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FITNESS STUDY PREP Flashcards

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1
Q

The PAR-Q is an example of what kind of assessment?

A

Subjective

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2
Q

How can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

A

Continuing educating them about the benefits of exercise

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3
Q

To help a client safely progress through to hypertrophy training, which of the following phases of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should be completed first?

Strength Endurance
Power
Maximal Strength
Dynamic Strength

A

Strength Endurance

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4
Q

How do mechanoreceptors function?

A

Mechanoreceptors respond to alterations in touch, sound, pressure, or motion in the body tissue

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5
Q

Dissassociation

A

A cognitive-behavioral approach in which the individual focuses on the external environment, such as noticing the scenery or listening to music

Can act as a distraction from the pain and fatigue that is present during exercise

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6
Q

How does exercise improve sleep?

A

It lessens stress, anxiety, and depression.

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7
Q

If an individual demonstrates knock knees during an overhead squat, all of the following altered joint mechanics are present except what?

Decreased hip abduction
Increased hip external rotation
Decreased ankle dorsiflexion

A

Increased hip external rotation

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8
Q

Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process?

A

Desired exercise intensity

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9
Q

Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?

A

Archimede’s Principle

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10
Q

Which population is Stand Up to Figure 8 geared towards?

A

Seniors

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11
Q

Which population are L.E.F.T. Drills geared towards?

A

Adult Athletes

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12
Q

Which population are circuits mainly geared towards?

A

Weight-Loss Clients

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13
Q

What is Vertical Loading?

A

A resistance training system that alternates the body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity moving to the lower extremity

Provides maximal recovery to the body parts that are not working while others are working

Usually in a circuit setting, with little to no rest between each exercise and longer rest in between sets

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14
Q

What is Horizontal Loading?

A

Refers to performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part

Rest periods are anywhere from 30-90 seconds; time consuming af!

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15
Q

What are the recommended acute training variables for older adults (Frequency, Sets, Reps, Intensity)?

A

Frequency: 3-5 days a week
Sets: 1-3
Reps: 8-20
Intensity: 40-80% of 1RM

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16
Q

What is the best time increment for measuring an individual’s heart rate during exercise?

A

Measuring an individual’s heart rate every 6 seconds.

For example, let’s say an individual’s heart rate is 15 bpm every 6 seconds. Multiply 15 x 10 and the individual’s beat per minute would be 150 bpm.

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17
Q

What is the Valsalva Maneuver? Which populations should avoid it?

A

Holding in breath during exercise to create more intra abdominal pressure, which creates more stability and rigidity to support heavy loads

Individuals with hypertension

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18
Q

What are the three components of Total Energy Expenditure (TEE)?

A

Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR): the energy expended for basic body functions

Thermic Effect of Food (TEF): the energy used to store and process food.

Energy Expended during Physical Activity: The energy used in physical activity

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19
Q

What does autogenic mean?

A

Self-generated

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20
Q

What is the Tanaka Formula?

A

A mathematical formula used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate

208 - (0.7 x Age)

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21
Q

What are the four signs of the exhaustion stage of General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Stress fracture
Persistent or severe joint pain
Emotional fatigue
Strains

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22
Q

What are the components of the alarm reaction stage in General Adaption Syndrome?

A

Delayed-Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS) & Increases in sleep and nutrient needs

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23
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

When the body’s immune system attacks a person’s body rather than harmful substances, causing joint degeneration

Those with rheumatoid arthritis typically experience early morning stiffness, which means exercise at this time of day should be avoided.

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24
Q

What are 4 nutrient-based values that are considered Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI’s)?

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Adequate Intake (AI)
Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)

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25
Q

What is pattern overload?

A

Repeating the same motion (or lack thereof) frequently enough that the body experiences excessive stress due to overactive or inactive muscles

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26
Q

What are the 5 checkpoints on the kinetic chain that fitness professional should check for during a pushing assessment?

A

1) foot and ankle
2) knee
3) lumbo-pelvic hip
4) shoulders
5) head/cervical spine

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27
Q

What are the common mistakes made during a pushing assessment

A
  • head migrating forward
  • shoulders are too elevated
  • ## arching of the back
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28
Q

What are the approaches that have been successful in achieving behavior modification?

A

Prompting: a verbal, physical, or symbolic cue initiating a behavior change

Contracting: written statements outlining behavior changes and potential consequences of those behavior changes (or lack thereof)

Charting participation and attendance: a public reporting strategy, used to monitor and ultimately evaluate a client’s progress

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29
Q

What kind of strategy is imagery?

A

Cognitive Strategy

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30
Q

What are examples of behavior strategies?

A
  • Self-monitoring
  • Self-management
  • Goal setting
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31
Q

What kind of disease is asthma considered?

A

Chronic obstructive lung disease

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32
Q

What are examples of causes of restrictive lung disease?

A
  • Obesity
  • Fractured Ribs
  • A neuromuscular disease
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33
Q

What defines lower crossed syndrome?

A
  • Anterior Pelvic Tilt/Arched lower back
  • increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension
    due to shortened muscles such as latissmus dorsi and erector spinae and lengthened muscles such as gluteus maximus and transverse abdominis
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34
Q

What kind of exercises are tuck jumps? Why?

A

Plyometric-Strength Exercise because they require explosive movements but can be performed at a moderate speed to enhance stabilization and muscular contraction

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35
Q

What are examples of plyometric-power exercises?

A

ice skaters and single-leg step-ups

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36
Q

What is an example of a plyometric-stabilization exercise?

A

Box jump-up with stabilization

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37
Q

What is dyspenia?

A

Shortness of breath

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38
Q

What is the difference between chronic and restrictive lung disease?

A

Chronic: normal lung tissue with restricted air flow

Restrictive: fibrotic, dysfunctional lung tissue

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39
Q

Which population is the Follow the Snake drill geared towards?

A

Youth

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40
Q

Which population are circuits ideal for?

A

Weight loss clients

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41
Q

Which population are speed ladders geared towards?

A

Fitter clients and athletes

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42
Q

Which population are Hurdle Step-Overs with various-sized cones geared towards? What can this drill help the fitness professional to do?

A

Hurdle Step-Overs with various-sized cones are geared towards seniors and can help the fitness professional to assess their SAQ and balance

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43
Q

What are the 3 stages of heart rate zones?

A

Zone 1: considered the cardio base or recovery zone.
- Training HR: 65-75% HR Max

Zone 2: the body can no longer rely on the aerobic energy system
- Training HR: 76-85% HR Max

Zone 3: considered true high intensity, where peak exertion is achieved
- Training HR: 86-95% HR Max

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44
Q

When is an individual ready for Zone 2 Training?

A

When a client is able to maintain Zone 1 HR (65-75% HR Max) for 30 minutes, 2-3 times a week

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45
Q

What describes an individual who is in the precontemplation stage?

A

Does not exercise and is not planning to start within the next 6 months

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46
Q

What describes an individual who is in the contemplation stage?

A

Does not exercise but is planning to start within 6 months

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47
Q

What describes an individual who is in the preparation stage?

A

Planning to exercise soon or is sporadically exercising

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48
Q

What describes an individual who is in the action stage?

A

Exercising for less than 6 months

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49
Q

What describes an individual who is in the maintenance stage?

A

Exercising consistently for more than 6 months

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50
Q

Where are mechanoreceptors found in the body?

A

Skeletal muscles, joint capsules, tendons, and ligaments

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51
Q

What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome?

A

1) Alarm reaction
2) Resistance Development
3) Exhaustion

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52
Q

Which of the following is a common form mistake when performing the single leg lift and chop?

A

The knee of the balance leg is not in tracking in line with the toes

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53
Q

Autogenic Inhibition

A

Autogenic inhibition provides an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles. This inhibitory effect occurs when the tension-sensing neural impulses are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract.

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54
Q

Synergistic Dominance

A

Synergistic dominance happens when the incorrect muscles function instead of the prime mover.

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55
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition

A

Reciprocal inhibition allows movement to occur with the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist.

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56
Q

Pattern Overload

A

Pattern overload refers to abnormal stresses on the body caused by repetitive patterns of motion.

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57
Q

How does ingesting excess iron cause gastrointestinal irritation?

A

Excess iron can interfere with absorption of other minerals such as zinc, cause gastrointestinal distress, and increase the risk of heart disease.

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58
Q

Is the gastrocnemius an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – I ran out of gas and I had to run to gas station

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59
Q

Is the soleus an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – My soul is telling me to move!

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60
Q

Is the anterior tibialis an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – this ant is so cute that I had to stop to look at it and tib it some food!

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61
Q

Is the posterior tibialis an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – I made a post of me tibbing the ant some food!

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62
Q

Are the adductors an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – I had to add some cardio to my program!

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63
Q

Is the hamstring complex an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – I felt like going ham at the gym!

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64
Q

Is the vastus medialis oblique an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – I felt a vast laziness in my body.

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65
Q

What is the difference between the vastus medialis and the vastus medialis oblique?

A

The vastus medialis muscle has two distinct parts with different fibe orientations and specific functions:

the vastus medialis longus (VML) &
the vastus medialis oblique/obliquus (VMO).

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66
Q

Is the gluteus maximus/minimus an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – I’m glued to the couch!

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67
Q

Is the psoas an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – Sooooo we’re running a mile!

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68
Q

Is the tensor facia latae (TFL) an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – Tense up! You’re squatting!

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69
Q

Is the transverse abdominus an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – Trans people usually go undercover and stay sedentary!

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70
Q

Are the internal obliques an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – These interns are lazy as shit!

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71
Q

Is the rectus femoris an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – My rectum is overactive with all of these squats!

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72
Q

Is the piriformis an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – My peers are all super active!

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73
Q

Is the multifidus an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – There are multiple people on the couch!

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74
Q

Is the serratus anterior an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – I serrated my pants and now I can’t go on my run!

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75
Q

Is the quadratus lumborum an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – My quadratus lumborum is on fire when I deadlift!

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76
Q

Is the erector spinae an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – My erector spinae is on fire when I’m doing my low bar squat!

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77
Q

Is the pectoralis major/minor an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Overactive – This bird is pecking way too hard on the window!

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78
Q

Are the middle/lower trapezius an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – I was laying on the couch for so long that I fell into a trap!

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79
Q

Are the rhomboids an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – You have no ROM because you’re always on the couch!

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80
Q

Is the teres minor an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – These pants of mine keep tearing so I can’t go running!

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81
Q

Is the infraspinatous an overactive or underactive muscle? How are you going to remember this?

A

Underactive – This infrared light is allowing me to chill tf out!

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82
Q

What do mechanoreceptors allow the body to do?

A

detect touch, similar sensations, & monitoring limb and muscle movement through proprioception.

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83
Q

What do nociceptors allow the body to do?

A

alerting individuals of pain

84
Q

What do thermoreceptors allow the body to do?

A

regulate body temperature; alerting the brain to unusually cold or warm body temperatures

85
Q

What do chemoreceptors allow the body to do?

A

respond to taste and smell through the use of their taste buds and olfactory cells

86
Q

What do photoreceptors allow the body to do?

A

respond to light; perceive changes in colors, shapes, and shades through the use of rods and cones

87
Q

What are the three cognitive strategies?

A

Psyching up, positive self-talk, and imagery

88
Q

If an individual’s knees fall in during the overhead squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles?

A

Adductor complex, tensor fascia latae (TFL), vastus lateralis

89
Q

If an individual’s knees fall in during the overhead squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles?

A

Gluteus medius/maximus and vastus medialis oblique (VMO)

90
Q

After 20 to 30 seconds, how much of the ATP stores can be replenished?

A

50%

91
Q

After 40 seconds, how much of the ATP stores can be replenished?

A

75%

92
Q

After 60 seconds, how much of the ATP stores can be replenished?

A

85%

93
Q

After 3 minutes, how much of the ATP stores can be replenished?

A

100%

94
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?

A

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercises to increase blood flow throughout the body

95
Q

What is an example of a peripheral heart action system workout? How many reps should be assigned to each workout in this system?

A

1) Bench Press
2) Barbell Squat
3) Dumbbell Row
4) Romanian Deadlift

8-20 reps

96
Q

In Phase 1 of the stabilization level of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, a fitness professional should implement how many balance-stabilization exercises?

A

1-4 exercises

97
Q

Kyphosis

A

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.

“hunchback posture”

98
Q

Anaerobic Threshold

A

The point during high-intensity activity when anaerobic metabolism predominates because the body can no longer meet its demand for oxygen

99
Q

mechanical specificity

A

The resistance and number of reps

100
Q

What is a potential effect of excessive intake of magnesium?

A

Diarrhea

101
Q

Disassociation

A

a cognitive-behavioral approach

an individual focuses on the external environment

such as noticing the scenery or listening to music

this distracts their mind from what their body is experiencing.

102
Q

For youth/adolescent training, what would a recommended resistance training program look like?

A

1-2 sets

8-12 reps

40-70% HR Max

2-3 days a week

103
Q

What are two types of balance?

A

Combination of static and dynamic

104
Q

Prompting

A

a verbal, physical, or symbolic cue that initiates a behavior

105
Q

Contracting

A

written statements that outline specific behaviors and establish consequences for fulfillment (or lack thereof)

106
Q

Charting attendance and participation

A

a public reporting strategy, which can serve as a visual representation of the client’s changes and progress

107
Q

Association & Disassociation

A

Cognitive approaches for altering behavior

108
Q

Valsalva Maneuver

A

Fancy way of saying holding your breath for intra-abdominal pressure

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

109
Q

Which of the following populations should avoid the Valsalva maneuver?

A

Individuals with hypertension

110
Q

What is balance influenced by?

A

Age, inactivity, and injury

Balance is NOT influenced by weight

111
Q

When completing a resistance training superset in the power level of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, at what percentage of intensity should each exercise be performed?

A

Resistance training supersetted in the power level can be achieved by completing:

1-5 repetitions of a strength exercise at 85 to 100% 1 RM

SS

8-10 repetitions of a power exercise at 30 to 45% 1 RM`.

112
Q

Liability insurance is required for which type of personal trainer?

A

All types of pt’s!

113
Q

Which phases in the opt model can you use resistance bands and barbell movements?

A

All phases!

114
Q

Which phase do you superset strength with power movements?

A

Power movements

115
Q

In Phase 1 of the stabilization level of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, a fitness professional should implement how many balance-stabilization exercises?

A

1-4 exercises

116
Q

What are considered very low carb diets?

A

Atkins, protein power plan, and ketogenic

117
Q

What is considered a low carb diet?

A

South Beach diet

118
Q

Which movement compensation is indicated in an overhead squat assessment?

A

Knee adduction

119
Q

Dyspenea

A

Difficult or troubled breathing

120
Q

What should you do if a client displays dyspenea?

A

have them take longer rest breaks and work with reduced loads

121
Q

How many times per week should a client in Phase 1 do balance training?

A

2-4 times per week

Similar frequency for all phases

122
Q

What are the scores associated with the Borg Scale?

A 
6-7: Very, very light
8-9: Very light
10-11: Fairly light
12-13: Somewhat hard
14-15: Hard
16-17: Very hard
18-20: Very, very hard
123
Q

Principle of Specificity

A

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands (SAID) principle.

124
Q

Which body parts cause flexion in the posterior direction

A

Shoulders, elbows, knees

125
Q

How does the body use the central nervous system to create movement?

A

through integrative function, which is evaluating all sensory data and choosing a suitable reaction

126
Q

Which of the following describes the relationship between sets, repetitions, and intensity?

A

Inverse

Client performs fewer sets, higher reps, and lower intensity

127
Q

What are glycolytic enzymes related to?

A

Performance ability of high intensity exercise

128
Q

In terms of exercise variables, what should children not do?

A

Children should not:

  • perform high intensity exercise for more than 90 seconds
  • resistance training should be limited to 1-2 sets
  • 8-10 exercises
  • 8-12 reps per exercise
129
Q

Pull Promotion

A

a promotion that pulls a client toward a purchase by making them aware of the service

130
Q

What does the multifidus support?

A

Spinal extension

131
Q

What overactive muscles are present if an individual displays an overarched lower back?

A

Hip flexors, erector spinae, and multifidus.

132
Q

What under active muscles are present if an individual displays an overarched lower back?

A

Intrinsic core stabilizers

133
Q

When do ergogenic effects of caffeine seem to be the most effective?

A

Caffeine seems to be especially effective on well-trained athletes performing 60 minutes or more of endurance exercise or 5 minutes of high-intensity exercise.

134
Q

What is the straight percentage method to calculate a client’s target heart rate (THR)?

A

Estimated Heart Rate Max x desired intensity

135
Q

How can a fitness professional prevent a client from experiencing overtraining syndrome?

A

By applying appropriate rest periods in between training sessions

136
Q

Flexibility

A

The ability to move the joint through normal extension and ROM

137
Q

To achieve the most accurate prediction of a client’s one-repetition max, how many repetitions should be performed to failure?

A

3-5 reps

138
Q

What is a common mistake when a client uses the RPE scale? How would you correct this as a fitness professional?

A

A common mistake with using the RPE scale is that clients sometimes isolate their rating to one part of their body instead of the fatigue they feel all over.

When using the RPE scale, it is important that your client knows to rate their intensities on the overall feeling of effort. Remind them with cues like, “overall feeling” and “big picture intensity”

139
Q

Glycemic Index

A

a system that ranks foods on a scale from 1 to 100 based on their effect on blood-sugar levels.

140
Q

Pronation Distortion Syndrome

A

Characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet) with concomitant knee internal rotation and adduction (“knock-kneed”).

141
Q

What is the HR Max associated with Zone 2 training?

A

75-85%

142
Q

Sarcopenia

A

Muscle loss

143
Q

Cognitive Fusion

A

when an individual believes the content of their own thoughts

144
Q

How long will a client typically train in Phase 3 of the OPT model?

A

4 weeks

145
Q

For the single-leg squat assessment, which kinetic chain checkpoint should a fitness professional be observing?

A

the knee

146
Q

What are the 4 kinetic chain checkpoints?

A

1) foot and ankle
2) the knee
3) lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
4) shoulders
5) head and cervical spine

147
Q

Which muscles cause the lower back to arch during an OSA?

A
  • Latissmus Dorsi
  • Hip flexor complex
  • Erector Spinae
148
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?

A

a variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercises, improving blood flow distribution between the upper and lower extremities

149
Q

How can hypertrophy be best described?

A

Skeletal muscle fiber enlargement

150
Q

How should the trainer detect if the client needs to reduce from Zone 3 to Zone 2 during cardiorespiratory training?

A

Check in with the client after 3 minutes of Zone 3 training utilizing the 1 minute break after with the talk test

151
Q

Of the following examples of exercise modalities, which is the best order of progression in the stabilization continuum for optimizing adaptations?

A

Floor, Wobble board, BOSU ball

152
Q

What is the light-to-heavy system aka?

A

Pyramid system

153
Q

How many repetitions are performed in a light load for a pyramid set? Heavy load?

How does a pyramid set work? How many sets are there typically?

A

10-12 repetitions

resistance increases while the amount of reps decreases

1-2 repetitions

4-6 sets

154
Q

What are the advantages of owning a gym facility?

A
  • creating a niche and appealing to customers who would benefit from that niche
  • being in control of the hours of business and day-to-day operations
155
Q

What are the disadvantages of owning a gym facility?

A
  • overhead costs
  • hiring and firing staff
  • community networking
  • paying taxes
  • observing local ordinances
  • preserving a continuous stream of clientele for business.
156
Q

When does pronation distortion syndrome occur?

A

Occurs in individuals with flat feet, or foot pronation, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees.

157
Q

What is the Rockport Walk Test designed to assess?

A

Cardiovascular Fitness level

158
Q

What are common shortened muscle groups within Upper Crossed Syndrome?

A

Latissmus Dorsi
Levator Scapulae
Pectoralis Major

159
Q

What does a skinfold measurement use and what does it aim to do?

A

A skinfold measurement uses a caliper to measure the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin

160
Q

What do PAR-Q’s aim to do?

A

Ensure that the client is ready for physical activity, and the questions that are associated with this have to do with the feelings that the client feels DURING activity

161
Q

What age classifies an individual as an “older adult”?

A

65 years or older

162
Q

What are close-chained exercises?

A

Exercises that require the distal extremities (hands or feet) are in a fixed position, and the force that the individual exhibits cannot overcome the force of the distal extremities in a fixed position

Examples include squats, push ups, or pull ups

163
Q

What are open-chained exercises?

A

Exercises in which the individual’s force that is applied is enough to overcome the force applied by the resistance tool

Examples include Lat Pull Downs, Bench Press, or any machine exercise

164
Q

Which muscles are tight and weak in lower crossed syndrome?

A

Tight muscles: iliopsoas, erector spinae

Weak Muscles: Gluteus maximus, abdominals

165
Q

What are the 7 sites that are most commonly used for circumference measurements?

A 
Calf
Chest
Neck
Waist
Thigh
Hip
Bicep
166
Q

What is a common mistake when using the rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale?

A

Focusing on just one isolated area of the body

167
Q

Which assessments are best used to test more advanced clients, such as athletes and those with strength-specific goals?

A

Bench, squat, Shark Skill, Davies

168
Q

Which factors are balance influenced by?

A

Age
Inactivity
Injury

169
Q

What are the 4 sites that are taken for measurement when using the Durnin formula?

A

4 sites: biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest

170
Q

In terms of SAQ drills, what are the amount of drills associated with beginning, intermediate, and advanced learners respectively?

A

BL: 4-6 drills
IL: 6-8 drills
AL: 6-10 drills

171
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of being an independent contractor?

A

Advantages:

  • having control over schedule/marketing/business practices
  • having no overhead cost
  • ability to generate and develop creative programming
172
Q

When performing a static pectoral stretch, which arm angle is needed?

A

90-90 degree angle

173
Q

Which activity can be performed in both the warm-up and cool-down phase of training?

A

Self-myofascial release

174
Q

What is the optimal prescription for individuals with high blood pressure?

A

3-7 days per week
20-45 minutes
50-75% HR Max

175
Q

What is the amortization phase in plyometric training?

A

It occurs between the concentric and eccentric phases of a movement, and requires dynamic stabilization

176
Q

What is one common compensation that occurs when performing a ball crunch?

A

Pointing the chin upwards towards the ceiling due to muscles surrounding the cervical spine being pulled; puts excessive strain on the spine

177
Q

How is neuromuscular specificity best described in terms of exercise?

A

The speed of contraction and exercise selection

178
Q

In the case of postural distortions, which type of stretching should be avoided?

A

Active-isolated stretching

179
Q

How would synergist dominance best be described?

A

When incorrect muscle groups take over the function of the weak, inhibited agonist

180
Q

What kind of injuries and conditions can upper crossed syndrome cause?

A

Headaches
Biceps tendonitis
Rotator cuff impingement

181
Q

How can quickness best be described according to NASM?

A

The ability to react to the velocity of a stimulus and change the motion of the body accordingly

182
Q

What training frequency would be ideal for new, unconditioned clients?

A

2 days per week

183
Q

What is the Karvonen method also referred to as? What is the associated equation?

A

Heart Rate Reserve Method (HRR)

THR = [(HRMax - HRrest) x desired intensity] + HRrest

184
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, what is also considered the amortization phase?

A

The second phase (the isometric phase)

185
Q

What is the best way to describe the integrated performance paradigm?

A

To move with efficiency
the eccentric phase needs to be decelerated
the isometric phase needs to be stabilized
the concentric phase needs to be accelerated

186
Q

How would you best describe the stretch-shortening cycle?

A

Loading of the muscle in the eccentric contraction to prepare for an accelerated contraction

187
Q

How should you guide someone in the preparation stage?

A

Help them clarify and dictate their fitness goals/expectation

188
Q

How long should an individual be asymptomatic from heart disease before engaging in resistance training?

A

At least 3 months

189
Q

What is considered the best practice for a personal trainer?

A

Screening a client for exercise limitations

190
Q

What is the unique feature of Type IIa muscle fibers?

A

They can create energy from both anaerobic and aerobic muscle fibers

191
Q

If an individual is doing prolonged, intense exercise, about how long will it take for their glycogen stores to become depleted?

A

About 90 minutes

192
Q

What are the effects that result from excess calcium intake?

A

Constipation
Nausea
Kidney Stone

Liver damage does NOT result from excess calcium intake

193
Q

What are the four phases for cardiac rehabilitation and how do they relate to a client’s readiness for exercise?

A

Chapter 21

194
Q

Define Balance-Strength Exercises. Examples?

A

use full range of motion and dynamic control in the mid-range of the motion with up to 3 planes of motion

195
Q

What kind of exercise is a single leg-lift and chop?

A

Balance-stabilization exercise

196
Q

Exercises in Phase 3 of the OPT Model

A

0-4 core exercises

197
Q

Example of cardiorespiratory training for a client in Stage 2

A 
5-minute warm-up
1 minute Zone 2
3 minutes Zone 1
1 minute Zone 2
3 minutes Zone 1
1 minute Zone 1
5-minute cool-down
198
Q

Which muscles may be underactive if the low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

A

Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers

199
Q

Which group represents injuries that are potentially caused by pronation distortion syndrome?

A

Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain

200
Q

Define a complete protein. Examples?

A

A complete protein is one that provides all of the essential amino acids in the amount the body needs and is also easy to digest and absorb.

Examples: animal proteins such as meats, eggs, and dairy products

201
Q

What is an appropriate SAQ drill for seniors?

A

Stand up to figure 8

202
Q

What kind of exercise do cone drills fall under?

A

SAQ stabilization exercise

203
Q

Why should supine exercises be avoided for women in their second trimester of pregnancy?

A

Altered blood flow to uterus

204
Q

What amount of caffeine has been shown to increase performance?

A

3-6 milligrams (of caffeine) /kg of bodyweight

205
Q

What would be considered Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act (HIPAA) compliant? What should you tell the client to avoid?

A

Requesting advice from another trainer regarding a client’s distortion patterns

Keeping a written record of a client’s fitness progress

Sharing a client’s fitness progress with their primary care physician

Make sure the client avoids providing health information over generic email

NASM (4 decks)

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