Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q
1) On the ground, above 60 knots groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by applying rudder input. This function is only available in:
A. The NORMAL flight control mode.
B. The SECONDARY flight control mode.
C. The DIRECT flight control mode.
D. All modes.
A

1) On the ground, above 60 knots groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by applying rudder input. This function is only available in:
A. The NORMAL flight control mode.

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2
Q

2) With a complete loss of flight control signaling, the alternate pitch trim switches must be used to move the stabilizer.
A. True.
B. False.

A

2) With a complete loss of flight control signaling, the alternate pitch trim switches must be used to move the stabilizer.
A. True.

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3
Q
3) Both the flaps and slats are driven hydraulically in which mode(s):
A. ALTERNATE mode only.
B. SECONDARY MODE only.
C. PRIMARY mode only.
D. In all modes.
A

3) Both the flaps and slats are driven hydraulically in which mode(s):

C. PRIMARY mode only.

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4
Q

4) With the flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode, if airspeed exceeds 225 knots for the 787-8 or 240 knots for the 787-9 with slats fully extended, they retract to the _____ position.
A. Retracted
B. 5 degree
C. Middle
D. Slat load relief not available in secondary mode

A

4) With the flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode, if airspeed exceeds 225 knots for the 787-8 or 240 knots for the 787-9 with slats fully extended, they retract to the ____ position.

C. Middle

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5
Q

5) On the ground, all spoiler panels extend if both reverse thrust levers are raised to the reverse idle detent.
A. True.
B. False.

A

5) On the ground, all spoiler panels extend if both reverse thrust levers are raised to the reverse idle detent.
A. True.

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6
Q

6) Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
A. Autopilot is available.
B. Envelope protection is available.
C. The PFCs are not available.
D. Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.

A

6) Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?

D. Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.

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7
Q

7) With flight control system operating in the direct mode, the primary flight computers are operative?
A. True.
B. False.

A

7) With flight control system operating in the direct mode, the primary flight computers are operative?

B. False.

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8
Q

8) The spoilers will automatically extend and the speed brake lever is driven to UP for a rejected takeoff.
A. True.
B. False.

A

8) The spoilers will automatically extend and the speed brake lever is driven to UP for a rejected takeoff.
A. True.

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9
Q
9) In the NORMAL flight control mode, the autopilot system sends control surface commands:
A. Directly to the ACEs.
B. Directly to the PFCs.
C. To the backdrive actuators.
D. To the PCUs only.
A

9) In the NORMAL flight control mode, the autopilot system sends control surface commands:

B. Directly to the PFCs.

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10
Q

10) The autopilot is only available in the:
A. NORMAL and SECONDARY flight control modes.
B. ALTERNATE flight control mode.
C. Only if normal stab trim is available.
D. NORMAL flight control mode only.

A

10) The autopilot is only available in the:

D. NORMAL flight control mode only.

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11
Q

11) With the flaps and slats in the PRIMARY mode, uncommanded motion will:
A. Cause the flaps or slats to transfer to the SECONDARY mode.
B. Cause the flap or slat system to transfer to the ALTERNATE mode.
C. Drive the slats to the mid sealed position.
D. Lock out the outboard flaps.

A

11) With the flaps and slats in the PRIMARY mode, uncommanded motion will:
A. Cause the flaps or slats to transfer to the SECONDARY mode.

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12
Q

12) When operating with the slats in the SECONDARY mode and positioned to the full
extended position, if the airspeed exceeds 225 knots for the 787-8, or 240 knots for the
787-9:
A. The slats will transfer to the ALTERNATE mode.
B. LOAD RELIEF will be displayed on the EICAS.
C. The slats will retract to the middle position.
D. Both B and C.

A

12) When operating with the slats in the SECONDARY mode and positioned to the full
extended position, if the airspeed exceeds 225 knots for the 787-8, or 240 knots for the
787-9:

B. LOAD RELIEF will be displayed on the EICAS.
C. The slats will retract to the middle position.
D. Both B and C.

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13
Q

13) The primary flight control computers (PFCs) will override a pilot command.
A. True.
B. False.

A

13) The primary flight control computers (PFCs) will override a pilot command.

B. False.

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14
Q

14) The flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode are controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic pumps or electric motors.
A. True.
B. False.

A

14) The flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode are controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic pumps or electric motors.
A. True.

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15
Q

15) The pilot can place the Primary Flight Computers into the SECONDARY flight control mode by:
A. Disconnecting the PFCs.
B. Disconnecting the autopilot.
C. You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.
D. Just ask, it’s pure magic.

A

15) The pilot can place the Primary Flight Computers into the SECONDARY flight control mode by:

C. You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.

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16
Q

16) In the NORMAL flight control mode, yaw control attempts to maintain zero yaw rate due to engine failure when above:
A. V1.
B. 60 knots groundspeed and aircraft on the ground.
C. 150 knots IAS, with a thrust differential greater than 10%.
D. E/O acceleration height.

A

16) In the NORMAL flight control mode, yaw control attempts to maintain zero yaw rate due to engine failure when above:

B. 60 knots groundspeed and aircraft on the ground.

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17
Q
17) Disconnecting the primary flight control computers (PFCs) places the aircraft:
A. In the SECONDARY and DIRECT modes.
B. In the ALTERNATE mode.
C. In the DIRECT mode.
D. Out of control.
A

17) Disconnecting the primary flight control computers (PFCs) places the aircraft:

C. In the DIRECT mode.

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18
Q
18) Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in which mode(s)?
A. Secondary and Direct Modes.
B. All modes.
C. Direct mode.
D. Normal mode
A

18) Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in which mode(s)?

A. Secondary and Direct Modes.

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19
Q

19) The three Primary Flight Control System modes are:
A. NORMAL, SECONDARY, DIRECT.
B. PRIMARY, SECONDARY, ALTERNATE.
C. NORMAL, SECONDARY, STANDBY.
D. There are only two modes of operation for the Primary Flight Control System.

A

19) The three Primary Flight Control System modes are:

A. NORMAL, SECONDARY, DIRECT.

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20
Q
20) With a total hydraulic failure, how are the Pitch and Roll modes controlled?
A. Electrically using the control wheel.
B. Primary pitch trim switches.
C. Alternate pitch trim switches.
D. All of the above.
A
20) With a total hydraulic failure, how are the Pitch and Roll modes controlled?
A. Electrically using the control wheel.
B. Primary pitch trim switches.
C. Alternate pitch trim switches.
D. All of the above.
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21
Q

21) After landing, the flight control system automatically self tests:
A. When the left and right hydraulic systems are depressurized.
B. During engine shutdown, before external power can be connected.
C. When the flaps and speedbrakes are retracted and groundspeed less than
30 knots.
D. When the PFCs are disconnected.

A

21) After landing, the flight control system automatically self tests:

C. When the flaps and speedbrakes are retracted and groundspeed less than
30 knots.

22
Q
22) Why is the 787 provided with an electrical flight control backup system?
A. In case of a dual AC bus failure.
B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.
C. In case both FMCs are lost.
D. A and C.
A

22) Why is the 787 provided with an electrical flight control backup system?

B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.

23
Q

23) During takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective at approximately 40 knots.
A. True.
B. False.

A

23) During takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective at approximately 40 knots.

B. False.

24
Q

24) With the autopilot disengaged, when is manual trimming necessary?
A. For configuration changes.
B. For airspeed changes.
C. Never, the autopilot trims the aircraft.
D. A and B are correct.

A

24) With the autopilot disengaged, when is manual trimming necessary?

B. For airspeed changes.

25
Q

25) In the NORMAL mode, pitch trim operates differently on the ground than it does in flight.
A. True.
B. False.

A

25) In the NORMAL mode, pitch trim operates differently on the ground than it does in flight.
A. True.

26
Q

26) Both primary and alternate pitch trim switches may be used with the autopilot engaged.
A. True.
B. False.

A

26) Both primary and alternate pitch trim switches may be used with the autopilot engaged.

B. False.

27
Q
27) The stabilizer green band is calculated by:
A. The nose gear pressure switch.
B. FMC inputs of CG.
C. FMC Gross weight
D. Both B and C
A

27) The stabilizer green band is calculated by:

B. FMC inputs of CG.
C. FMC Gross weight
D. Both B and C

28
Q

28) The EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND is displayed when:
A. The nose gear pressure transducer and greenband data
disagree.
B. The FMC determines the stabilizer is in takeoff low mode.
C. Either nose gear transducer fails.
D. A and C are correct.

A

28) The EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND is displayed when:
A. The nose gear pressure transducer and greenband data disagree.

C. Either nose gear transducer fails.
D. A and C are correct.

29
Q

29) Pitch trim is not available if BOTH the L2 and R2 stabilizer control switches are placed to CUTOUT while in the NORMAL flight control mode.
A. True.
B. False.

A

29) Pitch trim is not available if BOTH the L2 and R2 stabilizer control switches are placed to CUTOUT while in the NORMAL flight control mode.

B. False.

30
Q
30) The autothrottle can support stall protection if \_\_\_\_\_ and not engaged.
A. Cutout
B. Armed
C. Unarmed
D. Standby
A

30) The autothrottle can support stall protection if _____ and not engaged.

B. Armed

31
Q

31) When the pitch mode is FLCH or TOGA, the autothrottle does not automatically engage to support stall protection.
A. True.
B. False.

A

31) When the pitch mode is FLCH or TOGA, the autothrottle does not automatically engage to support stall protection.
A. True.

32
Q
32) The ailerons are during high speed flight.
A. Locked out
B. Fully deflected position
C. Locked out in low speed flight
D. Are never locked out
A

32) The ailerons are during high speed flight.

A. Locked out

33
Q

33) Each hydraulic system is dedicated to a different set of spoiler pairs; therefore, symmetric operation is maintained in the event of hydraulic system failure.
A. True.
B. False.

A

33) Each hydraulic system is dedicated to a different set of spoiler pairs; therefore, symmetric operation is maintained in the event of hydraulic system failure.
A. True.

34
Q
34) Some of the benefits of an electronically controlled flight control system (fly-by-wire) are:
A. Increased fuel economy.
B. Enhanced handling qualities.
C. Reduced pilot workload.
D. All of the above.
A
34) Some of the benefits of an electronically controlled flight control system (fly-by-wire) are:
A. Increased fuel economy.
B. Enhanced handling qualities.
C. Reduced pilot workload.
D. All of the above.
35
Q

35) When is the slat auto gap function available?
A. In the primary mode with the slats in the middle position.
B. Airspeed below 225 KIAS for the 787-8.
C. Airspeed below 240 KIAS for the 787-9.
D. All of the above.

A

35) When is the slat auto gap function available?
A. In the primary mode with the slats in the middle position.
B. Airspeed below 225 KIAS for the 787-8.
C. Airspeed below 240 KIAS for the 787-9.
D. All of the above.

36
Q

36) Which of the following are limitations on the use of speed brakes?
A. Do not use the speed brakes with flaps 25 or 30.
B. Do not use speed brakes with the gear down.
C. Speed brakes can be used at any altitude.
D. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.

A

36) Which of the following are limitations on the use of speed brakes?

D. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.

37
Q

37) The 787 has a single rudder having a hinged section that deflects twice as far to provide additional yaw authority.
A. True.
B. False.

A

37) The 787 has a single rudder having a hinged section that deflects twice as far to provide additional yaw authority.

B. False.

38
Q

38) The Wheel to Rudder Cross-Tie system operates in conjunction with the Thrust Asymmetry Protection function and is effective both on the ground and in the air.
A. True.
B. False.

A

38) The Wheel to Rudder Cross-Tie system operates in conjunction with the Thrust Asymmetry Protection function and is effective both on the ground and in the air.

B. False.

39
Q
39) If the flap placard speed is exceeded with flaps in the \_\_\_\_\_ position for the 787-8, or flaps in the \_\_\_\_\_ position for the 787-9, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate for the airspeed.
A. 15 through 30
B. 10 through 30
C. 5 through 30
D. A and B are correct.
A

39) If the flap placard speed is exceeded with flaps in the _____ position for the 787-8, or flaps in the _____ position for the 787-9, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate for the airspeed.
A. 15 through 30
B. 10 through 30

D. A and B are correct.

40
Q

40) The _____ are locked out during high-speed flight.
A. Ailerons
B. Ailerons and spoilers 5 and 10
C. Ailerons and spoilers 4, 5, 10, and 11
D. Spoilers 5 and 10

A

40) The _____ are locked out during high-speed flight.

A. Ailerons

41
Q

41) The yaw control functions for asymmetry compensation is available in the
Secondary and Direct flight control modes.
A. True.
B. False.

A

41) The yaw control functions for asymmetry compensation is available in the
Secondary and Direct flight control modes.

B. False.

42
Q
42) Which of the following functions are not available in the Secondary Mode?
A. Wheel to rudder cross-tie.
B. Envelope protection.
C. Auto speedbrakes.
D. B and C.
A

42) Which of the following functions are not available in the Secondary Mode?

B. Envelope protection.
C. Auto speedbrakes.
D. B and C.

43
Q

43) Roll control wheel input beyond 35 degrees of bank causes:
A. The control wheel force rolls the aircraft back to level flight.
B. The PFD bank indicator turns amber.
C. The control wheel force will not allow the pilot to override its inputs.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

43) Roll control wheel input beyond 35 degrees of bank causes:

B. The PFD bank indicator turns amber.

44
Q

44) Automated yaw and roll control for engine failure, crosswind, or turbulence is an integral part of the flight control system.
A. True.
B. False.

A

44) Automated yaw and roll control for engine failure, crosswind, or turbulence is an integral part of the flight control system.
A. True.

45
Q

45) Tail strike protection cannot be overridden by pilot input.
A. True.
B. False.

A

45) Tail strike protection cannot be overridden by pilot input.

B. False.

46
Q

46) Auto drag operates only when on an electronic glide slope or FMC generated glidepath is captured.
A. True
B. False

A

46) Auto drag operates only when on an electronic glide slope or FMC generated glidepath is captured.

B. False

47
Q
47) Wheel to rudder cross tie is not provided in the \_\_\_\_\_ flight control mode because the flight  control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.
A. Secondary
B. Direct
C. Normal
D. Alternate
A

47) Wheel to rudder cross tie is not provided in the _____flight control mode because the flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.

C. Normal

48
Q
48) Rudder trim is automatic in all flight phases in the \_\_\_\_\_ flight control mode, including during engine failure.
A. Secondary and Direct
B. Secondary
C. Direct
D. Normal
A

48) Rudder trim is automatic in all flight phases in the _____ flight control mode, including during engine failure.

D. Normal

49
Q

49) On landing automatic or manual trim inputs are zeroed after landing.
A. True.
B. False.

A

49) On landing automatic or manual trim inputs are zeroed after landing.
A. True.

50
Q

50) In the air, the spoilers automatically retract and the speed brake lever is driven forward to the DOWN position when either thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel.
A. True.
B. False.

A

50) In the air, the spoilers automatically retract and the speed brake lever is driven forward to the DOWN position when either thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel.
A. True.