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RJET E170 Study Guide 12B > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW?

A

Aileron

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2
Q

What is the main difference between the ailerons and the other flight controls?

A

The ailerons are driven by conventional control cables that are connected to hydraulic actuators (hydro-mechanical) while the rest of the flight controls are FBW. FBW hydraulic actuators are called power control units (PCU)

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3
Q

You are looking at the flap position on the EICAS and position indicator is showing amber. What does this mean?

A

The flaps are in transit. It will turn green when stable

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4
Q

What will the EICAS display if a flap jam occurs?

A

EICAS message plus an amber box on the flap display

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5
Q

What are the two basic flight control modes of operation? If all systems are operating normally what will be the flight control mode?

A

Normal and Direct, normal

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6
Q

What is the difference between the normal and direct modes of operation?

A
  • There are no higher functions available in direct

- The FCMs are removed

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7
Q

How does the Fly by wire system work?

A

The FCM units are connected to the ACE via the controller area network bus (CAN BUS) providing digital inputs to the ACE that are combined with pilot inputs

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8
Q

What are the primary control electronics?

A

Primary - Actuator control electronics (P-ACE)

- Flight control module (FCM)

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9
Q

How many ACE’s are installed? How many channels does each one have?

A

9 (3 P-ACE, 2 SF-ACE, 3 Spoiler ACE, and 1 HS-ACE)

- 2

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10
Q

Explain in general terms what the direct mode is?

A

The flight control mode (FCM) is removed form the control loop and the control limits default to the values set by the primary actuator control electronics (P-ACE). The highest level functions of the particular flight control are removed.

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11
Q

There are three Flight Control Mode guarded buttons. What do they do?

A

When pushed in the put the associated flight system into the direct mode from the normal mode bypassing the FCM and all higher level functions

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12
Q

What three flight systems have Flight Control Mode buttons?

A

Rudder, Spoilers, Elevator

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13
Q

What would cause the FCM to go into the direct mode?

A

The loss of airspeed data

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14
Q

Can the direct mode be selected by the pilot?

A

Yes, but pressing the FLT Control Mode button on (out is normal)

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15
Q

Will the multi-function spoilers function in the DIRECT mode? Will speed brakes/ground spoilers?

A

Multi-function spoilers - Yes, but a default fixed gain is used
Speed brakes/ground spoilers - No, they’re controlled by the FCM

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16
Q

Is AOA Limit Protection available in direct mode?

A

No

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17
Q

Can you stall the airplane in direct mode?

A

Yes

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18
Q

The stall protection system provides warning to the pilot when the aircraft speed is approaching stall speed. How does it do this?

A

The AFCS activates the stick shaker on the control column

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19
Q

How does the FCM provide stall protection?

A

By means of the AOA limiting function

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20
Q

What does the AOA limiting function do?

A

Reduces control column authority in the nose up direction gradually reducing until the control column reaches the aft stop thereby limiting AOA

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21
Q

FCM computes an AOA limting command using what?

A

AOA data, control column position and inertial feeback

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22
Q

A pitch limit indicator shows what? Why speeds correlate to what color? (Amber and red are the same for the low speed awareness tape)

A
  • Shows margin between AOA and stick shaker activation
  • Green: 1.2 Vstall to 1.13 Vstall
  • Amber: 1.13 Vstall to Vshaker
  • Red: at or below Vshaker
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23
Q

What three surfaces are shown on the Flight Control System Status Annunciation?

A

Rudder, Elev LH, Elev RH

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24
Q

Which elevator surface does HYD Sys 1 control? HYD System 2? HYD System 3?

A

Left outboard - System 1
L and R inboard - System 2
Right outboard - System 3

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25
Q

Which HYD System is not used for the rudder?

A

System 2

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26
Q

Which hydraulic system power the inboard aileron PCUs? Outboard aileron PCUs?

A

HYD system 2

HYD system 3

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27
Q

Which HYD systems power which rudder surface? Which HYD system is not used for the rudder?

A
  • HYD system 1 powers upper rudder
  • HYD system 3 powers lower rudder
  • HYD system 2 is not used
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28
Q

Which HYD systems power the ground spoilers?

A
  • HYD system 1 powers L2 and R2 (outboards)

- HYD system 2 powers L1 and R1 (inboards)

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29
Q

There is an upper and lower rudder surface. What about the elevators?

A

There is an inboard and outboard elevator surface

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30
Q

If a jam occurs in one elevator what happens to the system?

A

That one surface remains fixed and the pilot controls the remaining elevator surfaces

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31
Q

How can a pilot disconnect a jammed rudder?

A

He can’t

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32
Q

Where can you find a visual representation of the flight control system operations and parameters?

A

The flight control system synoptic on the MFD

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33
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with pitch

A

Gain on airspeed, elevator thrust compensation, AOA limiting

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34
Q

Going from Normal to Direct mode how is the ridder affected?

A

You’ll lose the higher level functions

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35
Q

What is the elevator thrust compensator function?

A
  • It moves the elevator +- 5 deg to compensate for engine thrust changes
  • Stabilizes the aircraft about the pitch axis and will only be available in normal mode only, as computed by the FCM
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36
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with yaw (rudder)?

A
  • Yaw damp
  • Turn coordination
  • Thrust asymmetry
  • Gain on airspeed
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37
Q

What do you lose when you into Direct mode

A

All the higher level functions for the associated flight control

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38
Q

Where would the stab trim setting be displayed on the flight deck

A

In the lower right corner of the EICAS display

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39
Q

Do we have a trim check procedure?

A

Yes. Verify roll, yaw and pitch (main and backup) trims are operating properly in both directions. Verify systems’ 3-second protection is working properly. Adjust yaw and roll trim to the neutral position and pith trim to the green band

40
Q

What is the purpose of the pitch trim switch?

A

To trim the airplane when the autopilot is off

41
Q

What is the green takeoff band of the pitch trim?

A

-1 to -6 degrees

42
Q

The HS-ACE responds to?

A

Trim commands from the backup trim, captain trim, FO trim and FCM trim inputs

43
Q

What is the priority for the trim system?

A
  1. Backup
  2. Captain
  3. FO
  4. Autopilot (FCM, auto-trim)
44
Q

Does the trim switch activate the trim through the FCM?

A

No, only the autopilot trim uses the FCM

45
Q

If only 1/2 of a trim switch is erroneously actuated for more than 7 seconds what happens?

A

That switch will automatically be deactivated, an aural warning “trim” will be activated for 6 seconds and advisory EICAS message will be displayed requiring maintenance to clear

46
Q

How would we trim the stabilizer if the normal trim doesn’t function?

A

Use the backup pitch trim switch on the center console

47
Q

What will happen if using the backup pitch trim switch?

A

Autopilot will disengage

48
Q

How are the light controls trimmed?

A

Roll and yaw: Ailerons and rudder surface repositioned to new neutral position
Pitch: horizontal stabilizer

49
Q

What does pressing the AP/TRUM DISC button do?

A

Disconnects both HS-ACE channels but only while held. Releasing it will activate the channel again

50
Q

What prevents aileron runaway trim

A

There is a 3-second timer that limits trim activation to no more than 3 seconds

51
Q

What happens if the yaw or roll trim switches are held in position for more than 3 seconds

A

The trim stops. The switch must now be released and re-energized to the next application

52
Q

Can we disable channel 1 or 2 of the HS-ACE?

A

Yes, by using the pitch trim Sys 1 (2) guarded button on the center console trim panel. The respective channel is disabled when pushed in (out is normal)

53
Q

Which flight controls use electrical power instead of hydraulic power for actuation?

A

Flaps, slats, horizontal stabilizer

54
Q

How does the aileron control system work?

A

Commands are transferred mechanically to two hydro-mechanical actuators through cables

55
Q

If the flap/slat lever is left between positions 2 and 3 as an example, what do the flaps/slats do?

A

They remain at the last selected position

56
Q

On the E-170 which takeoff flap settings are approved?

A

1, 2 and 4

57
Q

Why is flap/slat position 4 have a gated stop?

A

For normal go around and takeoff

58
Q

What two flap lever positions provide identical flap and slat positions

A

Flaps 4 and 5

59
Q

How many degrees of flap and sea does full flaps provide?

A

35 degrees flap and 25 degrees slat

60
Q

If the flap/slat lever is out of the 0 position, how will invalid slat information be shown on the EICAS display?

A

The slat will be removed from the display

61
Q

What are the two main parts of the fly by wire primary flight control electronics?

A

Primary Actuator Control Electronics (P-ACE) and Flight Control Modules (FCM)

62
Q

What do the Flight Control Modules do?

A

They provide software based airspeed gain schedules and control limits to the P-ACE as well as high level functions

63
Q

How is roll controlled?

A

Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)

64
Q

If the rudder trim is held in the left or right position for longer than 3 seconds, the rudder trim does what?

A

The trim stops. The knob must now be released and re-engaged for further trim

65
Q

How many multi-function spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions? Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers?

A
  • 3 outboard spoilers are used to assist in roll control and for ground spoilers
  • Ground spoiler function commands all 10 ground spoilers at the full rate
66
Q

When does full multi0function spoiler extension occur>

A
  • Weight on wheels on ground
  • Wheel speed is above 45 knots or airspeed is above 60 KIAS and
  • Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) is below 60 degrees
67
Q

Do all multi-function spoiler panels deploy symmetrically in response to speed brake lever position?

A

Yes

68
Q

Can a FCM override pilot input?

A

No, pilot always has supreme control

69
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lever shows deployed?

A

Flaps >= 2, Airspeed > 180 knots, or TLA > 60 deg

70
Q

What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?

A

Slats extend first, flaps retract first

71
Q

How do the artificial feel units operate?

A

Preloaded springs

72
Q

What happens to the artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?

A

Artificial feel is felt at 1/2 the normal load

73
Q

Does the feel system still work in the event of a jammed control wheel resulting in separation?

A

Yes, each torque tube has it’s own spring but the feel will be lighter (1/2 of normal load)

74
Q

If the captain’s and FO’s control column is separated can they reconnect them?

A

No, can only be manually reset by maint

75
Q

In the event of an aileron jam followed by a disconnect which side has normal feel and which side has no feel?

A

Captain’s side has normal feel, FO side has no feel

76
Q

After a disconnect, the pilot of he non jammed side retains control over which elevator?

A

The onside elevator

77
Q

There are inner, middle and outboard spoilers on each wing. In the event of a disconnect due to jamming which side controls which spoilers

A
  • Captain side controls outboard
  • FO controls middle
  • Inboard spoilers are disabled
78
Q

If the aircraft has touched down and the ground spoilers have deployed. When the thrust levers are advanced beyond 60 deg TLA, the spoilers do what following rollout?

A

Automatically retract

79
Q

What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?

A
  • Horizontal stab trim operates at 1/2 speed
  • Slat/flap system operates at 1/2 speed
  • Slat/flap position is limited to ‘3’ to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
80
Q

What hydraulic pump is being used when the RAT is deployed?

A

Hydraulic pump 3A

81
Q

What happens when the STALL WARNING SHAKER CUTOUT (1) or (2) button is pushed?

A

Cuts out the associated shaker channel

82
Q

How would you be alerted to an AOA limit failure?

A

An EICAS message

83
Q

What happens when the stick shaker is activated?

A

Control column authority is limited in the nose up direction

84
Q

Do you have to arm the spoilers prior to landing?

A

No, the FCMs will automatically deploy the spoilers as part of the landing roll

85
Q

The two aileron PCUs per side operate the aileron surface:

A

in active/standby configuration

86
Q

In case of a single electric motor failure within the flap PDU, how will the system operate?

A

The flap/slat system will operate at a low rate speed

87
Q

When do the flaps/slats work only at 1/2 speed?

A

RAT deployment

88
Q

Design maneuvering speed?

A

240 knots

89
Q

As you reach VMO the multifunction spoilers will do what and why?

A

Extend at 8 deg to prevent overspeed

90
Q

Max flap extension altitude? Why?

A

20,000ft, mach tuck

91
Q

In case of aileron, rudder or elevator fail what is the max airspeed?

A

220 KIAS

92
Q

What are the 2 flap limitations?

A
  • Enroute use is prohibited

- Do not hold in icing with flaps extended

93
Q

What indication on the EICAS would indicate the speed brakes are open?

A

A white SPDBRK annunciation

94
Q

What are the 5 thrust reverser limitations

A

Ground use only, full stop landings only, do not attempt go around, power back prohibited, idle reverse below 60 knots

95
Q

What is the memory item for JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN (PITCH)? JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL (ROLL)?

A
  • ELEVATOR DISCONNECT handle - PULL (PITCH)

- AILERON DISCONNECT handle - PULL (ROLL)

96
Q

When does the horizontal stabilizer trim function work at a low speed?

A
  • RAT deployment (electrical emergency also)

- Loss of airspeed data from the FCM

RJET E170 Study Guide 12B (16 decks)

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