fle6 Flashcards
If one of the participants experienced difficulty solving a problem because she relied too heavily on strategies that have worked for her in the past, this person could be experiencing the negative impact of:
A) confirmation bias. B) functional fixedness. C) a mental set. D) the representativeness heuristic.
Answer C is correct. A mental set refers to a tendency to rely on strategies that have worked in the past, a problem that can severely impede the problem-solving process. Answer A is incorrect because confirmation bias refers to the tendency to maintain existing beliefs despite evidence that challenges those beliefs. Answer B is incorrect because functional fixedness refers to an inability to see an object being used in ways other than how it is traditionally used. This may seem somewhat similar to a mental set, but functional fixedness generally refers to the utilization of tools or objects. Answer D is incorrect because the representativeness heuristic refers to the tendency to assume that previous experience will predict future experience.
When restructuring is at a maximum, the EEG signal is expected to have which two characteristics?
A) Low frequency and high amplitude B) High frequency and low amplitude C) High frequency and high amplitude DLow frequency and low amplitude.
Answer B is correct. According to Figure 1, the frequency of the EEG signal associated with restructuring reaches a maximum when the EEG strength rating is lowest (rating = 0). This can be seen on the far left side of figure one, represented by the gray box. The passage also states that the strength ratings were assigned according to increasing amplitude, so a rating of 0 represents the lowest possible amplitude and a rating of 3 represents the highest possible amplitude. Therefore, maximum restructuring is associated by an EEG wave with high frequency and low amplitude. Answers A and D are incorrect because the frequency is high, not low, when restructuring is at its maximum. Answer C is incorrect because a high amplitude would receive a rating score of 3, and this is associated with lower restructuring in Figure 1.
Which of the following would NOT be expected to be found in glomerular filtrate?
A red blood cells
B protons
C sodium
D urea
A- Glomerular filtrate refers to the fluid that is filtered from the glomeruli and makes its way into the urine. Glomerular filtrate travels further through the nephron and ultimately becomes urine. Options (B)-(D) are all typically found in this filtrate, however red blood cells should NOT (unless there is damage or other disease process affecting the glomerulus) be present. Thus (A) is the correct answer.
Pigeon A is placed in a Skinner box and rewarded with food for pecking a key. On average, the reward appears every 6th peck, but the number of pecks between rewards varies. Pigeon B is yoked to Pigeon A such that whenever Pigeon A gets rewarded, Pigeon B gets rewarded, regardless of Pigeon B’s behavior. What reinforcement schedule is being utilized for Pigeon A and Pigeon B, respectively?
Variable ratio and variable interval
Pigeon A is on a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement in which the food reward occurs after differing numbers of responses. This is true even though, overall, the rewards appear an average of every 6th peck of the key. Because Pigeon B is only rewarded when Pigeon A is rewarded, but this reward is NOT tied to its own behavior, this bird is on a variable interval schedule.
What is the difference between social influence, isolation, loafing and facilitation?
Social isolation suggests a person who has isolated themselves from others almost entirely,
social loafing is a concept relatively similar to the effect rule-breakers had on the group dynamic, as outlined in the final paragraph. It amounts to “free riding” on the efforts of others when a group task is being completed. Although the passage did not specify group task completion, the idea that rule-breakers benefit from their own personal increase in prominence, while the group as a whole suffers from decreased stability, suggests a similar parasitic-like relationship.
Social facilitation (Answer A) is the ability to perform a task better when others are present, and is tangentially related to the study because the passage focus on centrality, popularity, and social connections suggests that many people will be performing in social settings.
Social influence (Answer C), the ability of individuals to be affected by groups to which they belong,
A young female professional complaining about the “glass escalator” might give which of the following accounts of her experience?
A) A less-experienced male coworker was selected to fill a senior management position to which he and she had both applied. B) A more-experienced male coworker was assigned to work under her supervision, but earns more money than she does. C) A less-experienced male nurse was promoted and assigned to supervise twelve female nurses in the maternity ward. D) A less-experienced male foreman was promoted and assigned to supervise all company construction projects.
Answer C is correct. The “glass escalator” is a term derived from the concept of a glass ceiling, which suggest that there are hidden barriers to women in the workplace. The glass escalator describes the ability of men to ascend quickly to higher levels of pay and responsibility in female-dominated professions. In contrast to the “invisible glass” being a barrier as it is for women, this “invisible force” gives men an advantage—thus, the use of an escalator as a symbol. For example, most nurses are women, but male nurses are more likely to be promoted to supervisory positions. This is one of the classic examples used to illustrate this concept, which makes Answer C the best choice. Answer A could be used to illustrate the glass ceiling, but does not reference a female-dominated career such as nursing or education, so it is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because this scenario may describe a general circumstance of gender inequality in pay, but does not describe the glass escalator because the male is not advancing in a female-dominated profession. Answer D is incorrect because construction is not a career dominated by female workers.
During a study of malnutrition in northeastern Africa, one native woman told a psychologist “If a pregnant woman eats eggs during pregnancy, the child will be mute, dumb, or stuttering.” This woman’s statement is best categorized as an example of a:
A) folk taxonomy. B) myth. C)syncretism. D)taboo.
D
A drug that blocks ion channels will impede the normal function of which cellular structures?
I. Mitochondria
II. Neuron cell membrane
III. Muscle cell sarcoplasmic reticulum
AI only BII only CII and III only DI, II, and III
D
Before fatty acids can be oxidized, they must be activated via the following reaction:
Fatty acid + CoA + ATP ⇌ Fatty acyl-CoA + AMP + PPi
The equilibrium constant for this reaction is close to one, while the free energy change is nearly zero. The reaction proceeds spontaneously in vivo because it is coupled to the:
C) hydrolysis of fatty acyl-CoA. D) formation of ADP from AMP.
A) formation of cAMP from AMP. B) hydrolysis of PPi.
Answer B is correct. The reaction will be driven forward by a large negative ΔG° value from the highly exergonic (release of energy) hydrolysis of PPi. PPi contains a high energy phosphate bond that releases its energy upon hydrolysis. This provides the large ΔG° value needed to move the reaction in the forward direction. The synthesis of cAMP and ADP (Answers A and D) both require energy, they do not release it, so both options must be eliminated. With respect to Answer C, while many hydrolysis reactions are exergonic, the hydrolysis of fatty acyl-CoA is the REVERSE of the reaction shown, and therefore cannot be the driving force for the forward reaction. Answer B is the best choice. When addressing a question for which the answer is not obvious, consider the basic question being asked: which of these reactions releases energy? By using a process of elimination, the correct answer can be determined even if the specifics of the reaction in question are unfamiliar.
Bone mass is considered to be a function of the ratio of bone resorption to bone deposition. How is this ratio likely to change in aging women with osteoporosis?
A) The ratio increases, since bone mass decreases as estrogen levels decline.
B) The ratio decreases, since bone mass decreases as estrogen levels decline. C) The ratio increases, since bone mass decreases as OPG increases. D) The ratio decreases, since bone mass decreases as OPG declines.
Answer A is correct. The ratio of bone resorption to bone deposition should be become larger, or increase, as bone density decreases. In other words, bone is being resorbed faster than it is deposited, causing a net loss in bone structure. Answer A correctly identifies this trend and explains correctly that it would be associated with declining, not increasing, estrogen levels. Examinees should be familiar with the trend that estrogen levels decline with age in women. Answers B and D are both false because a decreased ratio would actually suggest increased bone mass, which is not normally observed in aging women, much less osteoporotic women. Answer C is incorrect because OPG promotes bone mass by blocking the activation of RANK, which stimulates osteoclast maturation. Therefore, increasing levels of OPG should result in fewer and fewer osteoclasts, swinging the balance in favor of osteoblast activity and driving the ratio described in the passage smaller and smaller. This not only does not match the first half of this answer choice, but also contradicts the question stem; aging osteoporotic women are certainly NOT likely to have increased OPG levels and a decreased ratio of bone resorption relative to bone deposition.
Which pair of codons is most likely to code for the same amino acid? A) CCU, ACU B) AUU, ACU C)GGG, GGC D) GUG, CUG
Answer C is correct. This question requires understanding the “wobble” present in the genetic code. Amino acids are coded for by three mRNA nucleotides, and this set of three nucleotide bases is referred to as a codon. In many cases, a single amino acid may correspond to multiple codons, in which case the first two bases are almost always the same, and the difference exists in the third base. This variance in the base at the third position is referred to as “wobble.” Answers A and D differ in the first base, while the second and third bases are the same, making both answers A and D incorrect. Answer B varies in the second base, while the first and third bases are the same, making Answer B unlikely. Answer C is the correct answer because it is the only option that varies only in the third base. In fact, these two codons both code for glycine.
Protein folding involves a transition from a more disordered state to a more ordered state. This entropic penalty does NOT prevent spontaneous folding because:
A)the net ΔS is large and positive, resulting in a negative ΔG for the overall process.
B) the net ΔS of the surroundings is positive, resulting in a negative ΔG for the overall process.
C) formation of disulfide bonds is highly exothermic, resulting in a negative ΔG for the overall process.
D) the net ΔS of the surroundings is negative, resulting in a negative ΔG for the overall process.
Answer B is correct. The reduction in the solvation layer is associated with a significant positive entropy which overcomes the entropic penalty associated with increased order in the folded state. This phenomenon is sometimes called the “hydrophobic effect.” This allows the net Gibbs free energy change to be negative and therefore the process is still spontaneous. Answer A is false because the entropy associated with protein folding is negative (more order), not positive. Answer C is false because disulfide bond formation is not primarily responsible for the spontaneity of protein folding. The number of such bonds varies widely among folded proteins. Answer D is false because the entropy change of the surroundings must be positive, not negative, for this effect to overcome the entropic penalty of increased order in the folded state.
The Hardy-Weinberg equation is shown below. Assuming q represents the recessive allele in a hypothetical population, which quantity can be counted directly using a population survey?
p² + 2pq + q² = 1 A) p B) p2 C) 2pq D) q2
Answer D is correct. The value of q2 can be determined using a population survey because it represents the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (aa), who will demonstrate the phenotype associated with the recessive allele (a). The value of p2 gives the frequency of individuals with the homozygous dominant genotype (AA). The value of 2pq gives the frequency of heterozygotes (Aa). For a genetically stable population, the total of all of these frequencies must add up to 1.0 (p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) per the Hardy-Weinberg equation. These facts support Answer D, because only the homozygous recessive individuals can be recognized. The homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals cannot be differentiated from one another because they will both display the dominant phenotype. This eliminates Answers B and C. Answer A could be determined by calculation if one already knows p2, or can solve for it using the equation, but it cannot be counted directly through a population survey.
During enzyme catalysis, which complex is most tightly bound?
a) enzyme substrate
b) enzyme transition state
c) enzyme reactant
d) enzyme cofactor
b enzyme transition state and unbound because substrate promises to be lower energy and release energy (exothermic)
Which molecule is least important in synthesis of triacylglycerols from fatty acids?
a) Acetyl coA
b) Fatty acyl CoA
c) Glycerold 3 phosphate
d) Acyltransferase
A- three fatty acids bonded to glycerol backbone with three ester linkage.
Acetyl coA is product formed in fatty acid synthesis but NOT in triacylglycerols synthesis.
Acyltransferase is enzyme used to transfer fatty acid to glycerol backbone
