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OB Tests > Finals Deck > Flashcards

Finals Deck Flashcards

1
Q

_________ is the most common cystic lesion of the vagina; usually seen on the anterior lateral wall

A

Gartner’s duct cyst

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2
Q

Solid masses of the vagina are RARE; if seen ____________ is the most common

A

Adenocarcinoma

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3
Q

The most common finding in the cervix is the presence of ___________. Also called epithelial inclusion cyst.

A

Nabatean Cysts

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4
Q

_______ arise from hyperplastic protrusions of the epithelium of the endocervix or the ectocervix. These are usually seen in middle aged women, with irregular bleeding, and chronic inflammation being the most likely factor.

A

Cervical polyps

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5
Q

Acquired condition with obstruction of the cervical canal

A

Cervical stenosis

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6
Q

What is the most common type of cervical cancer? {this affects women of menstrual age}

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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7
Q

_______ are the most common GYN tumors occurring in approximately 20-30% of women over the age of 30; they are BENIGN.

A

Leiomyoma {or myomas}

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8
Q

Myomas are _______ dependent

A

Estrogen

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9
Q

What is the most common location of a leiomyoma?

A

Intramural {within the myometrium {middle layer}}

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10
Q

Another location {a small percentage} a leiomyoma can be is in the _______

A

Broad ligament

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11
Q

______ are the most common cause of uterine calcifications

A

Myomas

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12
Q

A less common cause for uterine calcifications are the _________ calcifications in the periphery of the uterus

A

Accurate artery calcification

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13
Q

A benign disease; invasion of the endometrial tissue that goes into the myometrium

A

Adenomyosis

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14
Q

Which is the most common form of adenomyosis? Diffuse or focal ??

A

Diffuse in the most common

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15
Q

Adenomyosis arises from the _______

A

Stratum basalis

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16
Q

Andenomyosis can sometimes be managed with hormone replacement therapy {T/F}

A

TRUE

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17
Q

Consist of a vascular plexus of arteries and veins without any intervening capillary network {most are teratogenic/acquired}

A

Uterine arteriovenous malformations {AVMs}

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18
Q

This develops from unstopped estrogen stimulation; it is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in pre and post menopausal women

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

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19
Q

These consist of hyper plastic over growth of glands, stroma, and blood vessels from the BASAL layer of the endometrium

A

Endometrial polyps

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20
Q

______ occurs most often in association with pelvic inflammatory disease {PID}

A

Endometritis

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21
Q

A partial or complete obliteration of the endometrial cavity this is caused by adherence of uterine walls from scaring which causes fibrous adhesions or synechiae; this can obliterate the endometrium

A

Asherman’s syndrome

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22
Q

This is the most common gynecological malignancy in North America.

A

Endometrial carcinoma {adenocarcinoma is the most common type}

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23
Q

A thickened endometrium > than ___ to ___ mm {especially in post menopausal women} must be considered cancer until proven otherwise

A

Greater than 4 to 5 mm

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24
Q

Fluid collections within the uterus

A

Hydrometra

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25
Q

Adenomyosis can be MANAGED with _______

A

Hormone replacement therapy

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26
Q

The normal ovary is homogeneous in texture with a central Echogenic medulla. {T/F}

A

TRUE

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27
Q

An ovary with a volume of 2X larger than the other is considered _________

A

Abnormal

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28
Q

Peak systolic - end diastolic / the mean velocity = _____

A

PI

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29
Q

Peak systole - end diastolic / peak systole= ___

A

RI

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30
Q

Benign= RI > ___, PI >____.

A

Benign= RI > .4, PI> 1

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31
Q

Malignancy= RI

A

Malignancy= RI

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32
Q

Most common cause of ovarian enlargement; most cysts measure

A

Functional cyst

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33
Q

Forms when a mature follicle fails to ovulate or inovulate

A

Follicular cyst

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34
Q

What is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy?

A

Corpus luteum cyst {which secretes estrogen and progestrone}

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35
Q

The “ring of fire” is a sonographic finding of a ________

A

Corpus luteum cyst

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36
Q

Polycyclic ovarian syndrome is a ______ disorder

A

Endocrine

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37
Q

Ovarian hyerstimulation sydrome is seen with ascites {T/F}

A

TRUE

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38
Q

This condition is ALWAYS bilateral , with a rounded shape, and characterized by tiny cysts around the periphery - “string of pearls”

A

PCOS

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39
Q

Paraovarian cysts arise from the _______

A

Broad ligament {located @ the terminal portion of the Fallopian tube}
*** MUST DEMONSTRATE AN IPSILATERAL OVARY SEPARATE FROM THE CYST

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40
Q

Garners duct cyst are located in the ______

A

Broad ligament

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41
Q

Localized tumor of endometrial tissue

A

Endometrioma {chocolate cyst}

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42
Q

The ___ ovary is 3 times more likely to torse than the ____

A

The RIGHT ovary is 3 times more likely to torse than the left

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43
Q 
Ovarian tumor stages:
stage I: \_\_\_\_\_
stage II: \_\_\_\_
Stage III: \_\_\_\_\_\_
Stage IV: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Stage I: limited to ovaries
Stage II: limited to pelvis
Stage III: involvement above the pelvic brim
Stage IV: Spread throughout the peritoneal cavity

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44
Q

Brenner - transitional cell is associated with _______ syndrome

A

Meig’s syndrome

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45
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Dermoid {also called cystic teratoma or mature teratoma}

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46
Q

What is described as “tip of the iceberg” sign Sonographically ?

A

Dermoid tumor

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47
Q

______ tumors occur mainly in adolescents; this is the most common ovarian malignancy in this age group

A

Germ cell tumors

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48
Q

Benign solid tumor + ascites + hydrothorax / pleural effusion=

A

Meig’s sydrnome

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49
Q

Thecomas are very ____

A

Rare {1%}

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50
Q

A vaginal cuff is seen in hysterectomy patients after surgery; the upper size limit of a normal cuff is ____ cm

A

2 cm

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51
Q

rare but most common malignant germ cell

A

Dysgerminoma

52
Q

Meig’s syndrome is accosiated with what two things?

A

brenner and fibroma

53
Q

tumor primarily from the GI tract {primarily stomach} ; this drops mets to the ovaries

A

Kruckenburg tumor

54
Q

endometriosis occurs most commonly in two forms: _____ of the uterus and ____ of the adnexa

A

adenomyosis - of the uterus

endometriosis - of the adnexa

55
Q

Most commonly, PID is caused by sexually transmitted disease including ____ and _____ {this travels via the mucosa}

A

Gonorrhea and chladymia

56
Q

risk factors for PID include what three factors?

A
  1. early sexual contact
  2. multiple partners
  3. History of sexually transmitted dieases
57
Q

Perihepatic inflammation ascending from a pelvic infection

A

Fitz-Hugh-cutis syndrome

58
Q

Fitz- hugh curtis sydrome = _____ pain + _____

A

RUQ pain and PID

59
Q

Differential diagnosis for fitz hugh curtis {5}

A
  1. hematoma
  2. dermoid
  3. ovarian neoplasm
  4. endometriosis
  5. ectopic pregnancy
60
Q

Infection that involves the fallopian tubes and the ovaries. Complex mass with peptations, irregular margins, and internal echoes; usually in the cul-de-sac

A

Tuba-Ovarian abscess

61
Q

Fluid filled bowel may mimic what ?

A

Hydrosalpinx

62
Q

Sonographic finding for Tuba-Ovarian abscess :

A

complex cul-de-sac mass the distorts pelvic anatomy

63
Q

With ACUTE salpingitis that walls are ______

With hydrosalpinx the walls are ____

A
  • THICK

* THIN

64
Q

Tubo ovarian abscess is associated with what syndrome?

A

Fitz hugh curtis

65
Q

inflammation of the peritoneum, the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the viscera

A

Peritonitis

66
Q

The more common form of endometriosis is the ______ form

A

external

67
Q

Internal endometriosis occurs within the uterus and is referred to as ______

A

adenomyosis

68
Q

What is the most common form of endometriosis

{diffuse /localized}

A

DIFFUSED

69
Q

The localized form of endometriosis consists of a discrete mass known as a ______ {or chocolate cyst}

A

Endometrioma

70
Q

It is estimated that infertility affects __ out of __ couples in america

A

1 out of 7

71
Q

What is the best method to determine cervical length in a non gravid patient?

A

Hysterosalpingography

72
Q

Diameter less than ___ mm may indicate cervical stenosis

A

1 mm

73
Q

Luteal phase deficiency is not enough ____

A

progesterone

74
Q

Septate uterus is highly associated with infertility {T/F}

A

TRUE

75
Q

T-shaped uterus is caused by ______ exposure in utero

A

Diethylstilbestrol {DES}

76
Q

What is the main reason to look at the fallopian tubes?

A

assess patency

77
Q

What is used to evaluate the endometrial cavity for polyps, fibroid, ect.

A

SIS

78
Q

A dominant follicle grows at a rate of __-__mm per day until it reaches 2.2 cm

A

2-3 mm

79
Q

Corpus lute secretes what ?

A

progesterone

80
Q

What are three associated findings with PCOS {along with inhibiting growth of follicles}

A

Oligomenorhea, hirsutism, and obesity

81
Q

cyst measuring greater that ____ cm or ___mm could interfere with ovarian stimulation

A

1.5 cm or 15 mm

82
Q

Ovulation induction therapy is monitored with endovaginal documentation of all follicles measuring greater than __ cm

A

1 cm

83
Q

Ovulation is determined by ____ and ______

A

Follicle size and serum estradiol level

84
Q

Normal endometrial response is increasing thickness from - mm up to - mm

A

2-3 mm up to 12-14 mm

85
Q

What is the necessary thickness of the endometrium to achieve pregnancy ?

A

6 mm

86
Q

Optical placement of the embryos is within ___ cm of the apex of the ____ of the uterus

A

2cm of the apex of the funds of the uterus

87
Q

With GIFT { gamete intrafallopian tube transfer} fertilization takes place where?

A

within the women body

88
Q

With ZIFT { zygote intrafallopian tube transfer} fertilized ova are injected through a laparoscope into the fimbriated ends of the fimbria {T/F}

A

TRUE

89
Q

What are the three complications associated with reproductive technology ?

A
  1. Ovarian hyperstimulation sydrome { seen with ascites/pleural effusion}
  2. Multiple gestations {30% of IVF patients}
  3. Ectopic or heterotopic pregnancy
90
Q

both Intrauterine pregnancy and ectopic pregnancy are referred to as ..

A

heterotopic

91
Q

The purpose of having national guidelines for OB exams is to… {3}

A
  1. standardize OB studies
  2. optimize detection of growth anomalies
  3. detect fetal anomalies
92
Q

Trimesters :
1st =
2nd =
3rd =

A

1st = 0-12
2nd = 13 - 26
3rd = 27 - 42
> 42 = post term

93
Q

Nagele’s rule :

EDD=
LNMP=

A

EDD= LNMP - 3 months + 7 days

LNMP= EDD + 3 months - 7 day

94
Q

____ % of pregnant women in the US will have an OB ultrasound

A

65%

95
Q

What are the two major bioeffects of US?

A

Thermal - rise in temp

Cavitation - production and collapse of gass filled bubble

96
Q

Embryo seen at __ weeks with transvaginal ultrasound

A

4 weeks

97
Q

Amniotic fluid is produced by the ___ in the 1st trimester

A

placenta

98
Q

Cervix measurement is usually - cm long

A

3-4 cm

99
Q

Overly distended bladder may mimic what ?

A

Placenta previa

100
Q

At what level is the BPD measured?

A

The level of the thalamus, the cavum septi pellucidum, midline falx {outer to inner}

101
Q

Femur length is measured ______ to the sound beam

A

perpendicular

102
Q

Abdomen circumference is measured at the level of the ____, ____, and _____

A

stomach
umbilical vein {hockey stick }
Portal sinus

103
Q

age of embryo stated as time from day of conception

A

embryonic age (conception age)

104
Q

length of pregnancy defined in the United States as number of weeks from first day of last normal menstrual period (LNMP)

A

gestational (menstrual) age

105
Q

structure lined by the chorion that normally implants within the uterine decidua and contains the developing embryo

A

gestational sac

106
Q

placental implantation encroaches upon the lower uterine segment; if the placenta presents first in late pregnancy, bleeding is inevitable

A

placenta previa

107
Q

12 days after conception considered a _____

A

zygote

108
Q

considered a fetus > than ___ weeks

A

12 weeks

109
Q

Considered ____ from implantation to 9-10 weeks

A

embryo

110
Q

Fertilization occurs within the ____ portion of the fallopian tube

A

Distal portion

111
Q

Blastocyst enters the uterus 4-5 days ____ fertilization

A

AFTER

112
Q

Implantation is completed within ___ days POST fertilization

A

12 days

113
Q

What is referred to as the outer cell mass made up mostly of placental tissue ?

A

trophoblast

114
Q

What is referred to as the inner cell mass made up mostly of fetal tissue ?

A

embryo blast

115
Q

The fusion of the chorion and amnion occurs between __ - __ weeks

A

16-17 weeks

116
Q

The embryonic phase is between __ - __ weeks

A

4-10 weeks

117
Q

Initial heart beat __ to __ weeks

A

5 1/2 to 6 weeks

118
Q

What is the 1st structure seen within the gestational sac?

A

secondary yolk sac

119
Q

If secondary yolk sac persists it is referred to as

A

Mickels diverticulum

120
Q

CRL measures ___ mm by the end of the 10th week

A

35 mm

121
Q

HCG { should double every 2-3 days} ; GS and hCG increases proportionally until __ menstrual weeks

A

8 menstrual weeks

122
Q

HCG peaks at __-__ weeks then declines - the GS continues to grow

A

8-10 weeks

123
Q

In transabdominal scanning, a normal GS can be consistently demonstrated when the beta hCG level is _____ mlU/ mL or greater

A

1800 mlU/mL

124
Q

GS grows at a rate of __ mm per day

A

1 mm per day

125
Q

Mean sac diameter > than 12 mm = visible ____

Mean sac diameter > than 18 mm = visible ____

A

> 12 mm Visible YS

> 18 mm visible embryo

OB Tests (8 decks)

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