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Blood bank > finals study > Flashcards

finals study Flashcards

1
Q

Testing of the last wash in the eluate procedure ensures that:

a) The check cells will work
b) The antibody identified in the eluate is the antibody attached to the red cells
c) The antibody identified in the eluate should be in the patient plasma
d) The pH of the eluate is appropriate for panel cell testing

A

b) The antibody identified in the eluate is the antibody attached to the red cells

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2
Q

Other than anti-IgG, what is in Polyspecific AHG reagent?

a) IgM
b) C9
c) C3d
d) C4

A

c) C3d

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3
Q

Which statement is true for allo-adsorption procedure?

a) It is utilized when patients have been recently transfused
b) It removes antibody from patient cells
c) QC for this procedure involves testing of the last wash
d) Patient cells are used to remove autoantibody from their own plasma

A

a) It is utilized when patients have been recently transfused

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4
Q

What test should be done next
with the following results:
Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 3+
B cell: 3+
SC1- IS: 3+ 37C: 3+ AHG: 0 CC: 2+
SC2- IS: 3+ 37C: 1+ AHG: 0 CC: 2+
Auto- IS: 3+ 37C: 3+ AHG: 3+ CC: NT

a) Adsorption
b) Phenotype for M antigen
c) DAT
d) Anemia Studies

A

c) DAT

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5
Q

Which DAT results indicate that an
elution should be performed?

a) AHG + IgG+ C3d-
b) AHG – IgG– C3d-
c) AHG + IgG- C3d+
d) AHG + IgG- C3d-

A

a) AHG + IgG+ C3d-

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6
Q

Which test result differentiates between high incident antibody and autoantibody workup?

a) Elution
b) Auto Control
c) Adsorption
d) DAT

A

b) Auto Control

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7
Q

Shortness of breath indicates hemolytic anemia, what test differentiates between cold acting antibodies and warm acting antibodies being the cause?

a) Auto control
b) Cold Screen
c) Elution
d) Donath Landsteiner

A

b) Cold Screen

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8
Q

Which type of anemia is NOT often associated with compliment activation?

a) PCH
b) CAD
c) Drug Adsorption
d) WAIHA

A

c) Drug Adsorption

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9
Q

Which antibody is most likely acting in this cold screen:
SC1- IS: 3+ 37C: 2+ AHG: 0 CC: 2+
SC2- IS: 3+ 37C: 2+ AHG: 0 CC: 2+
SC3- IS: 3+ 37C: 2+ AHG: 0 CC: 2+
Cord Cell- IS: 3+ 37C: 2+ AHG: 0 CC: 2+

a) Anti-I
b) Anti-IH
c) Anti-i
d) Anti-M

A

b) Anti-IH

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10
Q

What test helps to differentiate pathologic vs benign CAD?

a) Antibody ID
b) DAT
c) Antibody Titer
d) Donath Landsteiner

A

c) Antibody Titer

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a control for the Donath Landsteiner test?

a) Patient cells + normal plasma
b) Samples kept at 37C until testing commences
c) Normal plasma + patient plasma
d) Normal plasma

A

a) Patient cells + normal plasma

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12
Q

Which of the following diagnoses is NOT reasonable for the following serological results:
Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 0
B cell: 3+
SC1- IS: 0 37C: 1+ AHG: 3+ CC: NT
SC2- IS: 0 37C: 1+ AHG: 3+ CC: NT
Auto- IS: 3+ 37C: 3+ AHG: 3+ CC: NT

a) WAIHA
b) CAD
c) Aldomet Antibody
d) Transfusion reaction with anti-e

A

b) CAD

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13
Q

This mechanism of drug related hemolysis is less severe with penicillin and most severe with Cefotetan. Which mechanism is it?

a) Drug Adsorption
b) Immune Complex
c) Membrane Modification
d) Drug-Independent Auto Antibody

A

a) Drug Adsorption

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14
Q

Which transfusion recommendation is appropriately matched to its autoantibody diagnosis?

a) Darzalex – don’t transfuse
b) WAIHA – transfuse with blood warmer
c) CAD – wash the cells
d) Cefotetan – transfuse as normal

A

d) Cefotetan – transfuse as normal

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15
Q

A crossmatch sample collected at 1405 on Monday would expire on which day at midnight?

a) Tuesday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Friday

A

c) Thursday

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16
Q

When should a transfusionist be checking vitals?

a) Before the unit is started​
b) 15 minutes after unit is started​
c) 15 minutes after unit is completed​
d) Both a and b

A

d) Both a and b

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17
Q

What blood type donor units should anti-A,B be used on?

a) A neg
b) B pos
c) AB pos
d) O neg

A

d) O neg

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18
Q

What does NOT have to be verified when blood is read back for issue?

a) Patient ID​
b) Unit ID​
c) Visual Inspection​
d) Compatibility​
e) All have to be verified

A

e) All have to be verified

19
Q

What blood type should a patient with the following serological results receive?
Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 1+
B cell: 4+

a) A or O
b) O only
c) A or AB
d) A only

A

b) O only

20
Q

The purpose of immediate spin crossmatch is to:

a) Ensure survival of transfused RBCs​
b) Determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient​
c) Detect cold reacting antibodies​
d) Meet computer crossmatch requirements

A

b) Determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient​

21
Q

Electronic crossmatch may be performed in place of serological crossmatch under the following conditions:

a) Previous Apos with anti-c; current Apos with anti-c​
b) Previous Opos anti-E; current Opos neg screen​
c) Previous Opos neg screen; current Opos neg screen​
d) Previous None; current Oneg neg screen

A

c) Previous Opos neg screen; current Opos neg screen​

22
Q

Which crossmatch is performed on a patient with a negative antibody screen but no previous history?

a) Electronic​
b) Extended​
c) Immediate Spin​
d) Elution

A

c) Immediate Spin​

23
Q

A patient with a cold autoagglutinin will give additional reactions in which of the following tests:

a) ABO forward type
b) IS crossmatch
c) AHG screen
d) DAT IgG

A

b) IS crossmatch

24
Q

Given the following Blood typing results, which type of RBCs can you transfuse?
Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 1+
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 0
B cell: 4+

a) A neg only
b) A and O
c) O neg only
d) A neg and AB neg

A

c) O neg only

25
Q

Given the results below, which subgroup do you think the patient is?
Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Anti-A,B: 1+
A1 cell: 1+
B cell: 4+

a) A2
b) B3
c) Bx
d) Am

A

d) Am

26
Q

What is this patient’s blood type?
Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Control: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 4+

a) AB
b) A
c) B
d) O

A

d) O

27
Q

If a mother is blood type O, and child 1 is A and child 2 is B what is the father’s genotype?

a) AO
b) AB
c) BB
d) OO

A

b) AB

28
Q

A person with the following genes has what in their saliva?
HH, LeLe, SeSe, OO

a) Lea only
b) Leb and H
c) Lea and B
d) A and B

A

b) Leb and H

29
Q

The Lewis Gene codes for a transferase that transfers a sugar onto precursor substance, what is that sugar?

a) Fucose
b) N-acetylgalactosamine
c) N-acetylglucosamine
d) D-Galactose

A

a) Fucose

30
Q

D antibodies are known to cause
which of the following?

a) Hemolytic transfusion Reactions
b) Hemolytic disease of the Newborn
c) Both
d) Neither

A

c) Both

31
Q

How do you interpret an Rh type that is not reactive with anti-D but is positive in elution studies?

a) Rh negative
b) LW negative
c) Del
d) Partial D

A

c) Del

32
Q

Which of the following genotypes are heterozygous for E?

a) R2r”
b) Ror
c) rr
d) R2r

A

d) R2r

33
Q

Which Rh haplotype is most frequent in the Asian population?

a) R0
b) R1
c) R2
d) r

A

b) R1

34
Q

Which blood system does NOT have strongly expressed antigens expressed at birth?

a) MNS
b) Duffy
c) Kell
d) Lutheran

A

d) Lutheran

35
Q

Nulls of MNS protect against which disease?

a) Plasmodium falciparum
b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Taenia
d) Hemophilus Influenza

A

a) Plasmodium falciparum

36
Q

A request for 6 D negative units was received for patient Carmen SanDiego. One of the six was 2+ incompatible on AHG crossmatch, why?

a) Low incidence antibody
b) High incidence antibody
c) Patient is Weak D
d) Patient has Positive autocontrol

A

a) Low incidence antibody

37
Q

Which of the following is a high incidence/low incidence pair?

a) Fya/Fyb
b) Jka/Jkb
c) E/C
d) Lua/Lub

A

d) Lua/Lub

38
Q

Which of the following is destroyed by enzymes

a) Kpa
b) S
c) B
d) Jka

A

b) S

39
Q

Which cell is the best cell to remove auto antibodies in patient plasma using adsorption procedures?

a) Screen cell 1
b) Screen cell 2
c) Screen cell 3
d) Patient cell

A

d) Patient cell

40
Q

For the elution procedure, which step ensures that the washing was appropriate?

a) Addition of Coombs control cell after anti-AHG
b) Testing of last wash with screen cells
c) Testing of eluate with panel cells
d) Color change from yellow to blue with buffer

A

b) Testing of last wash with screen cells

41
Q

Which DAT results are most consistent with a diagnosis of CAD?

a) Poly: 3+ IgG: 3+ C3d: 0
b) Poly: 3+ IgG: 0 C3d: 0
c) Poly: 0 IgG: 0 C3d: 0
d) Poly: 3+ IgG: 0 C3d: 3+

A

d) Poly: 3+ IgG: 0 C3d: 3+

42
Q

Penicillin given in massive doses has been associated with RBC hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is typically involved in this hemolytic process?

a) Immune complex
b) Drug adsorption
c) Membrane modification
d) Autoantibody formation

A

b) Drug adsorption

43
Q

Which of the following tests does NOT have to be performed for a patient to receive an electronic crossmatch?

a) Unit ABO retype
b) Blood type on previous sample
c) Antibody screen on current sample
d) Antibody screen on donor unit

A

d) Antibody screen on donor unit

44
Q

After a unit is issued, how long does the nurse have to infuse the whole product into the patient?

a) 30 minutes
b) 2 hours
c) 4 hours
d) 24 hours

A

c) 4 hours

Blood bank (4 decks)

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