Finals 2nd Sem Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
chemical surfactants that destroy sperm cell walls and act as barriers that prevent sperm from entering the cervical os.
A
Nonoxynol-9
2
Q
contain either a combination of estrogen and progestin or a progestin alone.
A
Hormonal contraceptives
3
Q
True or False: smoking can reduce the effect of oral contraceptives.
A
T
4
Q
blood tests to determine if a woman is in menopause or approaching menopause.
A
FSH level
5
Q
True or False: caution when prescribing combined hormonal contraceptives (containing both estrogen and progestin) to women over 35 years old due to potential cardiovascular effects.
A
T
6
Q
True or False: Combining smoking with hormonal contraceptives, particularly those containing estrogen, increases the risk of blood clot formation (thrombosis). Estrogen-containing contraceptives can also have vasoconstrictive effects and alter lipid metabolism, which can contribute to the development of cardiovascular problems.
A
T
7
Q
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of combined hormonal contraceptives?
a) Inhibition of ovulation
b) Thickening of cervical mucus
c) Alteration of endometrial lining
d) Suppression of luteinizing hormone (LH) surge
A
d) Suppression of luteinizing hormone (LH) surge
8
Q
Which of the following contraceptive methods is considered a long-acting reversible contraception (LARC)?
a) Oral contraceptive pills
b) Transdermal patch
c) Vaginal ring
d) Intrauterine device (IUD)
A
d) Intrauterine device (IUD)
9
Q
Which of the following antibiotics may reduce the efficacy of hormonal contraceptives?
a) Azithromycin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Doxycycline
d) Rifampin
A
d) Rifampin
10
Q
Which of the following is a common side effect of hormonal contraceptives?
a) Hypertension
b) Weight gain
c) Decreased libido
d) Breast enlargement
A
b) Weight gain
11
Q
Emergency contraception can be used up to how many hours after unprotected intercourse?
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 72 hours
A
d) 72 hours
12
Q
Which of the following hormones is typically used for hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in postmenopausal women?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
A
a) Estrogen
13
Q
Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) are commonly used for which of the following conditions in women?
a) Breast cancer prevention
b) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
c) Osteoporosis treatment
d) Endometriosis management
A
a) Breast cancer prevention
14
Q
Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with estrogen therapy?
a) Osteoporosis
b) Hot flashes
c) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
d) Weight gain
A
c) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
15
Q
In women with a uterus, combined hormone therapy (estrogen plus progestin) is recommended to reduce the risk of which of the following conditions?
a) Breast cancer
b) Endometrial cancer
c) Ovarian cancer
d) Cervical cancer
A
b) Endometrial cancer
16
Q
The use of hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms should be individualized, considering factors such as a woman’s age, symptom severity, and:
a) Body mass index (BMI)
b) Smoking status
c) Blood type
d) Family history of hypertension
A
b) Smoking status
17
Q
Which of the following medications is considered safe for the treatment of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP)?
a) Ondansetron
b) Ibuprofen
c) Diphenhydramine
d) Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
A
d) Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
18
Q
Which of the following is the recommended treatment for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
a) Oral antidiabetic agents
b) Insulin therapy
c) Metformin
d) Dietary modifications only
A
b) Insulin therapy
19
Q
Which of the following medications is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its association with fetal abnormalities?
a) Lisinopril
b) Acetaminophen
c) Levothyroxine
d) Metoclopramide
A
a) Lisinopril
20
Q
Which of the following vaccines is recommended during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn?
a) MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine
b) Varicella vaccine
c) Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) vaccine
d) Hepatitis A vaccine
A
c) Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) vaccine
21
Q
Which of the following medications is commonly used for antenatal fetal lung maturation in cases of threatened preterm labor?
a) Magnesium sulfate
b) Nifedipine
c) Betamethasone
d) Oxytocin
A
c) Betamethasone
22
Q
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the empirical treatment of bacterial meningitis in adults?
a) Vancomycin
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Acyclovir
d) Amphotericin B
A
b) Ceftriaxone
23
Q
Which antiviral medication is commonly used for the treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis?
a) Acyclovir
b) Oseltamivir
c) Amphotericin B
d) Fluconazole
A
a) Acyclovir
24
Q
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in the treatment of CNS infections due to its poor penetration into the central nervous system?
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Vancomycin
c) Azithromycin
d) Clindamycin
A
c) Azithromycin
25
Which antifungal agent is commonly used for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis?
a) Fluconazole
b) Amphotericin B
c) Caspofungin
d) Voriconazole
b) Amphotericin B
26
Which of the following diagnostic tests is the gold standard for the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
a) Lumbar puncture
b) Blood culture
c) Computed tomography (CT) scan
d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
a) Lumbar puncture
27
Which class of antiretroviral drugs inhibits the activity of HIV reverse transcriptase?
a) Protease inhibitors
b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
c) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
d) Integrase inhibitors
b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
28
Which of the following is a recommended initial combination regimen for the treatment of HIV infection?
a) Lamivudine + Stavudine + Ritonavir
b) Emtricitabine + Tenofovir + Raltegravir
c) Abacavir + Efavirenz + Darunavir
d) Zidovudine + Didanosine + Atazanavir
b) Emtricitabine + Tenofovir + Raltegravir
29
Which antiretroviral medication requires testing for HLA-B*5701 before initiation due to the risk of hypersensitivity reactions?
a) Zidovudine
b) Lamivudine
c) Abacavir
d) Ritonavir
c) Abacavir
30
Which of the following laboratory tests is used to monitor HIV disease progression and assess response to antiretroviral therapy?
a) CD4+ T-cell count
b) Viral load
c) Complete blood count (CBC)
d) Liver function tests (LFTs)
a) CD4+ T-cell count
31
Which medication is commonly used for pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) in individuals at high risk for HIV infection?
a) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) + Emtricitabine
b) Atazanavir
c) Efavirenz
d) Ritonavir
a) Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) + Emtricitabine
32
Which class of antiviral drugs inhibits the influenza virus neuraminidase enzyme?
a) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
b) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
c) Protease inhibitors
d) Neuraminidase inhibitors
d) Neuraminidase inhibitors
33
Which antiviral medication is recommended for the treatment of uncomplicated influenza infection in adults and children older than 14 days?
a) Amantadine
b) Oseltamivir
c) Zanamivir
d) Baloxavir marboxil
b) Oseltamivir
34
Which of the following is the primary method for preventing influenza infection?
a) Hand hygiene
b) Vaccination
c) Antiviral therapy
d) Isolation of infected individuals
b) Vaccination
35
In the United States, the influenza vaccine is typically administered via which route?
a) Intramuscular injection
b) Subcutaneous injection
c) Intranasal spray
d) Oral administration
a) Intramuscular injection
36
Which of the following populations is considered a high-risk group for severe complications of influenza and should receive annual vaccination?
a) Young adults (18-25 years old)
b) Healthy children (2-10 years old)
c) Pregnant women
d) Individuals without chronic medical conditions
c) Pregnant women
37
Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in adults?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Legionella pneumophila
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
38
Which class of antibiotics is recommended as the first-line treatment for typical community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in immunocompetent adults without recent antibiotic exposure?
a) Macrolides
b) Penicillins
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Cephalosporins
a) Macrolides
39
Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of healthcare-associated pneumonia (HCAP)?
a) Recent travel to a tropical region
b) Recent antibiotic use
c) Young age (< 2 years old)
d) Healthy immunocompetent status
b) Recent antibiotic use
40
Which organism is the most common cause of atypical pneumonia in children and young adults?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
41
Which of the following medications is commonly used as adjunctive therapy in severe cases of pneumonia to reduce systemic inflammation and improve outcomes?
a) Bronchodilators
b) Anticoagulants
c) Corticosteroids
d) Antihistamines
c) Corticosteroids
42
Which of the following is the most common causative pathogen of bacterial pharyngitis?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus)
d) Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus)
43
Which medication is considered the treatment of choice for uncomplicated acute otitis media in children?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Azithromycin
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Vancomycin
a) Amoxicillin
44
Which of the following clinical findings is most strongly associated with a bacterial etiology in acute pharyngitis?
a) Cough
b) Fever
c) Tonsillar exudate
d) Rhinorrhea
Answer: c) Tonsillar exudate
c) Tonsillar exudate
45
Which of the following is the recommended first-line treatment for group A streptococcal pharyngitis?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Cephalexin
c) Azithromycin
d) Levofloxacin
Answer: a) Amoxicillin
a) Amoxicillin
46
Which of the following is the most common complication of untreated or inadequately treated acute otitis media?
a) Epiglottitis
b) Mastoiditis
c) Tonsillitis
d) Sinusitis
b) Mastoiditis
47
Which of the following is the primary cause of sepsis in the majority of cases?
a) Viruses
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Parasites
c) Bacteria
48
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for sepsis caused by gram-negative bacteria?
a) Vancomycin
b) Clindamycin
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Meropenem
d) Meropenem
49
Which of the following is a key clinical criterion used in the diagnosis of sepsis?
a) Hypertension
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypothermia
d) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypothermia
50
Which class of medications is recommended as adjunctive therapy in sepsis to improve blood pressure and tissue perfusion?
a) Beta blockers
b) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
c) Vasopressors
d) Calcium channel blockers
c) Vasopressors
51
Which of the following laboratory markers is commonly used to assess the severity of sepsis and monitor response to treatment?
a) Procalcitonin
b) C-reactive protein (CRP)
c) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
d) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
a) Procalcitonin
52
Which of the following is the most common type of breast cancer?
a) Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
b) Invasive ductal carcinoma
c) Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
d) Invasive lobular carcinoma
b) Invasive ductal carcinoma
53
Which of the following hormonal therapies is commonly used in postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-positive breast cancer?
a) Anastrozole
b) Tamoxifen
c) Trastuzumab
d) Doxorubicin
a) Anastrozole
54
Which targeted therapy is indicated for breast cancer patients with overexpression or amplification of the HER2/neu receptor?
a) Anastrozole
b) Tamoxifen
c) Trastuzumab
d) Doxorubicin
c) Trastuzumab
55
Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with chemotherapy for breast cancer?
a) Hypertension
b) Peripheral neuropathy
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Renal impairment
b) Peripheral neuropathy
56
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the entire breast, including the nipple, areola, and underlying tissues?
a) Lumpectomy
b) Mastectomy
c) Sentinel lymph node biopsy
d) Axillary lymph node dissection
b) Mastectomy
57
Which of the following is a common risk factor for the development of colorectal cancer?
a) Young age
b) Physical activity
c) High-fiber diet
d) Family history of colorectal cancer
d) Family history of colorectal cancer
58
Which of the following screening tests is recommended for average-risk individuals to detect early colorectal cancer?
a) Mammogram
b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
c) Colonoscopy
d) Pap smear
c) Colonoscopy
59
Which of the following medications is commonly used as adjuvant chemotherapy for stage III colorectal cancer?
a) Fluorouracil (5-FU)
b) Tamoxifen
c) Trastuzumab
d) Methotrexate
a) Fluorouracil (5-FU)
60
Which targeted therapy is indicated for metastatic colorectal cancer with wild-type KRAS and NRAS genes?
a) Bevacizumab
b) Cetuximab
c) Trastuzumab
d) Rituximab
b) Cetuximab
61
Which surgical procedure involves the removal of the cancerous part of the colon or rectum along with nearby lymph nodes?
a) Mastectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Colectomy
d) Hysterectomy
c) Colectomy
62
Which of the following is the most common type of lung cancer?
a) Small cell lung cancer
b) Non-small cell lung cancer
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Squamous cell carcinoma
b) Non-small cell lung cancer
63
Which of the following is a known risk factor for the development of lung cancer?
a) Vitamin D deficiency
b) High dietary fiber intake
c) Family history of breast cancer
d) Smoking tobacco
d) Smoking tobacco
64
Which targeted therapy is indicated for non-small cell lung cancer patients with epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutations?
a) Bevacizumab
b) Cetuximab
c) Osimertinib
d) Pembrolizumab
c) Osimertinib
65
Which chemotherapy regimen is commonly used as first-line treatment for extensive-stage small cell lung cancer?
a) Carboplatin and paclitaxel
b) Cisplatin and etoposide
c) Methotrexate and fluorouracil (5-FU)
d) Cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and vincristine
b) Cisplatin and etoposide
66
Which of the following imaging studies is recommended for staging and assessing the extent of lung cancer?
a) Mammogram
b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
c) Computed tomography (CT) scan
d) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Computed tomography (CT) scan
67
Which of the following is a primary symptom of lymphoma?
a) Persistent cough
b) Enlarged lymph nodes
c) Headache
d) Abdominal pain
b) Enlarged lymph nodes
68
Which of the following is a subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
a) Hodgkin lymphoma
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
69
Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is commonly used for the treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma?
a) ABVD (doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine)
b) R-CHOP (rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone)
c) CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone)
d) BEACOPP (bleomycin, etoposide, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, procarbazine, prednisone)
a) ABVD (doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine)
70
Which targeted therapy is commonly used for the treatment of CD20-positive non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
a) Bevacizumab
b) Cetuximab
c) Rituximab
d) Trastuzumab
c) Rituximab
71
Which of the following imaging studies is commonly used for staging and assessing the extent of lymphoma?
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
c) Ultrasound
d) X-ray
b) Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
72
What is the most common type of prostate cancer?
a) Small cell carcinoma
b) Transitional cell carcinoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Adenocarcinoma
d) Adenocarcinoma
73
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of prostate cancer?
a) Obesity
b) High-fiber diet
c) Lack of physical activity
d) Blood type A
a) Obesity
74
Which of the following is a common screening test for prostate cancer?
a) Mammogram
b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
c) Colonoscopy
d) Pap smear
b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
75
Which treatment option is often considered for localized or locally advanced prostate cancer with a favorable risk profile?
a) Surgery (prostatectomy)
b) Radiation therapy
c) Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT)
d) Chemotherapy
a) Surgery (prostatectomy)
76
Which medication is commonly used as androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for advanced prostate cancer?
a) Bicalutamide
b) Tamoxifen
c) Rituximab
d) Bevacizumab
a) Bicalutamide
77
Which of the following medications is a calcineurin inhibitor commonly used for immunosuppression?
a) Prednisone
b) Cyclosporine
c) Azathioprine
d) Mycophenolate mofetil
b) Cyclosporine
78
Which of the following is an adverse effect commonly associated with long-term use of glucocorticoids as immunosuppressants?
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Hypertension
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Osteoporosis
d) Osteoporosis
79
Which of the following immunosuppressant medications is a monoclonal antibody targeting interleukin-2 receptor?
a) Tacrolimus
b) Basiliximab
c) Mycophenolate mofetil
d) Sirolimus
b) Basiliximab
80
Which class of immunosuppressant medications works by inhibiting the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR)?
a) Calcineurin inhibitors
b) Corticosteroids
c) Antimetabolites
d) mTOR inhibitors
d) mTOR inhibitors
81
Which of the following is a potential complication of immunosuppression therapy?
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Increased blood pressure
c) Opportunistic infections
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
82
G3P2 is a medical abbreviation commonly used in obstetrics to describe a woman's obstetric history. It stands for:
G: Gravida, which refers to the total number of pregnancies, including both live births and pregnancies that ended in any other outcome.
P: Para, which refers to the outcome of pregnancies.
The numbers following G and P provide specific information:
The number after G indicates the total number of pregnancies, regardless of the outcome.
The number after P indicates the number of full-term pregnancies (at least 37 weeks' gestation) that have resulted in live births.
For example, G3P2 indicates that a woman has been pregnant three times (including both live births and other outcomes) and has had two full-term pregnancies resulting in live births. The notation does not provide information about the current pregnancy.
83
Which of the following is a key diagnostic criterion for sepsis according to the Third International Consensus Definitions for Sepsis and Septic Shock (Sepsis-3)?
a) Positive blood culture
b) Presence of fever
c) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
d) Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score increase by ≥2 points
d) Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score increase by ≥2 points
84
Which of the following best describes sepsis?
A) A condition characterized by the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
B) A chronic inflammatory disease affecting the joints
C) An autoimmune disorder targeting the digestive system
D) A type of cancer originating in the blood cells
A) A condition characterized by the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
85
How is Depo-Provera, a long-acting synthetic progestin contraceptive, typically administered for contraception?
A) Orally
B) Intramuscular (IM) injection
C) Subcutaneous injection
D) Vaginal suppository
B) Intramuscular (IM) injection
86
In AIDS, at what level do CD4 cell counts typically fall below?
A) Below 100 cubic/mL
B) Below 200 cubic/mL
C) Below 300 cubic/mL
D) Below 400 cubic/mL
A) Below 100 cubic/mL
87
When should antiviral prophylaxis be administered in the first onset of symptoms?
A) Within 12 hours
B) Within 24 hours
C) Within 48 hours
D) Within 72 hours
C) Within 48 hours
88
How do taxanes exert their cytotoxic effect?
A) Inhibiting DNA replication
B) Inhibiting protein synthesis
C) Inhibiting mitosis
D) Inhibiting cell membrane formation
C) Inhibiting mitosis
89
Which of the following drugs inhibits purine synthesis?
A) Mercaptopurine
B) Omeprazole
C) Metformin
D) Warfarin
A) Mercaptopurine
90
Which class of drugs does ritonavir belong to in the treatment of HIV infection?
A) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) Integrase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Fusion inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
91
Which tumor marker is commonly found in colorectal cancer?
A) CA-125
B) PSA
C) CEA
D) AFP
C) CEA
92
How does Daclizumab work in the treatment of certain conditions like multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A) By targeting and inhibiting interleukin-6 (IL-6)
B) By targeting and inhibiting the interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R)
C) By blocking the production of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
D) By modulating the activity of natural killer (NK) cells
B) By targeting and inhibiting the interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R)
93
What is the primary therapeutic use of etanercept, a TNF inhibitor?
A) Treatment of autoimmune and inflammatory conditions
B) Treatment of bacterial infections
C) Treatment of cancer through chemotherapy
D) Treatment of cardiovascular diseases
A) Treatment of autoimmune and inflammatory conditions
94
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressive medication commonly used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients. However, it can have significant side effects and toxicities. Which of the following is a potential toxicity associated with tacrolimus?
A) Increased risk of infections
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Kidney damage
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
95
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, can inhibit antigen recognition by B-cells. This occurs when antibodies bind to the antigen, preventing its interaction with B-cell receptors. Which of the following is a function of antibodies that contributes to inhibiting antigen recognition by B-cells?
A) Opsonization of antigens
B) Complement activation
C) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
D) All of the above
A) Opsonization of antigens
96
How do immunoglobulins (antibodies) inhibit antigen recognition by B-cells?
A) By binding to the antigen and preventing its interaction with B-cell receptors
B) By promoting B-cell activation and proliferation
C) By blocking the production of B-cell receptors
D) By enhancing antigen presentation to B-cells
A) By binding to the antigen and preventing its interaction with B-cell receptors
97
Tamoxifen is classified as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) and is primarily used for the treatment and prevention of:
A) Estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer
B) Estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Lung cancer
B) Estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
98
Adalimumab is a medication that belongs to which class of drugs and works by inhibiting which pro-inflammatory cytokine?
A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs); Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs); Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors); Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D) Statins; Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs); Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
99
The presence of lymph node involvement in colorectal cancer is associated with:
A) Improved prognosis
B) Poor prognosis
C) No impact on prognosis
D) Uncertain impact on prognosis
B) Poor prognosis
100
Which of the following drugs inhibits the aromatase enzyme?
A) Exemestane
B) Anastrozole
C) Letrozole
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
101
Topotecan is a chemotherapeutic agent that belongs to which class of drugs?
A) Topoisomerase 1 inhibitors
B) DNA replication inhibitors
C) Microtubule inhibitors
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
A) Topoisomerase 1 inhibitors
102
Which receptor protein, also known as ERBB2, is associated with certain types of cancer, including breast cancer?
A) EGFR (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor)
B) HER2 (Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2)
C) PDGFR (Platelet-Derived Growth Factor Receptor)
D) VEGFR (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor Receptor)
B) HER2 (Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2)
103
Which of the following drugs is NOT part of the FOLFOX chemotherapy regimen commonly used in the treatment of colorectal cancer?
A) Folinic acid (leucovorin)
B) Fluorouracil (5-FU)
C) Oxaliplatin
D) Cisplatin
D) Cisplatin
104
Which of the following drugs is part of the FOLFOX chemotherapy regimen commonly used in the treatment of colorectal cancer?
A) Folinic acid (leucovorin)
B) Cisplatin
C) Paclitaxel
D) Methotrexate
A) Folinic acid (leucovorin)
105
Which of the following is the purpose of using Radium-223 (Xofigo) in the treatment of prostate cancer?
A) Inhibit testosterone production
B) Target and destroy cancer cells in the bones
C) Prevent metastasis to other organs
D) Stimulate immune response against cancer cells
B) Target and destroy cancer cells in the bones
106
Which drugs are included in the CAPEOX chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer?
A) Carboplatin and vinorelbine
B) Cisplatin and gemcitabine
C) Capecitabine and oxaliplatin
D) Cyclophosphamide and doxorubicin
C) Capecitabine and oxaliplatin
107
Which chemotherapy drugs are commonly used in the Idarubicin plus cyclophosphamide regimen for the treatment of breast cancer?
a) Idarubicin and paclitaxel
b) Doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide
c) Gemcitabine and cyclophosphamide
d) Methotrexate and cyclophosphamide
b) Doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide
108
Which of the following drugs is NOT included in the TAC chemotherapy regimen for breast cancer?
A) Docetaxel (Taxotere)
B) Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
C) Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
D) Paclitaxel (Taxol)
D) Paclitaxel (Taxol)
109
What does the "IC" in the R-ICE chemotherapy regimen stand for?
A) Ifosfamide and Carboplatin
B) Rituximab and Ifosfamide
C) Ifosfamide and Etoposide
D) Carboplatin and Etoposide
Correct answer: C) Ifosfamide and Etoposide
110
Which three drugs are included in the CAV chemotherapy regimen for lung cancer?
A) Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vinblastine
B) Carboplatin, Adriamycin, Vincristine
C) Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vincristine
D) Cisplatin, Etoposide, Vinorelbine
C) Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vincristine
111
What is the generic name of the antiviral medication Tamiflu?
A) Oseltamivir phosphate
B) Acyclovir
C) Zanamivir
D) Amantadine
A) Oseltamivir phosphate
