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PCM & PAV > FINALS PAV > Flashcards

FINALS PAV Flashcards

1
Q

a measurement we take in advance, to prevent dangerous, unpleasant or inconvenient from happening

A

precaution

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2
Q

refers to the practice in medicine or hospital of avoiding contact of patient’s bodily fluid, by means of wearing nonporous article

A

universal precaution

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3
Q

an approach to an infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluid as if they were known to be infectious like HIV and other blood borne pathogen

A

universal precaution

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4
Q

universal precaution was introduced by whom

A

centers for disease control (CDC)

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5
Q

when was universal precaution introduced

A

1985

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6
Q

innovation of CDC in 1987 for universal precaution that advocates to avoid physical contact to people with moist and potentially infectious body

A

body substance isolation

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7
Q

it emphasized handwashing after removing gloves

A

body substance isolation

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8
Q

in what year CDC introduced another set of guidelines for isolation precautions in hospital to practice infection control in hospitals

A

1996

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9
Q

3 transmission based precaution

A

airborne, droplet, contact

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10
Q

these are applied universally in caring for all patients and healthcare workers

A
  1. handwashing
  2. decontamination of equipment and devices
  3. use and disposal of needles and sharps safely
  4. wearing protective items
  5. prompt cleaning up of blood and bloody fluid spills
  6. systems for safe collection of waste and disposal
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11
Q

defined as control guidelines designed to protect workers from exposure to diseases spread by blood and other body fluids

A

universal precaution

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12
Q

according to them, universal precaution are intended to prevent parenteral, mucous membrane, and nonintact skin exposures of healthcare workers to bloodborne pathogens

A

CDC

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13
Q

body substances include?

A

blood, oral secretions, feces, urine, wound drainge, emesis

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14
Q

it is previously known by various names including “universal precaution” and the basic level of infection control

A

standard precaution

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15
Q

it is designed to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodborne and other pathogens from both recognized and unrecognized sources to a susceptible host

A

standard precaution

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16
Q

standard precautions apply when there is a risk of potential exposure to?

A

blood, all body fluids, non-intact skin, mucous membranes

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17
Q

it is the most single important means to prevent transmission of disease

A

hand hygiene

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18
Q

hospital infection is the result of a combination of factors?

A

microbial source, transmission, susceptinle host

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19
Q

they are the variety of microorganisms that can create a disease

A

microbial source

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20
Q

5 main types pathogenic organism

A

virus, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, worms

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21
Q

it is the action that will process the microbial source and once activated, it will host or surface it can hold

A

transmission

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22
Q

transmits from one person to another and they are the source of virus in a community

A

susceptible host

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23
Q

years where there were separation of facilities, antisepsis, and disinfections

A

1877, 1910

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24
Q

two level approach of standard precautions

A
  1. standard precautions which apply to all clients and patients attending healthcare facilities
  2. transmission-based precautions which apply only to hospitalized patients
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25
Q

year where isolation precautions was introduced as there were new pathogens like SARS, avian influenza, H5N1, H1N1

A

2007

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26
Q

additional measures focused on the particular mode of transmission and are always in addition to standard precautions

A

transmission-based precautions

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27
Q

precautions done in contact precautions

A

hand hygiene, gown, gloves on all room entries, regardless of anticipated patient contact

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28
Q

transportation precaution in contact precautions

A

cover patient with clean sheet

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29
Q

droplets can be generated through

A

coughing, sneezing, talking, during the performance of procedures

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30
Q

precautions done in droplet precautions

A

hand hygiene, surgical mask

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31
Q

precaution in transporting patient in droplet precaution

A

patient must wear surgical mask

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32
Q

precautions for airborne precaution

A

hand hygiene, respirator n-95 or capr

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33
Q

precaution in transporting patient in airborne precaution

A

patient must wear surgical mask

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34
Q

precaution in contact and droplet precautions

A

hand hygiene, gown, surgical mask, gloves

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35
Q

precaution in contact and airborne precautions

A

hand hygiene, gown, respirator n-95 or capr, gloves on all room entries, regardless of anticipated patient contact

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36
Q

this is contracted because of an infection or toxin that exists in a certain location, such as hospital

A

nosocomial infection

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37
Q

nosocomial infections are interchangeably used with terms

A

health-care associated infections and hospital-acquired infections

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38
Q

this term was traditionally used to describe infections that developed infections that were acquired in the hospital but did not develop until after discharge

A

nosocomial infection

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39
Q

how long is the incubation period for signs and symptoms of nosocomial infection to show

A

48 hours

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40
Q

transmission of nosocomial infections occurs via

A

healthcare workers, patients, hospital equipment, or interventional procedures

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41
Q

common site(s) of infection

A

blood stream, lungs, urinary tract, surgical wounds

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42
Q

though any bacteria may cause nosocomial infection, there is an increasing incident causing hospital acquired infection

A

multi-drug resistant pathogen

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43
Q

most common cause of nosocomial infection

A

bacteria

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44
Q

factors that are risk for a nosocomial infection

A

increasing age, length of hospitalization, excessive or improper use of broad-spectrum antibiotics , and number of invasive devices and procedures, underlying conditions

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45
Q

most common type of pathogens causing nosocomial infection

A

staphylococcus aureus

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46
Q

other type of pathogens causing nosocomial infection

A

escherichia coli, enterococci, candida

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47
Q

causes of nosocomial infection

A

urinary tract infections, surgical site infections, bloodstream infections, pneumonia

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48
Q

prevention of nosocomial infection

A

hand hygiene, appropriate antimicrobial use, proper PPE use, routine disinfection, remove indwelling devices as soon as possible

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49
Q

these are illnesses that result from the infection, presence, and growth of pathogenic biologic agents in an individual human or other animal host

A

communicable diseases

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50
Q

communicable diseases are also known as

A

infectious disease or transmissible diseases

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51
Q

pathogens that cause communicable disease

A

bacteria, fungi, virus

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52
Q

it refers to a group of conditions that are not mainly caused by an acute infection, result in long-term health consequences and often create a need for long-term treatment and care

A

non-communicable disease

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53
Q

non-communicable disease is also known as

A

chronic diseases

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54
Q

4 main types of ncds

A

cardiovascular diseases, cancer, chronic respiratory disease, diabetes

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55
Q

study of distribution and determinants of diseases and injuries in human populations

A

epidemiology

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56
Q

individuals specialized postgraduate education in epidemiology

A

epidemiologist

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57
Q

involves reproduction of microorganisms in the human body and state produces by the establishment or one or more pathogenic agent

A

infection

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58
Q

collective term used to describe related clinical signs and symptoms associated with an infections agent unknown etiology

A

disease

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59
Q

particular abnormal condition or it has negatively effect in our body or function of our body

A

disease

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60
Q

defined as the presence of microorganisms o the body (commonly on hands) or an inanimate objects

A

contamination

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61
Q

presence of constituent, impurity, or some other undesirable element that destroys to an object

A

contamination

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62
Q

individual who carries and has capacity to pass disease and may or may not display symptoms; either pass through genetic mutation or transmit a disease

A

carrier

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63
Q

carrier that is infected without symptoms

A

asymptomatic carrier

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64
Q

carrier that is carrying early in disease

A

incubation carrier

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65
Q

carrier that is carrying in last phases of recovery

A

convalescent carrier

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66
Q

carrier that carries disease for long periods after recovery

A

chronic carrier

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67
Q

to make something or someone ready for a procedure or activity

A

preparation

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68
Q

cognitive process of thinking about what you will do in the event of something happening

A

preparation

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69
Q

giving or application of a pharmacologic or other therapeutic agent

A

administration

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70
Q

entry point to the patient

A

vein

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71
Q

steps before doing an iv procedure

A

review the order of physician, gather all supply needed for specific procedure, approach, identify and prepare patient for process, maintain proper hygiene

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72
Q

medical technique that delivers fluids, medications, and nutrition directly into a person’s vein; fastest way possible to deliver essential nutrients to body

A

iv therapy

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73
Q

this route of administration is commonly used for rehydration or to provide nutrition for those who cannot consume food or water by mouth

A

intravenous

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74
Q

different uses of iv therapy

A

fluids, blood transfusions, medications, nutritions

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75
Q

it involves a small tube called catheter and a saline-based electrolyte solution that contains the selected vitamins and nutrients

A

iv drip

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76
Q

delivers essential nutrients and fluids directly into the bloodstream, bypassing digestive tract

A

iv drip

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77
Q

most common ingredients in an iv drip

A

saline, vitamins, electrolytes

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78
Q

a solution of salt in water (sodium chloride) and is the most common type of fluid for IVs

A

saline

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79
Q

they are essential as they can give us a boost of energy, strengthen our immune system

A

vitamins

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80
Q

these components hydrate our bodies, regulate nerve and muscle function, regulate blood pressure

A

electrolyte

81
Q

two ways to regulate the amount and rate of fluids given during iv drip

A

manual regulation, electric pump

82
Q

this machine regulates the amount and rate of fluids given during iv drip commonly used in icu

A

electric pump

83
Q

this regulator has rollers that are adjusted by nurses

A

manual regulation

84
Q

it is the rapid administration of a small volume of medication into the patient’s vein via a previously inserte iv catheter

A

iv push

85
Q

used when a rapid response to a medication is required or when the medication cannot be administered via the oral route

A

iv push

86
Q

main differences of iv drip and iv push

A

duration of the treatment
type of fluid to be injected
dosage of injected fluid

87
Q

methods of contrast media delivery

A

drip infusion, bolus method

88
Q

an iv line is initiated, and contrast medium is allowed to drip in during a period of several minutes

A

drip infusion

89
Q

this contrast enhancement uses scanning after a rapid injection of contrast material

A

bolus method

90
Q

mostly used method of delivering contrast media by radiographers and nurses

A

bolus method

91
Q

standard in CT scan procedures because the deliver the precise flow rates and volumes specified by the operator or RT, regardless of the viscosity of the solution and the game of indwelling catheter

A

mechanical injection systems

92
Q

in healthcare and public health practice settings, infection control includes various measures that prevent and contain the spread of infectious disease. these measures include?

A

hand washing
infection control standard, contact, droplet, and airborne precautions
procedures for decontamination of persons and disinfection of equipment and environment
quarantine of contacts
prophylaxis of exposed individuals
control of the vectors of infection

93
Q

WHO called infection prevention and control (IPC), a scientific approach and practical solution to prevent harm to patients and healthcare worker

A

infection control

94
Q

refers to the policy and procedures implemented to control and minimize the dissemination of infections in hospitals and other healthcare settings with the main purpose of reducing infection rates

A

infection control

95
Q

infection control guidelines by US was released in what year

A

early 1950s

96
Q

in this year, small numbers of hospital that recognize healthcare associated infections or nosocomial infections which made them implement infection control concept

A

late 1950s and 1960s

97
Q

steps for infection control

A

proper handwashing
covering cough and sneezes
staying up to date with vaccinations
using ppe
making tissues and hand cleaners available
following to hospital guidelines with blood related diseases

98
Q

prevention to infection

A

wash hands
wear mask
avoid close contact
use alcohol based
stay at home
avoid crowds
social distance
clean all shared surface
avoid touching

99
Q

often referring to those practices used to promote or induce it in an operative field in surgery or medicine to prevent infection

A

asepsis

100
Q

state of being free from disease-causing contaminents

A

asepsis

101
Q

purposes of asepsis

A

to prevent cross infection on hospital environment
to control infection
to ensure patient’s safety, comfort, and psychological well-being

102
Q

three levels of asepsis

A

antisepsis, disinfection, sterilization

103
Q

prevents or inhibits growth of pathogens but not spores and viruses, it can be used on skin; “sanitation or cleaning”

A

antisepsis

104
Q

destroys or kills pathogens but not always effective against spores and viruses, these are chemicals and can be used in surfaces

A

disinfection

105
Q

reduces the viable microorganism to an acceptable level but it might not be active to some bacteria that can spread to a person to another

A

disinfection

106
Q

it destroys all microbes; usually steam under pressure, gas, radiation and chemicals

A

sterilization

107
Q

medical asepsis is also known as

A

clean technique

108
Q

this is all practices that reduce growth, transfer and spread of pathogenic microorganisms; done in day-today activities

A

medical asepsis

109
Q

medical asepsis includes

A

handwashing
bathing
cleaning environment
gloving
gowning
wearing mask
hair and shoe covers
disinfecting articles
use of antiseptics

110
Q

methods of maintaining medical asepsis

A

handwashing, cleaning and proper waste disposal, disinfection

111
Q

we should wash our hands with soap and water at least how long

A

20 seconds

112
Q

how long it takes for virus to spread in other body parts

A

10 seconds

113
Q

removes germs from hands and help prevent infections because people frequently touch their eyes, nose, mouth

A

handwashing

114
Q

one standard precaution used in medical asepsis

A

hand hygiene

115
Q

what may happen if we do not wash are hands regularly

A

GI infections, respiratory infection

116
Q

tiny living organisms that may or may not cause diseases

A

microbes

117
Q

types of microbes that can cause disease

A

germs or pathogens

118
Q

3 types of handwashing

A

antibacterial, antimicrobial agents, antiseptic

119
Q

these are detergents or plain soaps with water to physically remove transient contaminants

A

antibacterial

120
Q

handwashing used in medical facilities

A

antimicrobial agents

121
Q

topical antiseptics or skin cleaners

A

antiseptic

122
Q

important for infection control particularly in work areas because of deposits of dust, soil and microbes on surfaces can transmit infection

A

cleaning

123
Q

this should be removed from clinical areas at least three times each day and more frequently as needed, such as from specialized areas

A

waste

124
Q

these are placed in general waste bin for removal and infectious from patient

A

general waste disposal

125
Q

these are placed in biohazard bags which has biohazard symbol and are currently colored yellow

A

clinical waste disposal

126
Q

disposal of left over medicines and contrast media

A

pharmaceutical waste disposal

127
Q

containers with non-infectious dry waste are colored

A

black

128
Q

containers with non-infectious wet waste are colored

A

green

129
Q

containers with infectious and pathological waste are colored

A

yellow

130
Q

containers with chemical/heavy metal wastes are colored

A

yellow with black band

131
Q

containers with radioactive wastes are colored

A

orange

132
Q

containers with sharps and pressurized containers are colored

A

red

133
Q

process of eliminating pathogenic organisms on an inanimate object with the exception of spores

A

disinfection

134
Q

a chemical substance that is used for disinfecting only an inanimate object

A

disinfectant

135
Q

surgical asepsis are also known as

A

sterile technique

136
Q

practice that keep an area or objects free from all microorganisms nonpathogenic and pathogenic including spores and viruses

A

surgical asepsis

137
Q

refers to any process that eliminates, removes, kills or deactivates all forms of life and other biological agents like prions present in a specific surface

A

sterilization

138
Q

common methods of sterilization

A

physical and chemical

139
Q

physical sterilization includes?

A

heat (boiling objects
radiation (uv light)
filtration (water)

140
Q

venipuncture equipment

A

evacuated collection tubes
needle
holder/adapter
alcohol wipes
adhesive bandages/tape
needle disposal unit
gloves
syringes

141
Q

designed to fill with a predetermined volume of blood by vacuum

A

evacuated collection tubes

142
Q

additives for light-blue rubber stoppers

A

3.2% sodium citrate

143
Q

tube for preventing blood from clotting by binding calcium

A

light-blue

144
Q

light-blue rubber stopper is done for what lab tests

A

coagulation

145
Q

additives for red or gold rubber stoppers

A

serum tube with or without clot activator or gel

146
Q

tube for clot activator that promotes blood clotting with glass or silica particles

A

red or gold

147
Q

red or gold rubber stopper is done for what lab tests

A

chemistry, serology, immunology

148
Q

additives for green rubber stoppers

A

sodium or lithium heparin with or without gel

149
Q

tube for preventing clotting by inhibiting thrombin and thromboplastin

A

green

150
Q

green rubber stopper is done for what lab tests

A

stat and routine chemistry

151
Q

additives for lavender or pink rubber stoppers

A

potassium edta

152
Q

tube for preventing clotting by binding calcium

A

lavender or pink

153
Q

lavender or pink rubber stopper is done for what lab tests

A

hematology and blood banks

154
Q

additives for gray rubber stoppers

A

sodium fluoride and sodium/potassium oxalate

155
Q

tube for fluoride to inhibit glycolysis and oxalate prevents clotting by precipitating calcium

A

gray

156
Q

gray rubber stopper is done for what lab tests

A

glucose, blood alcohol, lactic acid

157
Q

an olive green needle refers to

A

14 gauge

158
Q

a 14 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.072 in or 1.83 mm

159
Q

an amber needle refers to

A

15 gauge

160
Q

a 15 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.065 in or 1.65 mm

161
Q

a gray gauge refers to

A

16 gauge

162
Q

a 16 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.064 in or 1.63 mm

163
Q

a green gauge refers to

A

18 gauge

164
Q

an 18 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

0.50 in or 1.27 mm

165
Q

a pink gauge refers to

A

20 gauge

166
Q

a 20 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.036 in or .91 mm

167
Q

a purple gauge refers to

A

21 gauge

168
Q

a 21 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.033 in or .83 mm

169
Q

a blue gauge refers to

A

22 gauge

170
Q

a 22 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.027 in or .70 mm

171
Q

an orange gauge refers to

A

23 gauge

172
Q

a 23 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.025 in or .63 mm

173
Q

a red gauge refers to

A

25 gauge

174
Q

a 25 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.020 in or .53 mm

175
Q

a white gauge refers to

A

27 gauge

176
Q

a 27 gauge has an outer diameter of

A

.016 in or .42 mm

177
Q

this is used with evacuated collection system

A

holder/adapter

178
Q

a constricting or compressing device used to control venous and arterial circulation to an extremity for a period of time

A

tourniquet

179
Q

an alcohol wipes should contain how much isopropyl alcohol

A

70%

180
Q

it protects the venipuncture site after collection

A

adhesive bandages/tape

181
Q

needles should never be broken, bent, or recapped but should be place on a ______ immediately after use

A

needle disposal unit

182
Q

it can be made of latex, rubber, vinyl, and worn to protect the patient and the phlebotomist

A

gloves

183
Q

may be used in place of the evacuated collection tube for special circumstances

A

syringe

184
Q

certain areas to be avoided when choosing a site

A

extensive scars from burns and surgery
upper extremity on the side of a previous mastectomy
hematoma may cause erroneous test results
iv therapy/blood transfusions
edematous extremities

185
Q

test results when you collected blood in upper extremity on the side of a previous mastectomy may be affected because of

A

lymphedema

186
Q

veins in the arm that are used most frequently

A

larger and fuller median cubital and cephalic veins

187
Q

last resort of site selection because of higher probability of complications

A

foot veins

188
Q

types of injection

A

subcutaneous injection
intramuscular injection
intravenous injection
intraosseus injection
intradermal injection

189
Q

potential complications in venipuncture

A

infections, reaction, pain, administration error, needlestick injuries

190
Q

to minimize risk, practice ____

A

proper cleaning and use of aseptic, no-touch techniques

191
Q

how to safely administer injections

A

have a good hand hygiene
maintain a clean environment
prepare medications in clean conditions using a no-touch technique
special skin cleaning
wash hands, immediately dispose needles in designated sharps box, watch out for any reactions after injection

192
Q

deliver medication into the layer of fat just under the skin

A

subcutaneous injection

193
Q

delivers medication into a muscle

A

intramuscular injection

194
Q

delivers medication directly into a vein

A

intravenous injection

195
Q

delivers medication into bone marrow

A

intraosseus injection

196
Q

delivers medication in between the layers of the skin

A

intradermal injection

197
Q

up to what degree can we insert the needle in intramuscular method

A

90 degrees

198
Q

up to what degree can we insert the needle in subcutaneous method

A

45 degrees

199
Q

up to what degree can we insert the needle in intravenous method

A

25 degrees

PCM & PAV (4 decks)

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