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First Year Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common immunoglobulin antibody in the body

A

IgG

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2
Q

where is the trachea palpated

A

suprasternal/jugular notch

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3
Q

which nerve supplies the diaphragm

A

phrenic nerve - C3, 4, 5

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4
Q

which bone has no articulations in the body

A

hyoid bone

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5
Q

which Ig is found in breast milk

A

IgA

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6
Q

which Ig is associated with hypersensitivity

A

IgE

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7
Q

Ziehl Neelson stain positive for acid fast bacilli shows

A

TB

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8
Q

caseous necrosis shows

A

TB

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9
Q

diarrhoea and dry cough after being on holiday

A

Legionella - urinary antigen test

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10
Q

tall, thin young male who smokes cannabis with chest pain is most likely due to

A

pneumothorax

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11
Q

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodusum, non-caseating granulomas, uveitis shows

A

sarcoidosis

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12
Q

bronchiole wider than neighbouring arteriole (signet ring sign) shows

A

bronchiectasis

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13
Q

D sign on X-ray shows

A

Empyema

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14
Q

child with barking cough is most likely

A

Croup

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15
Q

alcoholic with aspiration pneumonia - most likely pathogen is

A

Klebsiella Pneumonia - anaerobe and treat with metronidazole

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16
Q

ADH and ACTH secreting lung cancer

A

small cell lung cancer

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17
Q

small cell lung cancers are derived from

A

neuroendocrine cells

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18
Q

nerve that supplies the rectum

A

pudendal nerve

S2, 3, 4 keeps penis, pee and poo off the floor

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19
Q

pneumonia associated with sheep and goats

A

coxiella burnetti

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20
Q

increased Ca2+ and serum ACE

A

sarcoidosis

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21
Q

acute management of asthma

A 
Oxygen 100% non-rebreather 
Salbutamol nebulised 
Hydrocortisone/Prednisolone 
Ipratropium nebulised hourly 
Theophylline/aminophylline IV
Magnesium 
Anaesthetist
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22
Q

management of exacerbation of COPD

A 
Ipratropium 
Salbutamol 
Oxygen 
Amoxicillin 
Prednisolone
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23
Q

non-smoker with lung cancer is likely to have

A

adenocarcinoma

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24
Q

low D-dimers excludes PE

A

true

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25
Q

treatment for large PE

A

thrombolysis

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26
Q

treatment for small PE

A

low molecular weight heparin

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27
Q

obstructive lung disease + high eosinophils =

A

asthma

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28
Q

obstructive lung disease + high neutrophils =

A

COPD

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29
Q

saw tooth ECG

A

atrial flutter

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30
Q

irregularly irregular pulse

A

atrial fibrillation

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31
Q

side effects of ACEi

A

dry cough and hyperkaeaemia

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32
Q

radial radial delay is sign of

A

aortic dissection

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33
Q

collapsing pulse found in

A

aortic regurgitation

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34
Q

malar flush found in

A

mitral stenosis

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35
Q

ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids

A

aortic stenosis

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36
Q

pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

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37
Q

signs of infective endocarditis

A

splinter haemorrhages
janeway lesions
osler nodes
roth spots

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38
Q

staph aureus causes endocarditis in ___

A

IVDU and prosthetic valves

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39
Q

what 4 conditions make up tetralogy of fallot

A

overriding aorta
VSD
ventricular hypertrophy
pulmonary stenosis

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40
Q

anticoagulant examples are

A

warfarin
epixaban
rivaroxaban

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41
Q

anticoagulants treat venous/arterial clots

A

venous

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42
Q

antiplatelet example are

A

aspirin
clopidogrel
ticagrelor

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43
Q

antiplatelets treat venous/arterial clots

44
Q

atropine treats

A

severe bradycardia

45
Q

acute treatment for supraventricular tachycardia

A

vagal manoeuvres

IV adenosine and verapamil

46
Q

first line treatment of ascites

A

spirnolactone

47
Q

what are the side effects of spirnolactone

A

gynaecomastia

hyperkalaemia

48
Q

where does the vena cava pass through the diaphragm

A

T8 (eight letters)

49
Q

where does the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm

A

T10 (10 letters)

50
Q

which vertebral level does the aortic hiatus pass through diaphragm

A

T12 (12 letters)

51
Q

antibody found in coeliacs disease

A

anti-transglutaminase antibody

52
Q

air cresent sign on chest x-ray sign of

A

aspergillus infection

53
Q

gingival hypertrophy side effects of

A

calcium channel blocker

54
Q

bird beak appearance and difficulty swallowing solids and liquids

55
Q

Grey turners sign and Cullens sign

A

acute pancreatitis

56
Q

Murphys sign positive

A

cholecyctitis

57
Q

pale stools, dark urine, jaundice and abdo pain

A

biliary obstruction

58
Q

abdo distension, caput medusae, shifting dullness, spider naevi and gynaecomastia

A

portal hypertension

ascites

59
Q

extraintestinal manifestations of Crohns disease and UC

A

apthous ulcers - crohns only
anal fissures - crohns only
erythema nodosum
pyoderma gangrenosum

60
Q

tingling bowel sounds

A

bowel obstruction

61
Q

urea breath test

62
Q

presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies

A

primary biliary cholangitis

63
Q

presence of anti-smooth muscle antibodies

A

autoimmune hepatitis

64
Q

+ve pANCA

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

65
Q

presence of alpha feto protein

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

66
Q

diuretic used for ascites

A

spirnolactone

67
Q

most common cause of gastroenteritis

A

campylobacter

68
Q

Russels sign

A

self-induced vomiting

69
Q

non-smoker lung cancer and where it appears

A

adenocarcinoma in the peripheries

70
Q

2 central lung cancers

A

small cell and squamous cell

71
Q

tall tented T waves

A

hyperkalaemia

72
Q

ST depression

A

myocardial ischaemia

73
Q

delta waves

A

wolf-parkinson white syndrome

74
Q

parathyroid secreting lung tumour

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

75
Q

exudate protein is

A

> 30g/l usually malignancy or pneumonia remember Extra

76
Q

transudate protein is

A

<30g/l left ventricular failure and cirrhosis

77
Q

large cell lung cancer secretes ___ causing __

A

sex hormones causing gynaecomastia

78
Q

causes of hypercalcaemia

A

moans - GI eg constipation
bones - fractures
groans - psychological
stones - kidney stones

79
Q

machine gun like murmur

A

patent ductus arteriosus

80
Q

slow rising pulse

A

aortic stenosis

81
Q

strep viridans causing endocarditis after

A

dental surgery

82
Q

onion skinning fibrosis, beading of bile ducts and patient has UC

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

83
Q

charcots triad for acute cholangitis

A

fever
abdominal pain
jaundice

84
Q

side effect of spirnolactone

A

gynaecomastia

85
Q

replacement of stratified squamous epithelium with simple columnar epithelium

A

Barrets Oesophagus

86
Q

bronzed diabetic with slate grey appearance

A

haemochromatosis

87
Q

treatment for haemochromatosis

A

regular venesection

88
Q

kaiser fleischer rings in eyes + liver disease and family history

A

Wilsons disease

89
Q

inherited condition causing emphysema and liver disease

A

alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency

90
Q

low cereuloplasmin

A

Wilsons disease

91
Q

jaundice and hepatomegaly of woman on oral contraceptive

A

Budd-Chiari

92
Q

treatment of mild C Diff

A

metronidazole

93
Q

treatment of severe C Diff

A

oral vancomycin

94
Q

duration of P wave

A

0.08-0.10 seconds

95
Q

duration of PR interval

A

0.12-0.2 seconds

96
Q

duration of QRS complex

A

0.12 seconds

97
Q

calculating a regular heart rate

A

300/(number of large squares in RR interval)

98
Q

calculating an irregular heart rate

A

300/(number of RR peaks in 6 large boxes)

99
Q

ST depression is sign of

A

myocardial ischaemia

100
Q

tall T waves is a sign of

A

hyperkalaemia

101
Q

pathological Q waves are a sign of

A

previous MI

102
Q

STEMI in leads II, III and aVF is where and affects which artery

A

inferior MI

affecting right coronary artery

103
Q

STEMI in leads I, aVL, V2-V6 is where and affects which artery

A

anterolateral

affects LAD/left circumflex

104
Q

STEMI in leads V2-V5 is where and affects which artery

A

anterior

LAD

105
Q

STEMI in leads V1-V4 is where and affects which artery

A

anteroseptal

LAD

106
Q

STEMI in leads V1-V2 is where and affects which artery

A

posterior

right coronary

107
Q

name a potassium sparing diuretic and side effects

A

spirnolactone - gynaecomastia and hyperkalaemia

Buzz Words (3 decks)

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