Fiser ABSITE CH. 13 Inflammation and Cytokines Flashcards

1
Q

Inflammation phases: injury leads to exposed ___; ____ release, tissue factor release from ____

A

collagen, platelet-activating factor, endothelium

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2
Q

In inflammation platelets bind and release ___ which leads to PMN and macrophage recruitment.

A

PDGF

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3
Q

Play a dominant role in wound healing, release important growth factors (PDGF) and cytokines IL-1 and TNF-a.

A

Macrophages

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4
Q

Similar effect as TGF-beta. Chemotactic and activates inflammatory cells (PMNs and macrophages). Chemotactic and activates fibroblasts -> collagen and ECM proteins. Angiogenesis. Epithelialization. Chemotactic for smooth muscle cells. Has been shown to accelerate wound healing.

A

PDGF; (EGF and FGF also help chemotaxis, angiogenesis and epithelialization)

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5
Q

Stimulates angiogenesis and is involved in tumor metastasis.

A

V-EGF

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6
Q

Not stored, generated by phospholipase in endothelium and other cells. Stimulates many types of inflammatory cells; chemotactic; increased adhesion molecules

A

Platelet activating factor (PAF)

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7
Q

PMNs last ____ days in tissues, ___ days in blood

A

1-2, 7

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8
Q

Platelets last ___ days

A

7-10

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9
Q

Have IgE receptors that bind allergen. Release major basic protein which stimulates basophils and mast cells to release histamine. Increased in parasitic infections.

A

Eosinophils

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10
Q

Have IgE receptors. Main source of histamine in blood. Not found in tissue.

A

Basophils

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11
Q

Primary cell type in type I reactions. Main source of histamine in tissues other than stomach.

A

Mast cells

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12
Q

Vasodilation, tissue edema, postcapillary leakage. Primary effectors in type I hypersensitivity reactions (allergic reactions)

A

Histamine

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13
Q

Vasodilation, increased permeability, pain contraction of pulmonary arterioles. ACE inactivates.

A

Bradykinin

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14
Q

Has arginine percursor. Activates guanylate cyclase and increases cGMP, resulting in vascular smooth muscle dilation. Also called endotheliu-derived relaxing factor (EDRF).

A

Nitric Oxide

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15
Q

What does endothelin do?

A

vascular smooth muscle constriction

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16
Q

Main initial cytokine response to injury and infection is release of ___ and ____

A

TNF-alpha and IL-1

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17
Q

What is the largest producer of TNF?

A

macrophage

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18
Q

What cytokine is responsible for cachexia in cancer patients?

A

TNF-alpha

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19
Q

What is the main source of IL-1

A

macrophage

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20
Q

IL-1 effects are similar to ___ and synergizes with it.

A

TNF

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21
Q

Alveolar macrophages cause fever with atelectasis by releasing ___

22
Q

IL-1 also increases what other IL production?

23
Q

IL-1 responsible for fever which is mediated by ___ in hypothalamus.

A

PGE2 (NSAIDs decrease)

24
Q

Which IL increases hepatic acute phase proteins (CRP, amyloid A) and lymphocyte activation.

25
Released by lymphocytes in response to viral infection or other stimulates. Active macrophages, natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells. Inhibit viral replication.
Interferon
26
Name 2 proteins decreased as result of hepatic acute phase response.
albumin, transferrin
27
Provides rolling adhesion. Located on leukocytes, bind to ones on endothelial and platelets
Selectins (L-selectins, E- and P- respectively)
28
On leukocytes; bind ICAMs; anchoring adhesion.
Beta 2 Integrins
29
ICAM, VCAM, PECAM, ELAM on endothelial cells, bind beta-2 integrin molecules located on leukocytes and platelets. These are also involved in ___
endothelial migration
30
In the classic complement pathway, antigen-antibody complexes activate. Which 2 abx? And which 3 factors are found only in the classic pathway?
IgG, IgM | Factors C1, C2, and C4
31
The alternative complement pathway, endotoxin, bacteria, other stimuli activate. What 3 factors are found only in this pathway?
B, D and P (properdin)
32
What is the common convergence point for classic and alternative complement pathways?
C3
33
What electrolyte is required for both complement pathways?
Mg
34
What are the 3 anaphylatoxins in the complement pathway that increase vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction (bronchi); activate mast cells and basophils
C3a, C4a, C5a
35
What forms the membrane attack complex?
C5b-9b
36
What part of the complement cascade functions in opsonization?
C3b
37
What 2 parts of the complement cascade functions in chemotaxis?
C3a and C5a
38
Prostaglandins: ___ and ___ - vasodilation, bronchodilation, increased permeability; inhibit platelets; ___ - vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, increased permeability
PGI2 and PGE2; | PGD2
39
___ inhibit cycloxygenase reversibly;
NSAIDs
40
___ inhibits cycloxygenase irreversibly, inhibits platelets adhesion by decreaseing ___
Aspirin, TXA2
41
Inhibit phospholipase, which converts phospholipids to arachidonic acid -> inhibits inflammation
Steroids
42
What are the slow-reaching substances of anaphylaxis; bronchoconstriction; vasoconstriction followed by increased permeability (wheal and flare)
Leukotrienes
43
Which leukotriene is chemotactic?
LTB4
44
Catecholamines peak how many hours after injury?
24-48
45
What is the primary mediator of reperfusion injury?
PMNs
46
NADPH-oxidase system enzyme defect in PMNs. Results in decreased superoxide radical (O2-) formation.
Chronic granulomatous disease
47
Most potent stimulus for hepatic acute phase response
IL-6
48
T/F CRP is increases in hepatic acute phase response
T
49
T/F Thyroid hormone plays a major role in injury
F
50
T/F RBCs have antioxidant properties
T
51
Antioxidant properties of RBCs
Superoxide dismutase and catalase