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Surgery > Fiser ABSITE Ch. 11 Oncology > Flashcards

Fiser ABSITE Ch. 11 Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common CA in women

A

breast CA

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2
Q

Most common cause of CA related death in women

A

lung CA

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3
Q

Most common CA in men

A

Lung CA

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4
Q

Most common cause for CA related death in men

A

lung CA

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5
Q

Used to identify metastases, detects fluorodeoxyglucose molecules

A

PET scan

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6
Q

___ need MHC complex to attack tumor, while ___ cells can independently attack tumor cells

A

T cells, Natural killer cells

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7
Q

What is the tumor marker for colon CA and what is the half-life?

A

CEA, 18 days

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8
Q

What is the tumor marker for liver CA and what is the half life?

A

AFP, 5 days

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9
Q

What is the tumor marker for pancreatic CA?

A

CA 19-9

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10
Q

What is the tumor marker for ovarian CA?

A

CA 125

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11
Q

What is the tumor marker for testicular CA, choriocarcinoma?

A

Beta HCG

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12
Q

What is the tumor marker for prostate CA and what is the half-life?

A

PSA (thought to be the tumor marker with the highest sensitivity), 18 days

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13
Q

What is the tumor marker for small cell lung CA and neuroblastoma?

A

NSE (neuron specific enolase)

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14
Q

Time between exposure and formation of clinically detectable tumor

A

Latency period

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15
Q

What two cancers are associated with the Epstein-Barr virus?

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal CA

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16
Q

What infectious agent is associated with gastric CA?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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17
Q

What infectious agent is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hep B and C

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18
Q

What infectious agent is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma and primary effusion lymphoma?

A

HHV-8

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19
Q

What infectious agent is associated with splenic lymphoma?

A

Hep C

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20
Q

What infectious agent is associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

A

Human T-cell leukemia virus-1

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21
Q

What is the most vulerable stage of the cell cycle for XRT?

A

M phase

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22
Q

How is most damage done to DNA with XRT?

A

formation of oxygen radicals

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23
Q

In XRT, higher-energy radiation has a ___ effect (maximal ionizing potential not reached until deeper structures)

A

skin-preserving

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24
Q

Fractionate doses in XRT allow for:
___ of normal cells
___ of tumor
___ of tumor cells in cell cycle

A

repair
reoxygenation
redistribution

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25
Name 2 very radiosensitive tumors
seminomas, lymphomas
26
Name 2 very radioresistant tumors
epithelial, sarcomas
27
Why are large tumors less responsive to XRT?
lack of oxygen in tumor
28
Lymphocytes as well as what 3 organs have increased sensitivity to XRT?
kidneys, liver, lungs
29
What is the difference in cell killing ability in cell cycle-specific agents (5FU, MTX) and cell cycle-nonspecific agents?
cell cycle-specific agents exhibit plateau in cell-killing ability while cell cycle-nonspecific agents have a linear response to cell killing
30
What chemotherapy agent decreases short-term (5 year) of breast CA but carries a 1% risk of blood clots and a 0.1% endometrial CA.
Tamoxifen (blocks estrogen receptor)
31
What chemotherapy agent promotes microtubule formation and stabilization that cannot be broken down; cells are ruptured
Taxol (Paclitaxel)
32
What 2 chemotherapy agents can cause pulmonary fibrosis?
Bleomycin and busulfan
33
Name 3 side effects of cisplatin (platinum alkylating agent).
nephrotoxic, neurotoxic, ototoxic
34
Name the primary side effect of carboplatin (platinum alkylating agent).
myelo suppression (carBoplatin = bone)
35
Primary side effect of Vincristine (microtubule inhibitor).
peripheral neuropathy
36
Primary side effect of Vinblastine (microtubule inhibitor).
myelo suppresion (vinBlastine = bone)
37
What is the active metabolite of cyclophosphamide?
acrolein
38
Name 3 side effects of cyclophosphamide?
gonadal dysfunction, SIADH, hemorrhagic cystitis
39
What drug can help with hemorrhagic cystitis associated with cyclophosphamide?
Mesna
40
What is the antihelminthic drug thought to stimulate the immune system against CA?
Levamisole
41
What is the MOA of methotrexate
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase which inhibits purine and DNA synthesis
42
What are two side effects of methotrexate?
renal toxicity, radiation recall (inflammatory reaction after radiation therapy, usually a rash with blistering)
43
What can be used to reverse the effects of methotrexate
Leucovorin rescue (folinic acid)
44
What is the mechanism of action of 5-Fluorouracil?
inhibits thymidylate synthesis, which inhibits purine and DNA synthesis,
45
What drug increases the effectiveness of 5FU
leucovorin
46
What is the mechanism of doxorubicin and what is it toxic to?
DNA intercalator, O2 radical formation; | heart toxicity secondary to O2 radicals at > 500 mg/m2
47
Etoposide inhibits ___
topoismerase (which normally unwinds DNA)
48
What can be used for neutrophil recover after chemo?
granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GCSF)
49
What are the side effects of GCSF?
Sweet's syndrome (acute febrile neutropenic dermatitis)
50
What are two indications for resection of normal thyroid to prevent CA
RET proto-oncogene or MENIN gene with family history of MEN or thyroid CA
51
Li-Fraumeni syndrome defect is in __ gene; pts get childhood sarcomas, breast CA, brain tumors, leukemia, adrenal CA
p53
52
What is the proto-oncogene associated with medullary CA of the thyroid?
Ret
53
What function is the APC gene involved with?
cell adhesion and cytoskeleton function
54
What 3 cancers is coal tar associated with?
larynx, skin, bronchial
55
What cancer is Beta-naphthylamine assoiciated with?
urinary tract CA
56
What cancer is benzen associated with?
leukemia
57
What cancer is asbestos associated with?
mesothelioma
58
What 4 cancers are associated with a suspicious supraclavicular node?
neck, breast, lung, stomach (Virchow's), pancreas
59
What 3 cancers are associated with a suspicious axillary node?
lymphoma (#1), breast, melanoma
60
What cancer is associated with a suspicious periumbilical node?
pancreas (Sister Mary Joseph's node)
61
What 2 cancers are associated with ovarian metastases?
stomach (Krukenberg tumor), colon
62
What 2 cancers are associated with bone metastases?
breast (#1), prostate
63
What 2 cancers are associated with skin metastases?
breast melanoma
64
What is the number one cancer associated with small bowel metastases?
melanoma
65
"Name the type of therapy: | sole treatment; often used for advanced disease or when no other treatment exists"
Induction
66
"Name the type of therapy: | chemotherapy given 1st, followed by another (secondary) therapy"
Primary (neoadjuvant)
67
"Name the type of therapy: | combined with another modality; given after other therapy is used"
Adjuvant
68
"Name the type of therapy: | for tumors that fail to respond to initial chemotherapy"
Salvage
69
Does colon CA go to bone?
not usually
70
Colon metastasis to the liver, if successfully resected what is the 5 year survival rate?
25%
71
What are the 2 most successfully cure metastases with surgery?
colon CA to liver, sarcoma to the lung | but survival still low overall for these
72
Name the main tumor for which surgical debulking improves chemotherapy (not seen in other tumors)
Ovarian CA
73
Name the 2 solid tumors curable with chemotherapy only
Hodgkin's disease, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
74
What are most lymphomas?
B cell
75
Name 2 HIV-related malignancies
Kaposi's sarcoma, NHL
76
Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 13, cell cycle
Rb
77
Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 17, cell cycle
p53
78
Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 5
APC
79
Tumor suppressor gene: Chrom 18, cell adhesion
DCC
80
Tumor suppressor gene: Apoptosis
bcl and p53
81
Tumor suppressor gene: Breast CA
BRCA
82
Proto-oncogene: G-protein defect
ras
83
Proto-oncogene: Tyrosine kinase defect
src
84
Proto-oncogene: PDGF receptor defect
sis
85
Proto-oncogene: EGF receptor defect
erb B
86
Proto-oncogene: Transcription factors
myc

Surgery (33 decks)

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