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First midterm > First Midterm > Flashcards

First Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

WFor necropsy, you should take samples from what first?

A

live animals first. Healthy then sick

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2
Q

For necropsy, what do you do before euthanizing?

A

collect blood

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3
Q

For necropsy what samples should you take first?

A

sterile

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4
Q

What is the major consumer concern in beef production?

A

animal welfare

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5
Q

How do we avoid residues in food animal?

A

ID all animals treated
record all treatments
no more than 10 cc per injection site
follow label directions
seperate injection sites by 4 inches
dont mix drugs in the same syringe
check all records before marketing

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6
Q

What are the 3 subphases of inflammation

A

-hemostasis, early inflammation and late inflammation

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7
Q

what are the main cells during ealry inflammation?
what about late inflammation

A

neutrophils
macrophages

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8
Q

what are the key cells during the proliferation phase

A

fibroblasts

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9
Q

what are the 3 best solutions for lavage?

A

tap water
0.9% saline
any iv fluid

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10
Q

What are the types of closure?

A

primary -> close the day you see the wound
delayed primary -> days after but before granulation tissue
secondary -> closing over granulation tissue
second intention healing ->allowing wound to heal through contracture and epithelialization

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11
Q

What types of wounds do you usually not do primary closures on

A

gun shots, burns, snake bits, and bites

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12
Q

what are the goals of the primary layer in the inflammatory phase vs the proliferative phase

A

debridement and antibacterial vs hold cytokines and cells and keep the fragile skin

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13
Q

Paroxysmal Disorders

A

Constellation of conditions
whose common clinical denominator is the association with episodic,
transient, and generally self-limiting abnormalities in behavior, movement, or
consciousness in an animal that appears normal in between episodes

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14
Q

Paroxysm

A

A fit, spasm, or seizure

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15
Q

What is the most important step in classifying a paroxysmal disorder?

A

obtaining a thorough history from someone that has witnessed the event

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16
Q

Paroxysmal disorders can result from

A

epileptogenetic or non epileptogenetic etiologies. Non-epileptogenic causes can result
from neurological or cardiovascular diseases

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17
Q

Neurologic, non-epileptogenic etiologies

A

narcolepsy/cataplexy, movement disorders, neuromuscular
weakness, behavioral stereotypies

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18
Q

Cardiovascular, non-epileptogenic etiologies include

A

syncope

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19
Q

Epileptogenic causes include \

A

idiopathic/genetic,
structural, or unknown epilepsies

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20
Q

Narcolepsy/Cataplexy

A

Rare disease affecting the neuronal circuitry in brain that regulates
sleep/wake cycle; specifically involves abnormalities of the hypocretin/orexin
neurotransmitter
i. May be inherited/genetic- caused by mutation in HCRTR2 gene
resulting in abnormality hypocretin/orexin receptors in brain
* Autosomal recessive in Dobermans, Labrador retrievers,
Dachshunds
ii. Acquired form results from hypocretin/orexin deficiency in brain,
affects older animals
b. Clinical Signs- Cataplectic attacks are primary clinical manifestation of
disease, characterized by sudden and complete atonia causing collapse
lasting several seconds to minutes
i. Cataplectic triggers include- feeding, excitement/stress, concurrent
disease
ii. Remain conscious during attack, particularly at the beginning, and
episode can usually be interrupted by interacting with or petting
animal
iii. Affected animals recover extremely rapidly after an episode, and
may experience dozens of episodes/day
iv. Disturbances in sleep/wake cycle predispose narcoleptic animals to
chronic fatigue, but they rarely appear somnolent all the time
c. Diagnosis
i. Usually based on compatible clinical signs. +/- genetic test where
applicable
ii. Cataplectic episodes can be induced using food-induced cataplexy
test or pharmacologically induced with physostigmine
iii. EEG during episode will show low-amplitude, fast-waves consistent
Treatment and Prognosis
i. Treatment of cataplectic episodes- Imipramine, clomipramine,
yohimbine
ii. Treatment of excessive sleepiness not usually needed but can be
done with stimulants- amphetamine, yohimbine, modafinil
iii. Some cases of acquired narcolepsy/cataplexy will have spontaneous
resolution of disease, esp. if stressor or concurrent disease can be
identified and resolved

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21
Q

Some behavioral disorders such as aggression and compulsive disorder are characterized by episodic stereotypies. What do many manifest as?
How are the animals in between episodes?
What makes these unique?

A

continuous, rhythmic pacing, orofacial automatisms
(licking/smacking), tail chasing
normal
-There is no alteration in consciousness or muscular tone during these episodes and there is usually an identifiable trigger

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22
Q

What is the mean age of a cat with feline hyperthesthia?

A

1 year

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23
Q

What is something different we would expect to see in a dog vs a cat with idiopathic seizures that are being treated on phenobarb or keprra?

A

wouldnt seen alk phos elevated in cats

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24
Q

What drugs should never be used in cats to treat seizures?

A

potassium bromide and diazepam

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25
Q

What is the treatment of choice for audiogenic seizurews

A

keppra

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26
Q

What are the most common causes for cervical ventroflexion in cats?lym

A

-hypocalcemia, myathesthenia gravis and thiamine deficiency

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27
Q

What is the most common neoplasm affecting the spinal cord?

A

lymphoma

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28
Q

What is the best diagnostic for canine brucellosis when breeding dogs?

A

Cornell multiplex test

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29
Q

When breeding, when should you sample progesterone?
How do you know when the LH surge is?
When do you know are ovulating?

A

M-W-F
-2
5

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30
Q

look at slide 18 of small animal therio

A
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31
Q

When does progesterone testing start?

A

day 5-7 of the cycle

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32
Q

How long does chilled semen last
How long does frozen semen last and when can you use it

A

5-7 DAYS
12-24 hours. d 3-4 post ovulation or 5-7 post-LH

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33
Q

What is the most effective way to prevent dental disease at home?

A

Brushing teeth

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34
Q

How quickly can plaque and calculus form after a dental?

A

plaque can form 6-8 hours after and dental claculus can form 3-5 days after

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35
Q

When do serology, what do you do in most cases that are positive?

A

Do two tests that are 2-3 weeks apart with a 4 fold increase in antibodies. CS should match the scenario

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36
Q

What do direct fluoescent antibody tests measure vs indirect?

A

direct -> antigen in the tissues
indirect -> antibodies in serum or antigen in tissues

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37
Q

Immunoenzyme assays can measure what?

A

-antibody or antigen

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38
Q

Agglutination tests can measure what?

A

testing for prescence of antibodies by measuring agglutination

39
Q

What do virus neutralization assays measure?

A

antibodies that specifically neutralize a virus

40
Q

When do we worry about maternal anbitodies?

A

when animals are 6 months of age or less

41
Q

With total hip replacements, what should we be cautious of not doing during rehab?

A

only move with teh saggital plane

42
Q

When do we start rehab with a FHO?

A

immediately to prevent fibrosis

43
Q

When is peak fertility?

A

2-4 years in a dog

44
Q

What does pre sperm, sperm rich and post sperm look like?

A

-slightly cloud, grayish white, crystal clear

45
Q

Always evaluate semen morphology under what?

A

oil immersion

46
Q

What are the 4 things that make up BRDC

A

Manheimia hemolytica
-Mycoplasma
-Pasteurella multocida
-Histophilus Somni

47
Q

How do cows get infected with Manheimmia

A

-The leukotoxins produced by manheimmia implode, attacking the white blood cells and causing damage to the cow lungs

48
Q

What are the drug classses used for metaphylaxis?-

A

Nuflor, excede, noromycin, baytril, and macrolides

49
Q

What is the best treatmnet for Histophilus somni in bovine?

A

CTC

50
Q

When do we vaccinate category 2 vs 3 calves?

A

Category 2 is 24 hours and category 3 is right when they get there

51
Q

What teeth do we commonly see tooth resorption in cats?

A

Mandibular third premolars and 1st molars and the maxillary 3rd and 4th premolars are common

52
Q

Describe the difference between a fucation and a resoprtive lesion enamel edge

A

resorptive has a sharp enamel edge

53
Q

Describe the resorptive staging lesions for location

A

Stage 1 ->focal or multifocal radiolucency is present in the tooth with a normal periodontal ligament
Stage 2-> There is a narrowing or disapperance of the periodontal ligament space and a decreased radiopacity in some of the tooth
Stage 3-> mix

54
Q

What teeth with resorptive lesions need extraction?

A

near or through level of gum attachment

55
Q

When can we do a crown amputation

A

If there is no evidence of periodontal ligament

56
Q

What are the most common causes for mentation changes?

A

Neoplasia, MUE, trauma, toxins

57
Q

What is needed to perfuse the brain?

A

Increased MAP or decreased CCP

58
Q

What kind of seizure is considered a true emergency

A

status epilepticus

59
Q

How do you treat status epilepticus?

A

start with a benzodiazpem
move to propofol if needed
add in a long acting seizure medication
start CRI of benzo or propofol if seizures continue
treat systemic signs

60
Q

How do you treat a truamatic brain injury?

A

If there are seizures present administer ASD then do abcs

61
Q

What forces does the vertebral body resist?
What about the articular faucetes?
Intervertebral disc?

A

-resists bending and axial load
-all forces
-lateral bending and torsion

62
Q

Where are traumatic back injuries more common?

A

Craniocervical junction
cervicothoracic junction
T-L junction
L-S junction

63
Q

What back injuries can you use conservative management with?

A

Cervical fractures, caudal lumbar or lumbarsacral fractures iwth grade 1-2 deficits, no significant concurrent injuries, intact pain perception, or dictated by client constraints

64
Q

When does embryonic resoprtion occur and what are the two reasons why?

A

less than 35 days of gestation
-physiologic (does not affect normal litter size -> genetic abnormality of embryo or overcrowindg)
-pathologic (infection vs non infeciton)

65
Q

What are the downfalls of clin path vs anatomic patho

A

Clin path -> cant use to grade and not usually definitive
Anatomic pathology -> usually takes longer, have to do under general anesthesia

66
Q

Where is the best place to collect a sample to send out?

A

the interface

67
Q

How does distribution in weight change with a trot?

A

120% FL and 75% HL

68
Q

How does the spinal column play a role in movement?

A

C7 ->natural lodortic curve, very muscular, movement in all directions
T13-> least amount of movement and flexibility, has very long dorsal spinal processes
L7-> majority of movement in the T-L junction
Sacroiliac joint ->7 degrees of rotation can be very painful when not aligned

69
Q

What is the toxin in the japanese yew?

A

Taxine

70
Q

What is the hallmark sign of wild cherry toxicity?

A

Venous blood is hemorrhagic red

71
Q

What are the preferred locations SCC has in cows?

A

Cornea, Corneascleral junction, eyelid, nictation membrane, and conjunctiva

72
Q

What are the signs of pinkeye?

A

scleral injection, corneal edema, central corneal ulcer, excessive lacrimation , neovascularization

73
Q

Difference between a corneal ulcer with a foreign body and pink eye in cattle?

A

Foreign body -> goes all the way to the sclera

74
Q

What are the CS of milk fever vs grass tetany?

A

-down, dull, hypothermia
-staggering, down, hyperesthesia

75
Q

What are the common things that cause spinal nerve damage in cows?

A

-lymphosarcoma, disc disease, abscesses

76
Q

If you have a down cow, what are the more common things that cause them to be down if they are
-the last 2 months of gestation, immediately post calving, 2-30 days post partum

A

-starvation, winter tetany, musculoskeletal injury
-musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, toxic mastitis
-musculoskeletal injry, mineral deficiency, toxicit mastitic, toxic metritis

77
Q

If you are presented with a down cow, who is BAR and eating, why is she down? What if she is not?

A

-musculoskeletal injry, peripheral spinal nerve damage, starvation
-mineral deficiency, toxicity, severe septicemia

78
Q

What test do you use to screen the herd for Johne’s disease vs individual?

A

blood or milk test for herd
fecal PCR for individual

79
Q

Spring calving vs fall calving

A

spring -> hard to have cows in good BCS at calving, easy to have them gaining weight during breeding season
fall -> opposite

80
Q

What samples should you take post-mortem since its hard to get blood on a dead cow?

A

rumen contents, liver, kidney, urine, eyeball and bile

81
Q

What are the more commonly affected systems that we can see sudden death?

A

-cardiovascular, respiratory and CNS

82
Q

If you see a cow with symmetrical, bilateral swelling over the foot what is it until proven otherwise?

A

Foot wrot

83
Q

What drug do we reach for with lameness in dairy cows vs beef cattle?

A

ceftiofur
oxytet

84
Q

What luxation is the most common in cattle?

A

Coxofemoral luxation

85
Q

When castrating pigs, what testicle do you take out first?

A

The down testicle

86
Q

When do the baby teeth erupt in dogs and cats ?

A

3-6 weeks

87
Q

When do the permanent teeth erupt

A

3 months

88
Q

When is empircal therapy indicated?

A

-high levels of efficacy for proven treatments
-when waiting for results of c/s testing
-client cant afford c/s testing

89
Q

Specific diagnosis of bacterial infection is needed when?

A

-Animal is significantly compromised
-Suspected infection in difficult to treat site or has consequences
-Suspected bacterial pathogens dont have predictable susceptiblity patterns or rapidly develop resistance
-poor response to earlier therapy
-outbreak of disease
-suspected disease is notifiable

90
Q

Dry swabs should only be used for what?

A

PCR

91
Q

What is evidence of bacterial inflammation?

A

-Neutrophils, toxic changes, intracellular bacteria, extracellular bacteria

92
Q

What is the preferred technique for sampling?

A

FNA

93
Q

What preventatives can we get female dogs that are being bred?

A

Ivermectin, pyrantel, panacure, interceptor and sentinel, revolution, and front line plus

94
Q
A

First midterm (7 decks)

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