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Intro to Vet Tech > First Exam > Flashcards

First Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 things must a Veterinary Technician due to become license to practice?

A

Complete a 2 year AVMA accredited program, pass the VTNE , pass state boards

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2
Q

What is a VPA?

A

Veterinary Practice Act

States the laws that govern the practice of Veterinary Medicine

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3
Q

Triage

A

Assigns degrees of urgency to wounds or illnesses to decide the order of treatment

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4
Q

SOAP

A

Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan

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5
Q

Subjective

A

HIstory, mentation, dehydration, appetite

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6
Q

Objective

A

Measurable data, TPR, laboratory results

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7
Q

Assessment

A

Status of patient, differental diagnosis

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8
Q

Plan

A

Course of action for the day; medications, diagnostic tests

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9
Q

VCPR

A

Veterinary Client Patient Relationship

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10
Q

Who is the father of veterinary technology

A

Dr. Walter Collins

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11
Q

What year did the term Veterinary Technician first come to use?

A

1989

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12
Q

What drug should not be given to a stallion

A

Acepromazine because it can cause penile prolapse

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13
Q

What does AVMA stand for

A

American Veterinary Medical Association

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14
Q

What does CVTEA stand for

A

Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities

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15
Q

What does AAVSB stand for

A

American Association of Veterinary State boards

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16
Q

What are the 3Ps of professionalism

A

Professional appearance, professional conduct, professional communication

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17
Q

Define Animal Welfare

A

How an animal is coping with the conditions in which it lives

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18
Q

What does APHIS stand for

A

Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

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19
Q

What service promotes health, regulates GMOs , administers the AWA, regulates wildlife management and manages the import and export of plants and animals?

A

APHIS

The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

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20
Q

What is the minimum acceptable standard of care

A

The AWA…animal welfare act

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21
Q

What does IACUC stand for?

A

Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee.

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22
Q

Who is responsible for the “Guide”

A

IACUC

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23
Q

What is HPA

A

The Horse Protection Act

Prohibits Soaring

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24
Q

Soaring

A

use of chemical agents to help accentuate their gates

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25
Q

Who are the two leading federal agencies for implementing the Endangered Species Act

A

FWS and NOAA

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26
Q

What is the goal of the Endangered Species Act? (ESA)

A

Prevent the extinction of animals and imperiled plant life

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27
Q

What are the 3 classification of ethics

A

Social, Personal and Professional ethics

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28
Q

What does NAVTA stand for?

A

National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America

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29
Q

What does the USDA stand for?

A

United States Department of Agriculture

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30
Q

What does DEA stand for

A

Drug Enforcement Administration

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31
Q

When was the controlled substance act enacted

A

1970

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32
Q

What does the FDA stand for?

A

Food and Drug Administration

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33
Q

What does the EPA stand for?

A

Environmental Protection Agency

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34
Q

What does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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35
Q

Examples of schedule 1 drugs

A

Heroin, peyote, marijuana, shrooms

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36
Q

What schedule of drugs do substances that have a high potential for abuse but currently have an accepted medical use fall into?

A

Schedule 2

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37
Q

Examples of schedule 3 drugs

A

Ketamine, anabolic steroids, hydrocodone

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38
Q

What are the 3 rules to follow when handling controlled substances and who enforces them?

A
  1. Each controlled substance must be logged, and records “readily retrievable”
  2. Records must be kept for two years
  3. Anyone handling controlled substances should be aware of federal and state regulations

DEA enforces regulations

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39
Q

What is another name for Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

A

Mad cow disease

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40
Q

What does CVM stand for?

A

Center for Veterinary Medicine

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41
Q

What is the CVM?

A

A branch of the FDA that regulates medications that are used in food animals and ensures that they do not affect the human food supply

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42
Q

What is AMDUCA

A

Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act

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43
Q

What is the FDA responsible for?

A

It is responsible for the labeling of prescription drugs and over the counter mediciations

44
Q

What is the EPA responsible for

A

Controlling pesticides, disposal of hazardous and non-hazardous wastes

45
Q

What is OSHA’s mission

A

Assure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance

46
Q

What are OSHA’s leadership responsibilities

A

Provide a safe work environment, establish a safety program, provide safety training

47
Q

What does OSHA’s “Right to know” law require?

A

Requires you to be informed of all the chemicals you could potentially be exposed to
Require you to wear proper PPE
Requires safety equipment be provided to you

48
Q

What does the blue square on the NFPA hazardous material identification system represent?

A

Health Hazard

49
Q

What does SDS stand for

A

Safety Data Sheet

50
Q

What key information is kept in a SDS binder

A

Chemical ID, Synonyms, chemical formula, physical properties, exposure limits, target organs, symptoms, first aid, how to handle spills

51
Q

What is a zoonotic disease

A

A disease that is spread from an animal to a human

52
Q

What is CLM

A

Cutaneous Larval Migrans caused by hookworms

53
Q

What is OSHA’s only approved way to recap a needle?

A

One handed needle capping

54
Q

OSHA’s 300A form is used to report what?

A

Work related injuries

55
Q

When using a portable fire extinguisher remeber to use the mnemonic PASS

A

Pull the pin
Aim low
Squeeze the Handle
Sweep from side to side at the base of the fire

56
Q

What does the ECP stand for in regards to Blood-Borne Pathogens

A

Exposure Control Plan

57
Q

What does OPIM stand for in regards to blood borne pathogens

A

Other Potentially infectious Material

58
Q

Examples of computer veterinary management systems

A

Avimark, Cornerstone, Infinity

59
Q

What is primary purpose of a medical record

A

Medical care, identifies the client and patient

Documents history, conditions, diagnosis, treatments

60
Q

What is the secondary purpose of a medical record

A

supports buiness and legal activities
Records services rendered and billing
Documents inventory
LEGAL DOCUMENT

61
Q

What other function does a medical record serve

A

Supports research

62
Q

What does a comprehensive medical record support

A

Excellent care, communication, research and good business practices
Helps protect against a malpractice litigation

63
Q

Who owns the medical record

A

The veterinary practice and its owner

64
Q

What does SOVMR stand for

A

Source Oriented Veterinary Medical Record

65
Q

True or False: Source Oriented Veterinary Medical Records are used with a card system and are often Free form

A

True

66
Q

What does POVMR

A

Problem oriented medical record

67
Q

What are two components of a Problem oriented medical record?

A 
Client and Patient info
History
PE
Working Problem lists
Assesment
Plan
Logs
Case Summary
68
Q

What are the two common types of organization of medical records?

A

Alphabetic and Numeric

69
Q

What are the 3 R’s for animal research

A

Reduction, refinement, replacement

70
Q

What are the two major federal agencies that stepped in to regulate animal research

A

USDA, PHS

71
Q

What were the 8 areas of minimum standards that the 1966 laboratory animal welfare act develope

A

Housing, feeding, watering, sanitation, shelter, separation of species, ventilation, adequate vet care

72
Q

When was the Animal Welfare Act as we know it enacted

A

1970

73
Q

Which species are excluded from the AWA

A

Cold blooded vertebrates, birds, mice and rates specifically bred for research, agriculture (Food, fur, fiber)

74
Q

What year did the AWA establish IACUC

A

1985

75
Q

IACUC: The attending Veterinarian is responsible for…

A

the health and well being of all laboratory animals used at the institution

76
Q

What is the difference between major and minor surgery

A

Major penetrates and exposes a body cavity or produces substantial impairment or physical or physiological function

77
Q

Associative Learning is dependent on what two factors

A

Contiguity and Contigency

78
Q

What is Contiguity

A

relationship between two events in both time and space

79
Q

What is contingency

A

The predictability of an association most easily learned

80
Q

What was Pavlov’s experiment

A

making a dog salivate to the ring of a bell

81
Q

Respondent conditioning

A

Neutral stimulus elicits a reflexive response

Pavlov and classical

82
Q

Operant conditioning

A

A type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher

83
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli

84
Q

What is a positive reinforcer?

A

Any stimulus that when presented after a response, strengthens the response

85
Q

Positive punishment

A

The application of an aversive stimulus after a response

86
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

The reinforcement of a response by the removal, escape from or avoidance of an unpleasant stimulus

87
Q

Negative punishment

A

The removal of a positive stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior’s recurring

88
Q

Continuous reinforcement

A

Reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs

89
Q

Intermittent reinforcement

A

When only some of the responses made are followed by reinforcement

90
Q

Extinction of behavior

A

removing reinforcements to discourage behavior

91
Q

Systemic Desensitization

A

Commonly used to treat phobias

A type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli

92
Q

Counter conditioning

A

A classical conditioning procedure for changing the relationship between a conditioned stimulus and its conditioned response

93
Q

Response blocking/flooding

A

Prevent animal from escaping fearful stimulus until it is no longer fearful; this is a less desirable approach

94
Q

Positive pro-action plan Step 2

A

Prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior

95
Q

What is habituation?

A

A decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentations

An animal should be exposed to frequently and in a nonthreatening manner to gentle handling that mimics commonly performed procedures

96
Q

What are the two main uses of medications when in regards to behavioral problems

A

relieve stress and anxiety or phobias, aid with behavior modifications

97
Q

What are the four stages of Canine development?

A

Neonatal, transition, socialization, juvenile

98
Q

Positive Pro-action plan Step 1

A

Elicit and reinforce appropriate behavior

99
Q

Positive Pro-action plan Step 3

A

Meet your pet’s behavioral and developmental needs

100
Q

Positive Pro-action plan Step 4

A

Use the “take-away” method (negative punishment) to discourage inappropriate behavior

101
Q

Positive Pro-action plan Step 5

A

Minimize discipline (positive punishment), and use it correctly when necessary

102
Q

What federal agency is APHIS under (animal and plant health inspection service)

A

USDA

103
Q

Who makes up IACUC

A

1 veterinarian, 1 institutional member, 1 community member

104
Q

What is the “Guide”

A

The Guide for the care and use of laboratory animals

105
Q

Who is responsible for administering the VTNE

A

AAVSB American Association of Veterinary State Boards

106
Q

Why is AMDUCA important

A

It is essential in exotic animal medicine, allows for extra label use of drugs

Intro to Vet Tech (12 decks)

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