows the actual vertical speed

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38
Q

The aircraft acceleration/deceleration is indicated where and by what?

A

PFD, Acceleration pointer

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39
Q

When does the EICAS automatic mode decluttering occur after takeoff?

A

Decluttering occurs 30 seconds after landing gear retraction and flap/slat retraction, if all parameters are displaying normal indications

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40
Q

Where do new EICAS messages appear?

A

Top of the EICAS list and flashes inverse video

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41
Q

What items are decluttered on the EICAS?

A

Oil Pressure, Oil Temperature, Engine Vibration, Slat Position, Flap Position, Speed Brake Position, Landing Gear Position, Pitch Trim Green Band

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42
Q

After decluttering the EICAS, what information is displayed?

A

N1, ITT, Fuel, APU, Trim, Cabin

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43
Q

What does the EICAS FULL button do?

A

IN Inhibits the automatic deXclutter of the EICAS (white stripe)
OUT – Enables auto declutter

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44
Q

When will the EICAS display all of its information?

A
  • When the gear is down, flaps are extended, spoilers are deployed under normal conditions, or APU running
  • EICAS FULL button pushed
  • After EICAS automatic deXclutter when a cautionary condition is detected on one of the deXcluttered indications
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45
Q

What color is the course needle (CDI) when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?

A
  • FMS Magenta
  • VOR/LOC Green
  • XXside info Yellow
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46
Q

The primary and backup methods of radio tuning are:

A

MCDU; CCD

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47
Q

The Audio control panel display shows what?

A

VHF COM

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48
Q

EICAS can display how many messages? How can you scroll through additional messages?

A

15 messages, CCD knob by the user that selected the EICAS last

49
Q

What happens when you operate the Master Volume Control Knob on the ACP?

A

The knob will adjust the volume on the most recently selected

50
Q

Where is the weather radar tilt knob located?

A

It uses the rotary knob on the CCD after radar selection is made

51
Q

What does the tuning knob on the CCD do?

A

There is an outer and inner knob. They select values in the field enclosed by the cursor

52
Q

When will the PREVIEW button show the correct ILS Frequency and Course?

A
  • FMS is set to Auto Tune
  • Approach is set in the MCDU
  • Within 25 miles of the airport
53
Q

Will the CCD ever go to a default position when not in use?

A

Yes, after 20 seconds provided there are no virtual control panels and pull-down menus opened

54
Q

What 3 displays can be selected with the format location button on the CCD?

A

PFD, MFD, EICAS

55
Q

What happens with a failure of an audio panel or both digital audio busses?

A
  • Radio backup operation is available by pushing out the BKUP knob on the Audio Control Panel
  • The BKUP switches will provide the captain VHF 1 capability and the F/O VHF 2 capability
56
Q

On the audio control panel (ACP) the oxygen mask microphone is activated by?

A
  • Removing the oxygen mask from stowage and

* Pushing out the Auto/Mask switch to the mask position

57
Q

Is communication still capable using the hand or headset microphone even if the oxygen mask stowage box doors are open?

A

No

58
Q

Which audio warnings are presented with no other voice messages so the crew can clearly hear the information messages? What condition takes precedence over the 3 previous conditions?

A
  • GPWS, TCAS and Windshear

* Stall Condition

59
Q

What is the priority of multiple alerts?

A

EGPWS, TCAS, Overspeed, Fire, Landing Gear

60
Q

How many aural warning controllers are installed?

A

Two: 1 master, and 1 slave

61
Q

What are the Aural Warning Priority Levels?

A

Emergency (Level 3), NonXNormal (Level 2), Advisory (Level 1), Informational (Level 0)

62
Q

What are the 4 CAS message priority levels order of presentation?

A

Warning (Red), Caution (Amber), Advisory (Cyan), Status (White)

63
Q

What happens when a new warning, caution, advisory, or status are displayed?

A

They are presented flashing in reverse video

64
Q

What is the purpose of an aural warning?

A

Aural warnings are used when the pilot needs immediate knowledge of a condition without needing to look at a visual display or indicator

65
Q

What is the indication of a suitable takeoff configuration?

A

A voice message “TAKEOFF OK” is generated

66
Q

What happens if the airplane is not set to the takeoff configuration?

A

An aural warning is generated that will refer to the associated takeoff configuration deviation

67
Q

•Depressing the EMER button on the Audio Control Panel will ?

A
  • Parking brake Off
  • Spoilers Stowed (not deployed)
  • Flaps Set for takeoff
  • Pitch trim Set for takeoff (green band)
68
Q

How does the takeoff config button test the takeoff config?

A

By simulating the power levers in the advanced position

69
Q

In the event of a failure of both MFD’s and EICAS where might some messages be displayed?

A

MCDU

70
Q

If crew oxygen mask stowage box doors are open ?

A

Only the headset microphone is disabled

71
Q

What happens when you push the RAMP button on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)?

A

The ramp button bar will illuminate and you can use the mike on your headset to communicate with the ground assuming the headset is plugged in at the external power panel

72
Q

The PTT position on the Control Wheel Communications Switch allows what?

A

VHF transmission as well as voice communication with passengers

73
Q

Circuit breakers on the Captain side are numbered and circuit breakers on the First Officer side are numbered ?

A

1X20 Captain, 21X40 First Officer

74
Q

What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS?

A

All hard surface runways > 3500’

75
Q

What do the colors presented by the EGPWS represent?

A
  • SOLID RED: Warning Terrain (Approximately 30 sec. from impact)
  • SOLID YELLOW: Caution Terrain (Approximately 60 sec. from impact)
  • HIGH DENSITY RED DOTS: Terrain that is more than 2000 ft. above airplane altitude
  • HIGH DENSITY YELLOW DOTS: Terrain that is between 1000 and 2000 ft. above airplane altitude
  • LOW DENSITY YELLOW DOTS: Terrain that is between 500 ft. (250 ft. with gear down) below and 1000 ft. above airplane altitude
  • SOLID GREEN: Highest terrain not within 500 ft. (250 ft. with gear down) ft. of aircraft altitude. May appear with dotted yellow terrain when the aircraft altitude is within 500 ft. (250 ft. with gear down) of terrain
  • HIGH DENSITY GREEN DOTS: Terrain that is the middle elevation band when there is no red or yellow terrain areas within range on the display
  • LOW DENSITY GREEN DOTS: Terrain that is the lower elevation band when there is no red or yellow terrain areas within range on the display
  • LIGHT DENSITY CYAN DOTS: Terrain elevation equal to 0 ft. MSL
76
Q

What powers the EGPWS?

A

DC ESS BUS 2, so it will work only on batteries

77
Q

The EGPWS receives information from what main systems?

A

EGPWS, Air Data, FMS, GPS, Radar Altimeter, ILS or glideslope receiver, AHRS, VG (attitude), Landing gear, Stall warning or AOA (wind shear only), Weather radar, EFIS, or a dedicated terrain display

78
Q

How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS?

A
  • SOLID RED 30 sec

* SOLID YELLOW 60 sec

79
Q

When should the ‘GND PROX TERR INHIBIT’ button be pushed?

A

Inhibits EGPWS and avoids unwanted terrain alerts when operating at airports not in the EGPWS database

80
Q

What will generate a windshear caution? Warning?

A
  • Caution Increasing headwind and updrafts

* Warning Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, and downdrafts

81
Q

What is our policy for windshear encounters?

A
  • Caution Captain/crew discretion

* Warning Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration until warning ceases

82
Q

How is the pilot alerted during a windshear?

A
  • Caution Amber windshear flag on PFD / aural “CAUTION, WINDSHEAR”
  • Warning Red windshear flag on PFD / aural “WINDHSEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”
83
Q

Windshear detection is activated between what altitudes?

A

10 and 1500 ft Radio Altitude

84
Q

Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance?

A

Yes

85
Q

What activates Windshear guidance?

A
  • Manually: pressing the Go Around Button while a windshear condition is detected
  • Automatically: operating in goXaround or takeoff mode and a windshear condition is detected
  • Automatically when TL position > 78 and a warning windshear condition is detected
86
Q

How long will the windshear alerting last?

A

Until 1500’ RA

87
Q

Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and/or EGPWS are inop?

A

No

88
Q

What happens to the previously engaged vertical mode when the Windshear protection is automatically activated?

A

The vertical mode will remain armed (white), and will become active again when the windshear protection is no longer necessary

89
Q

What flap setting should you plan on using when windshear alerts are in effect?

A

5

90
Q

What does an ATT or HDG flag on a PFD indicate?

A

Attitude or Heading reference cannot be determined by the associated IRS

91
Q

What does a red ‘X’ on the ASI, altimeter, or VSI indicate?

A

Airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed cannot be determined by the ADS

92
Q

What are some items you are checking for on the PFD?

A

EHSI and compass no flags and same headings, EADIs level and flag free

93
Q

MFD what are you checking for?

A
  • Hydraulic fluid quantity and the pressure on the Hydraulic Synoptic page
  • Verify hydraulic brake accumulator pressure, oil quantities, and oxygen quantity
94
Q

The IESS can display what?

A

Displays attitude (pitch and roll), altitude, and indicated airspeed, mach, Vmo/Mmo, slip indication, VS, ILS, Barometric pressure, altitude in meters

95
Q

What happens when the BANK Button is pressed?

A

The bank is limited to 17 used by the FGCS. A white arc is automatically displayed on the PFD when above 25,000’

96
Q

The IESS takes how long to align?

A

90 seconds

97
Q

When is the IESS powered?

A

When the batteries are switched to AUTO

98
Q

How is the IESS powered in an electrical emergency?

A

The IESS is powered by the RAT and batteries

99
Q

When is the GND PROX GS INHIB switch used?

A

To manually cancel glideslope alerts. Anytime below 2,000 feet radar altitude and will automatically be reset by climbing above 2,000 feet or descending below 30 feet

100
Q

The air data system comprises of what components?

A

4 ADSP’s, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADA’s and the BARO set on the GP

101
Q

What does the TAT’s and ADSP’s provide?

A

Total and static pressure, AOA, TAT

102
Q

What are the 3 lights that are not buttons?

A

Parking Brake, (Doors) UNLOCKED, (Oxygen) Mask Deployed

103
Q

Which IRS is the primary source for the CAPT PFD?

A

IRS 1

104
Q

When would you use the GND PROX FLAP OVRD switch?

A

To inhibit triggering flap alerts in case of landings were flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration

105
Q

What does selecting SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do?

A

Reduces the sweep angle to X30 degrees and increases the sweep

106
Q

During the Captains and First Officers Panel prep flow after a power up, an expired navigation database will be indicated on the MCDU NAV IDENT page by?

A

Both database effective dates displayed in YELLOW text and scratch pad message: DATABASE OUTXOFXDATE

107
Q

What is the maximum straight ahead taxi speed?

A

30 knots

108
Q

TCAS establishes an alert zone based on what?

A

Separation and speeds of both airplanes

109
Q

TCAS alert zone is based on time. How long until a conflict is expected to occur if no action is taken for a warning and caution?

A
  • Warning: 20X30 seconds

* Caution: 35X40 seconds

110
Q

TCAS recommends a vertical or horizontal maneuver to avoid conflicting traffic?

A

Vertical

111
Q

A Traffic Advisory (TA) is generated when?

A

An intruder aircraft enters the caution zone

112
Q

What should a pilot do when a TA is generated?

A
  • Visually locate the intruder so preventative action can be taken
  • Do not maneuver based on the TA alone
113
Q

When is a Resolution Advisory (RA) generated?

A
  • If the warning area is penetrated

* Corrective action is generated to permit greatest possible separation at the closest Point of Approach (CPA)

114
Q

Which airplane transponders allow for an RA? Which for a TA?

A

RA: Mode S or C, TA: Mode S, C, or A

115
Q

TCAS interfaces with which aircraft systems?

A

Radar altimeter, Mode S Transponder, CMC, Display Bus (MAU and EDS), Modular Radio Cabinet (MRC), DVDR, Discretes: Weight on wheels, Landing gear down, warning inhibits

116
Q

At the upper right of the PFD altitude tape, an amber ALT appears (vertically) in an amber box. What does this mean?

A

Displays whenever altitude miscompare is detected

117
Q

On the ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist what are some items you’re checking for on the PFD?

A
  • Airspeed tape – no speeds
  • EADI – level and no flags
  • Altitude tape – within limits (±75 ft)
  • VSI – 0
  • EHSI and compass – Same headings and no flags
118
Q

On the ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist what are some items you’re checking for on the MFD?

A
  • Looking for green indications (no amber)
  • Hydraulic page check
  • Fluid quantity
  • Hydraulic pressure
  • Status page check
  • Hydraulic brake accumulator pressures
  • Oil quantities
  • Oxygen quantity (842 psi for 2 and 1150 for 3)