Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Finals & SBA Review > Finals Made Easy > Flashcards

Finals Made Easy Flashcards

1
Q

Middle aged lady with confusion, cough, brown coloured sputum, reduced air entry in RLL, what could it be?

A

Pneumonia(most likely lobar)
Pleural effusion

Need to check with an X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dullness in pleural effusion is described as…

A

Stony dull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pleural effusion is…

A

Fluid on the OUTSIDE of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which organisms show cavitating lesions on X-ray?

A

Klebsiella
TB
Stash Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Difference between bronchopneumonia and lobar pneumonia on X-ray

A 
Bronchopneumonia = patchy on both sides
Lobar = clear lobe effected, air bronchograms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bronchiectasis on X-ray findings

A

See end on, widened airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most likely cause of infection in bronchiectasis

A

Haemophilus influenza

Can also be pseudomonas aureginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of bronchiectasis

A 
Idiopathic 
CF
A1at deficiency 
Post infectious (TB, aspiration)
PCD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presentation of bronchiectasis

A

Clubbing
Chest sepsis
Chronic, productive cough (>2mo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Best investigation for bronchiectasis

A

High resolution CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Investigations for bronchiectasis

A

High resolution CT
Sputum MC&S
Spirometry
Specific tests for niche causes such as a1at, IG levels (autoimmune), sweat test, HIV antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long do you give antibiotics for in long standing lung disease? I.e. on background disease/lots of previous infections

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you know if they are a chronic CO2 retainer?

A

ABG shows chronic compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is PIFR?

A

Peak of the inspirations curve, roughly what they are attempting to breathe in a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a typical PIFR

A

20L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does a Venturi mask give specific amount of oxygen?

A

The Venturi mask mixes it with air at a very precise proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal FiO2 of air

A

21% O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you estimate PaO2 based on what they are breathing in?

A

Take 10 off the % oxygen they are breathing

21% - 10-13kPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do you expect CO2 to be in an asthma attack?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CO2 is normal in asthma attack, is this bad?

A

Yes, should be breathing that CO2 off. Shows they are getting tired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

First line management of PE not confirmed on CTPA

A

Rivoroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sign of major PE

A

Haemodynamic compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Causes of prehepatic jaundice

A

Haemolytic
Sickle cell disease
Haemolytic anaemia
Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hepatic causes of jaundice

A

Damage to hepatocytes (drugs, disease, failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Post hepatic jaundice causes

A 
Intraluminal = gallstones 
Mural = cholangiocarcinoma, PBC, PSC
Extrinsic = cancer, mets, pseudocysts (pressing on the bile duct)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Triad of acute liver failure

A

Jaundice
Encephalopathy
Coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Causes of hepatitis

A

Viral hepatitis
Paracetamol overdose
Budd chiari
Wilson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ix for acute liver failure

A

FBC
LFTs
Clotting (INR) (synthetic function)
ABG (pH and lactate)

CT abdo pelvis
Abdo USS

Paracetamol levels
ANA (autoimmune hepatitis)

Kings college criteria!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cirrhosis increases risk of

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What screening should you do for chronic liver disease?

A

6 month USS and afP

Endoscopy every 3yr for varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prophylaxis of variceal bleeding

A

Propanalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Drug to clear ascites

A

Spironolactone

Therapeutic paracentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Flare in Crohn’s, macrocytic anaemia, what is most likely cause?

A

B12 deficiency

Because terminal ileum is where it’s absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of cell becomes myeloma?

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Protein electrophoresis in multiple myeloma

A

Shows one chain predominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cut off for high output stoma

A

1.5L

37
Q

Which procedure might you use for sigmoid bowel obstruction?

A

Hartmanns procedure, create an end colostomy in LIF

38
Q

Fracture management

A

4Rs
Resuscitate = ABCD, watch out for open fractures (worried about c.perfringens, need antibiotics). Need analgesia, saline gauze.
Make sure to take a photo of the wound to assess progress

Reduce = manipulate, may be in theatre or not

Restrict = don’t do plaster in <48hr because of compartment, can fixate (internal or external), POP

Rehabilitate = physio, movement, occupational therapy

39
Q

Early problems with fractures…

A

Neuro vascular damage

Visceral damage

40
Q

Later fracture issues

A

Compartment
Infection
Fat embolus

Later = malunion, avascular necrosis, growth disturbance, post traumatic osteoarthritis

41
Q

Important vessels to consider in hip fractures

A

Retinacular vessels

42
Q

Osteoporosis risk factors

A 
Age
Steroids
Alcohol
Low BMI
Early menopause
Low calcium
43
Q

Hip fracture 1/2 use a …

A

Screw

44
Q

Person older than 65 with good health and mobilising, intracapsular fracture, what might you do?

A

Total hip replacement

45
Q

Which nerve can be damaged in posterior approach hip surgery

A

Sciatic nerve

46
Q

Which nerve can get damaged in anterior hip surgery

A

Superior gluteal nerve

47
Q

Damage to superior gluteal nerve can cause…

A

Trendelenbergs gait

48
Q

What are the rules for if you X-ray an ankle?

A

Ottawa rules

49
Q

Classification for ankle fractures

A

Weber classification

50
Q

B Weber classification for ankle fracture. Where is the fracture?

A

Along the joint line

51
Q

86yo uses a Zimmer frame, grade 3 garden classification, what do you do?

A

Hemiarthroplasty

Because not very mobile and over 65yo

52
Q

Basic management of ACL injury in community

A 
RICE 
Rest 
Ice
Compress
Elevate
53
Q

SCD damages spleen and leads to more infections by what?

A

Capsulated organisms (e.g. staph aureus)

54
Q

RILE rules of murmurs

A

Right sided louder on inspiration

Left sided louder on expiration

55
Q

Where do you aspirate in the joint?

A

Upper outer region

56
Q

Management of ACL injury

A

Rest
MRI
Ice
Arthroscopy

57
Q

Trauma primary survey

A

Visible, catastrophic haemorrhage -> code red (alerts everyone and also gets 4 units O negative blood)
A = C spine 1st, jaw thrust,
B = flail chest, pneumothorax, haemothorax

Sites of haemorrhage = floor and 4 more = chest, abdo, bones, pelvis

58
Q

Secondary survey in trauma mnemonic =

A

AMPLE

59
Q

How do you tell between rolling and sliding hiatus hernia

A

Rolling = bit of stomach gets trapped like strangulation

60
Q

ERCP vs MRCP

A

ERCP is invasive but can be therapeutic

61
Q

How can you sort out obstructive jaundice?

A

ERCP

62
Q

First line Ix for pancreatitis

A

Abdo uss

63
Q

Left side of bowel supplied by

A

Left colic artery

64
Q

Where does the nasopharynx roughly begin (posterior epistaxis zone)

A

At the end of the hard palate

65
Q

Where do 95% nosebleeds originate?

A

Littles area

66
Q

What is a coroners clot?

A

Posterior nosebleed causing a clot that chokes you

67
Q

Causes of epistaxis

A 
Often idiopathic
HtN
Cold weather (damages mucosa)
Clotting derangement 
Trauma (often from nasal cannula, because cold, dry air)
68
Q

Management of nosebleed

A

Nasal examination = thudichum’s speculum
Investigation = bloods (FBC, clotting, group and save)
Nasal first aid, lean forwards, spit blood, pinch nose, gentle suction, gentle suction (all for 15 minutes)

Next steps = senior input 
Vasoconstrictors and analgesic 
Lidocaine solution 
Oxymetazoline spray
Adrenaline soaked gauze as last resort

Next step = silver nitrate cautery (only ever one one side, once)
Then ENT -> rapid rhino

69
Q

Key tonsillitis differentials

A

Infectious mononucleosis
HIV
Acute epiglottitis
Retro tonsillar abscess

70
Q

Bedside tonsillitis test

A

Throat swab

Rapid streptococcal antigen test

71
Q

Managing acute tonsillitis

A

Analgesia and reassure
Censor scoring
Dependent on the score, either start on antibiotics or test then give dependent on result

72
Q

Antibiotics for tonsillitis

A

Co-amoxiclav
Amoxicillin
Phenoxymethylpenicillin

73
Q

When do you refer for tonsillectomy?

A

Dependent on frequency

Strict and need it a lot in 1yr!

74
Q

Most common breast cancers

A 
Invasive ducal (70%)
Invasive lobular (20%)
Pagets (5%)
75
Q

When do you do ultrasound in triple assessment?

A

<35yo

Because breast tissue is denser

76
Q

Difference between breast abscess and mastitis clinically

A

Abscess feels like it’s full of pus, which it is

77
Q

Management of mild mastitis in woman breastfeeding

A

Reassure and safety net

78
Q

Management of moderate mastitis in non breast feeding woman

A

MRSA testing and antibiotics

79
Q

What defines moderate/severe mastitis?

A

Constitutional symptoms

Can’t manage with analgesia

80
Q

Most common sites of blockage from renal stones

A

Pelvoureteric junction (1st narrowing)

81
Q

What is a percutaneous nephrolithotomy

A

Put a needle into the kidney with a nephroscope and get rid of the stones

82
Q

Cremasteric reflex is…

A

Stroke the inner thigh and ipsilateral testicle rises

83
Q

When might cremasteric reflex be absent?

A

Testicular torsion

84
Q

Where does prostrate cancer metastasise?

A

Back and abdomen

85
Q

What examinations do you want to do in prostate cancer other than DRE

A

Abdo
Spine
Neurological
Chest and spine X-ray

86
Q

When might we use PSA?

A

Monitoring

87
Q

Gold standard investigation for prostate ca

A

Trans rectal ultrasound guided biopsy

88
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Radiological rods inserted into prostate

89
Q

Disadvantage of brachytherapy

A

Very painful

General Finals & SBA Review (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions