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final (ty ek!) Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is DNA

A

a polymer of nucleotide units bound together, end to end by weak hydrogen bonds
replicates prior to cell division during mitosis

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2
Q

what does meiosis end in

A

for the male, 4 functional sperm cells

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3
Q

describe RNA

A

mRNA carries the genetic information from DNA
involved in both transcription and translation

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4
Q

describe gene linkage

A

crossing over involved the reciprocal exchange of chromosomes segments between homologs and may disrupt the linkage of two genes
recombination involves new allelic pairings of genes

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5
Q

describe HW

A

an equilibrium law dealing with a large random mating population
a mathematical formula that describes genotypic frequencies in terms of phenotypes

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6
Q

describe post-transcriptional RNA modifications

A

addition of 7-methyl cap
addition of poly a tail
splicing of introns

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7
Q

what term represents 2pq in HWE

A

heterozygotes

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8
Q

what is AaBbxaabb an illustration of

A

dihybrid cross
test cross

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9
Q

what are benefits of alternative splicing

A

decreasing the chance for exon shuffling through recombination
generates different proteins from a single gene

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10
Q

what are the 3 stop codons

A

UAA
UGA
UAG

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11
Q

the inheritance of scurs is dominant in males and recessive in females

A

sex influenced

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12
Q

parents with normal vision produce daughters that have normal vision, but if the dam is a carrier, half of the sons will be colorblind

A

sex linked

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13
Q

An allele in horses gives rise to the Over coat color pattern, which involves white primarily on ventral surfaces of the horse. Homozygosity for the overo allele results in all white foals that suffer from aganglionosis of the large intestine and die within a few days of birth.

A

homozygous dominant lethality

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14
Q

The three consecutive bases on the mRNA is a codon that specifies an amino acid. There are 64 codons in total and they code for the 20 amino acids.

A

genetic code

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15
Q

A situation where heterozygotes is superior to both homozygotes in performance or disease resistance.

A

overdominance

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16
Q

Xeroderma Pigmentosum in humans is controlled by a single autosomal gene. DD individuals are normal, Dd individuals have freckled skin, and dd individuals have freckled skin (especially the face) that ulcerates when exposed to UV light. The result is cancer of these areas, which is fatal to these individuals before reproductive age.

A

detrimental semilethal genotype

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17
Q

The phenotypic effect of a gene at one locus is dependent on what allele is present at another locus.

A

additive gene epistasis

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18
Q

Traits that are governed by genes of the autosomes and can only be expressed in one sex due to anatomical differences and have no penetrance or simply turned off in the other sex.

A

sex limited

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19
Q

A relatively common form of congenital heart disease, conotruncal septum defects, is found in Keeshounds and can be divided into four different grades of increasing severity.

A

variable expressivity

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20
Q

Group of individuals within a specie which potentially can interbreed and share a common gene pool.

A

population

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21
Q

what happens if a strong negative change in mature weight is observed along with a strong positive change in meat tenderness

A

there’s a strong negative correlation

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22
Q

what is the most important genetic parameter for an individual

A

breeding value

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23
Q

the degree of heterosis in the offspring can is affected by what

A

genetic relationship of the parents
heritability value of the traits

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24
Q

describe correlation

A

X and Y = Y and X
unitless
range from -1 to 1

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25
Q

describe nonrandom mating

A

expected proportion of homozygous and heterozygous individual deviates from HW
assignment of mate can be based of genetic relationship and phenotypic similarity

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26
Q

describe inbreeding depression

A

opposite of heterosis
results from poor gene combination value

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27
Q

describe Byx

A

regression of Y on X
variation in trait X influences the variation in trait Y
assumption of cause and effect

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28
Q

what are effects of outbreeding

A

increase in heterozygosity

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29
Q

what are examples of crossbreeding

A

commercial cow/calf
crossing inbred lines
crossing two different breeds

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30
Q

describe environmental correlation

A

measure of strength of relationship between environmental effects on traits
used for management purposes

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31
Q

describe heterosis

A

results from heterozygosity
gene combos are not transmitted to the progeny

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32
Q

Assume the average birth weight in a population is 75 lbs, the average weaning weight in a population is 400 lbs, and the phenotypic regression of weaning weight on birth weight is 2.75 lb per lb. If a calf’s birth weight is 77 lbs, then what is the estimated weaning weight for this calf?

A

405.5

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33
Q

The measure of strength between breeding value for one trait and breeding value for another trait.

A

gene correlation

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34
Q

The measure of how well two breeds compliments each other for a specific trait

A

specific combining ability

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35
Q

A mating system where the best male for a trait is mated to the best female for the same trait

A

positive assertive mating

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36
Q

Animals with same alleles and from a common ancestor are said to be

A

identical by decent

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37
Q

A system of mating where genes of a common ancestor is concentrated in an individual

A

like breeding

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38
Q

Mating purebred males to non-purebred females in an attempt to create a purebred population

A

top grading

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39
Q

Combining the desirable characteristic of 2 or more breeds (or lines) into the same offspring

A

breed complementation

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40
Q

Animal model which combine all information known about an individual and its relative to create a genetic profile of the animal’s merit used mainly in meat producing animals

A

epd

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41
Q

Expectation of a squared deviation from its mean

A

variation

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42
Q

The superiority of the offspring from outbred mating in comparison to the average phenotypic merit of offspring from purebred mating contributing to the cross

A

heterosis

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43
Q

Term used for alleles in individuals that happen to look alike but not traceable to a common ancestor

A

identical by state

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44
Q

The ability of the parent to impress its hereditary characters on its progeny because of increased homozygosity

A

prepotency

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45
Q

The probability that 2 alleles at a locus in an individual are identical by descent

A

inbreeding coefficient

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46
Q

what will the rate of genetic change with selection depend on

A

selection differential
generation interval
heritability

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47
Q

describe the accuracy of individual performance

A

based on individual record
the higher the heritability the greater the accuracy
accuracy equal the square root of h2

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48
Q

why is pedigree information a good source

A

valuable for traits expressed later in life
cheap
valuable for sex-limited traits

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49
Q

what is the major objective for progeny testing for a qualitative trait

A

help determine the likelihood that an animal is a carrier of a detrimental recessive allele

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50
Q

describe the independent culling method

A

minimum level in any trait is culled
animal must meet standard for each trait in order to be saved for breeding purposes
possibility of culling an animal that is outstanding in one trait

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51
Q

describe BLUP

A

method of genetic selection appropriate when performance data comes from diverse groups
extension of selection index
solution of equations using matrix algebra

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52
Q

describe across breed EPD adjustments

A

useful for commercial producers purchasing bulls to use for crossbreeding
accuracy of across breed EPD depends on accuracy of within breed EPD for the bull
useful in estimating divergence of birth weight EPD for bulls to breed to first calf heifers

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53
Q

what are some problems in determining heritability for horses

A

tremendous environmental variation
data bias
limited information which results from analyzing the best

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54
Q

in dairy, why is sire selection used

A

sure produce more progeny
AI allows for even larger progeny amount
lower cost associated with keeping few/no bulls

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55
Q

what does the beef infrastructure include

A

purebred
cow/calf
stocker

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56
Q

Average age of parents when the animals that will replace them in the flock or herd are born

A

generation interval

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57
Q

A selection method that selects for a single trait at a given time

A

tandem selection

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58
Q

A measure of how good and close a calculated estimate of an animal’s genetic value is compared to the unknown true genetic testing

A

accuracy

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59
Q

One of the markers associated with meat tenderness

A

calpastatin

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60
Q

A genetically similar group of animals born in a particular time period and raised under the same management and environmental condiditons

A

contemporary group

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61
Q

Changes in the ranking of performance of genotypes in different environments. For example, one genotype may perform the best in one environment and only average in another environment

A

genotype environment interaction

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62
Q

The evaluation of an individual’s genotype using the performance records of its progent

A

progeny test

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63
Q

The difference between the average for a trait in replacement animals and the average of the group from which the replacements were chosen

A

selection differential

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64
Q

A single himber that predicts the breeding value of an individual for a weighted combination of traits

A

selection index

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65
Q

A developmental duplication in beef cattle with high embryonic death among homozygous recessive individuals with incompoete penetrance

A

polymelia

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66
Q

An autosomal recessive gene that is usually selected against in beef cattle production which is categorized by severe lethal deformities in calves (rear legs with fused joints, large abdominal hernials, skull deformity)

A

tibial hemimelia

67
Q

In equine selection, taking the fastest winning times at a particular distance for the past 3 years at a given track

A

speed index

68
Q

An inherited disease in horses caused by a defect in voltage-gated sodium channels of muscle cells

A

hyperkaelmic periodic paralysis

69
Q

A condition where foals cant efficiently store and metabolize glucose which leads to abnormal polysaccharides in cells

A

glycogen branching enzyme deficiency

70
Q

An important trait of economic importance in sheep which relates live weight to carcass weight

A

dressing percentage

71
Q

The systematic collection of comparative production information on an individual

A

performance testing

72
Q

The selection differential measured in phenotypic standard deviation units of the selected trait. It is inversely proportional to the proportion of available replacements actually selected to be parents of the next generation

A

selection intensity

73
Q

recorded trait that has been standardized for a given effect such as age or for environmental factors

A

adjusted trait

74
Q

A collection of information that has been systematically organized for easy access and analysis

A

database

75
Q

Refers to the ability of a breeding animal to remail in the breeding herd

A

stayability

76
Q

Linear descriptive traits that can affect milk production in dairy cows

A

type trait

77
Q

An inherited disease in dairy where the animal shows bilateral hind leg weakness between ages 6-18 months resulting in a weaving gait

A

bovine progressive degenerative myeleoncephalopathy

78
Q

An inherited disease in dairy where animals have recurring soft tissues, fever, low appetite, chronic pneumonia, and diarrhea.

A

BLAD

79
Q

what are the two components of performance for swine

A

genetic ability
environment

80
Q

hampshire
classification
usage

A

paternal
good muscling

81
Q

duroc
classification
usage

A

paternal
rugged, meaty, and quick growth

82
Q

yorkshire
classification
usage

A

maternal
large litter

83
Q

large white
classification
usage

A

maternal
similar to Yorkshire

84
Q

chester white
classification
usage

A

maternal
similar to duroc, white coat

85
Q

landrace
classification
usage

A

maternal
prolific

86
Q

Poland china
classification
usage

A

paternal
black with white tips

87
Q

spot
classification
usage

A

paternal
derived from Poland china for easier coloration

88
Q

berkshire
classification
usage

A

paternal
fine meat and fatness

89
Q

pietrain
classification
usage

A

paternal
carries PSS

90
Q

large black
classification
usage

A

maternal
analogous to large white

91
Q

hereford
classification
usage

A

maternal
similar coloration to the cattle

92
Q

meishan
classification
usage

A

maternal
reach puberty in 3 months

93
Q

what are the goals of genetic programs for swine

A

don’t allow inferior genes into gene pool
correct systems for maximum performance

94
Q

what are genetic resources for swine

A

genetic supplier- many choices
breeds/lines- choose lines that excel in important traits

95
Q

what are mating systems used for in swine

A

matching management preferences
maximize heterosis
breed complementarity

96
Q

number born alive
heritability
definition

A

low
salable items produced by a sow

97
Q

21-day litter weight
heritability
definition

A

low
piglets are sold based on this number

98
Q

days to 250
heritability
definition

A

moderate
how long pig will stay in facility

99
Q

back fat 10
heritability
definition

A

moderate
percent of lean in carcass which is the salable production for consumption

100
Q

define equal opportunity

A

no animal receives preferential treatment

101
Q

define systemic measurement

A

take measurements in the same way at the same time for every animal

102
Q

what are examples of environmental adjustments

A

parity, season, and test weight

103
Q

define parity

A

amount of times an animal has been tested for a trait

104
Q

define STAGES

A

swine testing and genetic evaluation system

105
Q

what are the stage program components

A

pedigree
performance measurement program
EBV estimate program
public estimate program

106
Q

describe PSE

A

pale soft and exudative meat
causes paralyzed hind leg

107
Q

what causes PSS

A

napole (RN) and halothane (HAL)

108
Q

what is PSS

A

it causes the animal the lack of ability to adapt to stress

109
Q

which club was the first to have stress free herds

A

American Yorkshire club

110
Q

define biotechnology

A

applying biological knowledge to practical needs

111
Q

what are reproductive technologies

A

AI
estrous synchronization
embryo transfer
sex control
cloning

112
Q

what are molecular technologies

A

DNA fingerprinting
gene transfer

113
Q

what does biotech depend on

A

effectiveness
practicality
cost
public perception

114
Q

describe AI

A

semen is collected from males, and can be used fresh, cooled, or frozen

115
Q

what are advantages of AI

A

ability to use an excellent bulls sperm
easier to control
affordable

116
Q

disadvantages of AI

A

not always easy/practical
have to have females in heat
must move to a breeding area
properly inseminate at the correct time

117
Q

describe estrus synchronization

A

hormones are used to induce females into heat at the same time, which reduces the number of days to inseminate

118
Q

what hormone are used for estrous synchronization

A

PGF2a (prostaglandin)- regresses CL and decreases progesterone synthesis
GnRH (gonadotrophin-releasing hormone)- ovulation/luteinization of a growing follicle
progestagen- negative feedback on hypothalamus by blocking LH and FSH

119
Q

describe embryo transfer

A

collecting embryos from donor female to be transferred into recipients

120
Q

what are the 9 steps of embryo transfer

A
  1. super ovulate donor via gonadotrophin
  2. AI five days after super ovulating
  3. nonsurgical recovery of embryos 6-8 days later
  4. foley catheter is used for recovery of embryos
  5. isolation and classify embryos
  6. storage of embryos (frozen or room temp time-dependent)
  7. transfer embryos to recips
  8. pregnancy diagnosis by palpation through the rectal wall 1-3 months after transfer
  9. birth
121
Q

describe the basic principle of IVF

A

female- hormone treatment, harvest ovum, mature ovum
male- natural ejaculation, collect semen, motile sperm
both- mix in a test tube, keep to develop embryo, transfer to mother

122
Q

describe egg harvest

A

first uses an ultra-sound guided aspiration
then a laparoscopy, which is a slightly invasive surgery

123
Q

when are embryos usually transferred

A

at the 8 cell/blastocyst stage

124
Q

what are advantages of egg harvesting/in vitro

A

increased possibility of pregnancies
can collect many eggs from the same donor
no super ovulation

125
Q

what are disadvantages of in vitro

A

expensive
success rate is lower
abnormalities occur in offspring

126
Q

define sex control

A

ability to determine the sex of embryo by physically removing a few cells and examining the chromosomes

127
Q

define sperm sorting

A

determine and operate male and female sex chromosomes

128
Q

define flow cytometry

A

measures cells as the flow by a detector

129
Q

what are the 6 steps for sex control

A
  1. dye semen with Hoescht 33342 which binds to DNA
  2. since X is larger than Y, it absorbs more dye
  3. UV light shows X is brighter than Y
  4. spermatozoa are encased in a single droplet of fluid and pass through the flow cytometer in single file
  5. spermatozoa are assigned an electrical charge corresponding to its chromosome status
  6. stream of X and Y droplets are separated by electrostatic collection tubes for subsequent analysis
130
Q

what are reasons for sex control

A

one sex is more valuable than the other
better economics
crossbreeding systems

131
Q

define cloning

A

technology for the production of genetically identical individuals

132
Q

define embryo splitting

A

cutting the embryo in half to produce twin embryos

133
Q

how are cloned animals measured

A

progeny tests
statistical analysis
shortened GI

134
Q

what are benefits of cloning

A

increase genetic merit
increased uniformity and performance
observed variation due to the environment
increases accuracy of selection

135
Q

what are problems with cloning

A

loss of genetic variation
susceptible to a pathogen
time consuming
abnormal offspring
expensive
a lot of death

136
Q

describe the cloning process for an ewe

A
  1. mammary cell is cloned
  2. copies of all genes fro proteins required are active
  3. cells grow, divide, and become dormant, and genes become activated
  4. ewe provides eggs
  5. egg is preserved on a lab disc
  6. nucleus is dislodged from the egg
  7. the mammary cell and nucleus are blended together
  8. clusters of embryonic cells are grown
  9. embryos are implanted into a surrogate mother
  10. the resulting lamb is a clone of the donor ewe
137
Q

define somatic cell nuclear transfer

A

technique for creating ovum with donor nucleus

138
Q

where is SCNT used

A

embryonic stem cell research
therapeutic cloning
reproductive cloning

139
Q

define same sex mating

A

mating same sex individuals using nuclear transplantation and embryo transfer

140
Q

define nuclear fusion

A

artificial fertilization combines the nuclei of two gametes

141
Q

define selfing

A

mating individuals to themselves

142
Q

define polymorphic

A

at least 2 alternative alleles occur in the population

143
Q

define PCR

A

polymerase chain reaction

144
Q

what are the steps of PCR

A

denaturation @ 94ºC
annealing @ 60ºC
elongation @ 72ºC

145
Q

define MHM

A

marker assisted mating

146
Q

define linkage analysis

A

mathematical process using information from specially bred populations to determine whether 2 loci are linked and how closely

147
Q

define genetic markers

A

detectable genes/DNA fragments used to identify alleles at a linked locus

148
Q

define major gene effect

A

one gene may account for 50% of variation out of thousands

149
Q

what are the four markers

A

RFLP
microsatillites
SNP
CNV

150
Q

describe RFLP

A

uses a restriction enzyme to cut DNA

151
Q

describe microsatillites

A

small pieces of DNA that repeat

152
Q

describe SNP

A

point mutation

153
Q

describe CNV

A

copies specific DNA segments that vary between individuals

154
Q

define gene transfer

A

transplation of specific genes from one individual to another

155
Q

define molecular pharming

A

moving genes from one animal into another

156
Q

define transgenic

A

individual that received genetic material by gene transfer

157
Q

define genomic selection

A

study of how the genome of any specie is organized and expressed

158
Q

what animals are under federal support for genomics

A

cattle
sheep
swine
poultry
horses
aquaculture

159
Q

what are usages of genomic selection

A

identify DNA sequences associated with disease resistance and production traits
animals can be evaluated as soon as DNA can be obtained
best animals to be parents are determined earlier in life

160
Q

define genetic marker

A

segment of DNA at a unique location in the genome

161
Q

what is the marker of choice

A

SNP

162
Q

what is the 770K chip

A

Illumina bovine HD
allows the prediction to be less breed specific

163
Q

what are the four types of gene editing? describe them

A

meganucleases- singular trait
zinc finger nucleases- targets 9 nucleotides
transcription activator-like effector nuclease- targets 16-17 nucleotides
CRISPR- makes a specific cut in the genome

164
Q

what are the applications of gene editing? define them

A

disease resistance- cattle can be genetically edited to resist mycobacterium bovis infection
improved performance- myostatin is cut out and causes a double muscling phenotype
animal welfare- gene editing makes holsteins to be horn free
offspring sex- possible to determine fetus sex by looking at the egg

Genetics (5 decks)

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