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exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the two components of performance in swine

A

genetic ability
environment (neutron, health, facilities, etc)

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2
Q

what makes up the phenotype

A

genetics and environment

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3
Q

give some examples of paternal swine breeds

A

hampshire
duroc
Poland china
spotted
berkshire
pie train

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4
Q

give some examples of maternal swine breeds

A

hereford
large black
landrace
Chester white
large white
yorkshire

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5
Q

describe Hampshires

A

good muscling
used in crossbreeding
small liter size (>12)

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6
Q

describe durocs

A

rugged, meaty, and fast growth
males are used in crossbreeding
problems with crosses

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7
Q

describe Yorkshires

A

large liters
not great muscling

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8
Q

describe Chester whites

A

genetically similar to durocs
slow growth
fatty
durable

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9
Q

what are white coat good for in swine

A

helps see imperfections on the carcass

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10
Q

describe landraces

A

long bodies
large liter
large floppy ears

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11
Q

define prolific

A

large liter production

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12
Q

describe Poland chinas

A

black with white points
similar body to Chester white

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13
Q

describe spotted

A

derived from Poland china since coloration is too complex
progressive in improvements

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14
Q

describe berkshire

A

stubby upturned nose
black and white
similar to duroc
fine meat and fatness
desired for Japanese pork trade

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15
Q

describe pietrain

A

heavily muscled
carry gene of high muscle and PSS
d

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16
Q

define PSS

A

porcine stress syndrome, which produces pale soft excitative meat

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17
Q

describe large black

A

British
analogous to large white

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18
Q

describe Hereford

A

similar coloration to cattle

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19
Q

describe meishan

A

originated in china
reach puberty at 3 months old
large liter

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20
Q

what is the main goal of genetic programs

A

not letting inferior genetics into the gene pool

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21
Q

what is the best way to get maximum performance

A

using the correct mating system

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22
Q

define genetic supplier

A

many companies to choose from

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23
Q

define breeds/lines

A

excel in important traits

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24
Q

selection differential=

A

mean of individual/mean of population

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25
Q

which levels does selection occur at

A

nucleus (ggp)
multiplier (gp)
commercial (p)

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26
Q

what do mating systems do

A

match management preferences
maximize heterosis
breed complementarity

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27
Q

define NBA (number born alive)

A

salable items produced by sow

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28
Q

define LWT21 (21 day liter weight)

A

producers sell weaned pigs based on this

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29
Q

define D250

A

how long a pig will stay in the facility

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30
Q

define BF10

A

percent of lean in a carcass which is salable for consumption

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31
Q

what is used to determine if a trait is correctly measured

A

accuracy and repeatability
heritability and rate improvement
sufficient variation

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32
Q

define equal opportunity

A

no animal receives preferential treatment

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33
Q

define systemic measurement

A

takes measurements in the same way at the same time of every animal

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34
Q

define environmental adjustment

A

parity, season, test weight

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35
Q

define parity

A

amount of times an animal has been tested for a trait

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36
Q

what does STAGES stand for

A

swine testing and genetic evaluation system

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37
Q

what breeds does the national swine registry deal with? why?

A

duroc, Hampshire, landrace, and Yorkshire
it is 2 paternal and 2 maternal breeds

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38
Q

what weight are pigs scanned at? how often?

A

250 lb
every 3-4 weeks

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39
Q

what does post-weaning weight look at

A

weight, backfat, and loin muscle in boars, gilts, and barrows

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40
Q

what are stage program components

A

pedigree
performance measurement program
EBV estimate program
public access to genetic ranking

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41
Q

what is contained in the data procedures

A

pedigree info
date farrowed
NBA
number after transfer
21 day liter weight

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42
Q

define purebreeding

A

used at the nucleus level and some at the multiple level

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43
Q

what does inbreeding cause

A

immediate impact

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44
Q

outbreeding is used ______ in swine

A

often

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45
Q

what breeding method is the most often used in swine

A

outbreeding

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46
Q

define crossbreeding

A

used at the multiplication and commercial level

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47
Q

what does the selection system depend on

A

health of herd
management level
cost

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48
Q

what is the system goal for swine

A

increase heterosis

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49
Q

define heterosis

A

gives herds an advantage

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50
Q

define conception rates

A

whether or not a female is bred

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51
Q

define NBA

A

limits amount of pigs that can be sold

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52
Q

define longevity

A

how long a sow remains in the breeding herd

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53
Q

define and describe PSE

A

pale soft and exudative
paralyzed hind leg
seen in piglets

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54
Q

define atresia ani

A

no anus or rectum

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55
Q

what makes up PSS

A

Napoleon (RN) and halothane (HAL)

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56
Q

define and describe RN

A

renderment napole
inherited at one locus
reduces pH of muscle and increases ham and loin

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57
Q

define and describe HAL

A

mutation on chromosome 6, nucleotide 1843
increased lean meat, PSE, and PSS

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58
Q

what does PSS do

A

causes the animal the inability to adapt to stress

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59
Q

what does N and n represent

A

N- normal
n- recessive

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60
Q

NN-
Nn-
nn-

A

normal
carrier
mutant

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61
Q

how many carriers produce inferior muscle pork quality

A

30-50%

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62
Q

what is the best way to help with pork quality issues

A

culling HAL-postive pigs

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63
Q

what does PSS produce

A

watery, chewy, and undesirable meat

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64
Q

who was the first to have stress free herds

A

the American Yorkshire club

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65
Q

define biotechnology

A

applying biological knowledge to practical needs

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66
Q

what does biotechnology do

A

makes it easier to breed animals

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67
Q

what are the two categories of animal breeding perspectives

A

reproductive technologies
molecular technologies

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68
Q

what are reproductive technologies

A

AI
Estrous synchronization
embryo transfer
sex control
cloning

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69
Q

define sex control

A

determining sex of the embryo

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70
Q

define cloning

A

similar to asexual reproduction

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71
Q

what are molecular technologies?

A

DNA fingerprinting
gene transfer

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72
Q

define DNA fingerprinting

A

unique to every individual

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73
Q

what does the impact of biotechnology depend on

A

effectiveness
practicality
cost
public perception

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74
Q

what are reproductive technologies

A

animal breeding- branch of genetics
reproduction- aspect of physiology

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75
Q

how can semen be used

A

fresh, cool, or frozen

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76
Q

what are the advantages of AI

A

use of an excellent sires sperm
easier to control
pretty affordable

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77
Q

what are the disadvantages of AI

A

not always easy or practical
females must be in heat
movement to a breeding area
properly inseminate at the correct time

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78
Q

define estrous synchronization

A

hormones are used to induce females to come into heat at the same time, but reduces the number of days to inseminate

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79
Q

what does PGF2a do? what is it?

A

prostaglandin
it regresses CL and decrease in progesterone synthesis

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80
Q

what is GnRH and what does it do

A

gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
ovulation/luteinization of growing follicle

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81
Q

define progestogen

A

negative feedback on the hypothalamus by blocking LH and FSH

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82
Q

what can there be difficulty to finding candidates for embryo transfer

A

limited data

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83
Q

what are problems for genetic evaluation

A

traits with maternal effects
recips usually are not high quality animals

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84
Q

______ ________ is to females as __ is to males

A

embryo transfer; AI

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85
Q

what are the 9 steps of ET

A
  1. super ovulate donor using gonadotropins
  2. AI 5 days after initiating super ovulation
  3. nonsurgical retrieval of embryos 6-8 days after AI
  4. foley catheter for recovery of embryos
  5. isolation and classification of embryos
  6. storage of embryos into liquid nitrogen or room temp
  7. transfer embryos to recips surgically or nonsurgically
  8. pregnancy diagnosis 1-3 months later via palpation
  9. birth
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86
Q

define in vitro

A

egg is incubated, matured, and fertilized in a lab (test tube)

87
Q

how are oocytes collected

A

aspiration of the reproductive tract

88
Q

describe the steps of the basic principle of IVF

A

Female- hormone treatment, harvest of ovum, mature ovum
male- natural ejaculation, collect semi, motile sperm
both- mixed in a test tube, embryo development, transfer to mother

89
Q

what are used to harvest eggs

A

ultra-sound guided aspiration
laparoscopy

90
Q

define laparoscopy

A

minimal invasive surgery using a thin tube through the stomach to look at the abdominal or pelvic organs

91
Q

when are embryos usually transferred

A

at the 8-cell stage or blastocyst stage

92
Q

what are some advantages of in vitro

A

increased possible pregnancies
eggs can be collected from the same donor in short intervals
doesn’t have to be at a certain stage of estrous cycle
no need to super ovulate donor females
decreases GI
eggs are collected from young, prepubertal females to mature, fertilize, and transfer

93
Q

what are the disadvantages of in vitro

A

expensive
success rate is lower
abnormalities of offspring

94
Q

define sex control

A

the ability to determine the sex of the embryo by physically removing a few cells and examining chromosomes

95
Q

what is the Y-specific DNA probe

A

detects the Y chromosome

96
Q

what is Y-specific DNA primer

A

20-22 nucleotides long that causes DNA replication

97
Q

define sperm sorting

A

determining and operating male and female sex chromosomes

98
Q

what is the problem with sperm sorting

A

too slow to be commercially viable

99
Q

define flow cytometry

A

measurement of cells as the flow by a detector

100
Q

what makes a large difference in X and Y chromosomes

A

the X chromosome have about 4% more DNA that Y-chromosome

101
Q

what is the fluorescent dye used in flow cytometry

A

hoescht 33342

102
Q

what are the 6 steps of flow cytometry

A
  1. semen is dyed with hoescht 33342 which binds to dna and makes it fluorescent
  2. Since X is larger, it will absorb more dye
  3. UV light will show that X shines brighter than Y
  4. spermatozoa are encased in a single droplet and pass through the flow cytometer in single file
  5. spermatozoa are assigned an electrical charge (X=positive; Y=negative)
  6. stream of x and y droplets are separated by electrostatic collect tubes for subsequent analysis
103
Q

what does new technology allow for in sexing semen? when did this first occur?

A

the ability to separate X and Y sperms in 1980

104
Q

when did sexed semen become available

A

2004

105
Q

what are the results of sexed semen

A

a 90% accuracy to produce desired sex
AI companies pack less sperm, since dead/abnormal ones are sorted out
semen is commercially available

106
Q

where was sexed semen first used

A

in the dairy industry

107
Q

what does sex choice depend on

A

herd genetics and marketing programs

108
Q

what are three reasons for sexing semen

A

one sex is more valuable than the other (meat or milk)
better economics
crossbreeding systems

109
Q

define cloning

A

technology for the production of genetically identical individuals

110
Q

define embryo splitting

A

a form of small scale cloning
cuts embryos in half to produce twin embryos

111
Q

what does embryo splitting do

A

improves the efficiency of embryo transferring compared to cloning

112
Q

where do eggs mature in during cloning by nuclear transplantation

A

in vitro

113
Q

define enucleated

A

nuclei are surgically removed

114
Q

define cloning by nuclear transplantation

A

individual cells from a multi-cell embryo are inserted into cleaned out ova to produce multiple identical embryos

115
Q

how is cloning performance measured

A

progeny testing
statistical analysis
shortened GI

116
Q

what are benefits of cloning

A

a big jump in genetic merit
increased uniformity
variation comes from environment
increased accuracy of selection

117
Q

what are problems with cloning

A

loss of genetic variation
susceptibility to pathogens or environmental stress
time consuming
abnormal newborns
many die
expensive

118
Q

when was dolly cloned

A

1996

119
Q

where was dolly cloned

A

the Roslin institute

120
Q

how many attempts were tried to clone dolly

A

277

121
Q

what tissue was used to clone dolly

A

mammary tissue

122
Q

when the dolly die

A

2003

123
Q

how does cloning adult animals happen

A

insert mature, differentiated cells into the ovum
somatic cells will produce different types of tissue

124
Q

what do telomeres do?

A

unravel on the chromosome
specialized terminal structures on chromosomes that ensure the maintenance and accurate replication of chromosomes

125
Q

describe the ten steps of cloning the ewe

A
  1. a ewe provides the mammary cell to be cloned
  2. mammary cells contain copies of all genes for proteins required by mammary cells are active
  3. cells grow and divide, then get deprived of nutrients and become dormant to activate genes
  4. another/same ewe provides an egg
  5. egg is preserved in a laboratory dish
  6. nucleus is dislodged from the egg
  7. mammary cell and nucleus are blended with electricity; molecules in the egg program the genes in the mammary cell to engender the embryo
  8. clusters of embryonic cells are grown
  9. embryos are implanted into a surrogate mother
  10. the resulting lamb is a clone of the donor ewe
126
Q

what causes a lot of controversies in cloning

A

what is done with the other embryos (leave them with the company or take them home)

127
Q

define somatic cell nuclear transfer

A

technique for creating an ovum with donor nucleus

128
Q

when is SCNT used

A

embryonic stem cell research
therapeutic cloning
reproductive cloning

129
Q

what are limitations of SCNT

A

stresses on the egg and nucleus
high loss in resulting cells
can only be done manually

130
Q

what is a major controversy with SCNT

A

an appropriate source of ovum that are needed

131
Q

define same sex mating

A

mating individuals of the same sex using transplantation and embryo transfer

132
Q

define nuclear fusion

A

artificial fertilization combined the nuclei of two gametes

133
Q

if same sex mating works, what could it increase

A

selection accuracy and intensity `

134
Q

what could malexmale produce

A

2 males (XY)
1 female (XX)
1 nonviable (YY)

135
Q

define selfing

A

mating individuals to themselves

136
Q

meiosis I does/does not separate sister chromatids

A

does not

137
Q

define hardy Weinberg

A

the genotypic frequencies in terms of phenotypes

138
Q

what type of cross(es) is AaBbxaabb

A

dihybrid
test

139
Q

define genetic code

A

3 consecutive bases on mRNA that specifies an amino acid

140
Q

define over dominance

A

heterozygotes are superior to both homozygotes

141
Q

define variable expressivity

A

can be broken down into grades, like skin tones

142
Q

define population

A

group of individuals within a specie
can be inbred and share a common gene pool

143
Q

define breeding value

A

most important genetic parameter for an individual

144
Q

define correlation

A

X+Y=Y+X
unitless
-1 to

145
Q

define correlation

A

X+Y=Y+X
unitless
-1 to 1 range

146
Q

define nonrandom mating

A

portion of individuals that deviate from HW
can be bred based on genotype or phenotype

147
Q

define inbreeding depression

A

opposite of heterosis
results from poor GCV

148
Q

what do not use crossbreeding

A

commercial cow calf
dairy

149
Q

define genetic correlation

A

measures strength between BV of one trait and BV of another trait

150
Q

define specific combining ability

A

measures how well 2 breeds compliment each other for a specific trait

151
Q

define positive assertive mating

A

the best male is mated with the best female for a specific trait

152
Q

define identical by descent

A

animals with the same alleles as an ancestor

153
Q

define line breeding

A

mating system where genes of a common ancestor is concentrated in an individual

154
Q

define breed compilation

A

combining desired characteristics of 2+ breeds into the same offspring

155
Q

define expected progeny difference

A

combines all information known about an individual and its relative to create a genetic profile

156
Q

define identical by state

A

individuals look alike but are not related

157
Q

define prepotency

A

ability of parent to impress heredity character on its progeny to increase homozygosity

158
Q

define inbreeding coefficient

A

probability that 2 alleles at a locus in an individual are identical by decent

159
Q

pedigree is/is not used for high h2

A

is not

160
Q

define BLUP

A

method of genetic selection with performance data from diverse groups
extension of selection index
uses matrix algebra

161
Q

define calpastation

A

marker associated with meat tenderness

162
Q

define selection index

A

single number that predicts breeding value of an individual for a weighted combo of traits

163
Q

define polymelia

A

developmental duplication in beeb with high embryonic death among homozygous recessive individuals with incomplete dominance

164
Q

define performance testing

A

systematic collection of comparative production info on an individual

165
Q

define selection intensity

A

selection differential measured in phenotypic standard deviation units of selected traits

166
Q

define bovine progressive degenerative myeloencephalopathy

A

darn disease where animals show bilateral hind leg weakness between 6-18 months old

167
Q

define BLAD

A

dairy disease where animals have soft tissue, fever, low appetite, pneumonia, and diarrhea

168
Q

what are types of molecular technologies

A

DNA fingerprinting
PCR
MHM

169
Q

describe DNA fingerprinting

A

unique to every animal
DNA is extracted from blood or tissue
and is placed in gel

170
Q

define polymorphic

A

at least 2 alternative alleles occurring in the population

171
Q

define electrophoresis

A

separates macromolecules based on size, change, and properties

172
Q

define PCR

A

polymerase chain reaction

173
Q

what are the three steps of PCR

A

denaturation step @ 94ºC
annealing step @ 60ºC
elongation step @ 72ºC

174
Q

where does PCR start

A

the thermal cycler

175
Q

what gel is used in PCR

A

interferon alpha

176
Q

which alleles move the furthest

A

the short ones

177
Q

what does a PCR create

A

a barcode-like pattern

178
Q

define MHM

A

marker-assisted mating is linkable to performance

179
Q

what does MHM do

A

determines the best bull for insemination

180
Q

define predicting hybrid vigor

A

less related individuals will have greater hybrid vigor in offspring
genetic merit is evaluated in EPD forms

181
Q

define marker-assisted selection

A

selecting for a specific allele/alleles at a linked locus

182
Q

define genetic markers

A

detectable genes or DNA fragments used to identify alleles at a linked locus

183
Q

why are some alleles detectable

A

they produce distinguishable genotypes

184
Q

define linkage analysis

A

mathematical process using information from specially bred populations to determine whether 2 loci are linked and how closely

185
Q

define major gene effect

A

one gene may account for 50% of variation out of thousands

186
Q

what are four types of markers

A

restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
microsatellites
single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
Copy number variation (CNV)

187
Q

describe RFLP

A

extract and cut DNA
put in gel electrophoresis
insualize gel to identify alleles

188
Q

describe micro satellites

A

small pieces of DNA that repeat (tandem repeats)

189
Q

describe SNP

A

point mutation
generated by SNP

190
Q

define GEBV

A

genomic estimated breeding value

191
Q

describe CNV

A

copies specific DNA segments that vary between individuals
more reliable
seeing which animals have a certain number of copies

192
Q

define gene transfer

A

transplantation of specific gene from one individual to another

193
Q

define molecular pharming

A

moving genes from one animal into another to have them expressed

194
Q

why is gene transferring a small process

A

only one copy is transferred at a time
takes many generations to spread
gene can end up anywhere in genome

195
Q

define transgenic

A

individual that received genetic material by gene transfer

196
Q

define genomic selection

A

study of how the genome of any species is organized and expressed as traits

197
Q

what do new technologies allow for

A

examination of an organisms entire genome

198
Q

what do SNP panels do

A

detect differences in genomes

199
Q

what animals have federal support for genomics

A

cattle
sheep
swine
poulty
horses
aquaculture

200
Q

what is the usage of genomic selection

A

helps determine disease resistance and production traits
animals are evaluated as soon as DNA is obtainable
parents of next generation can be determined earlier

201
Q

what makes genomic selection slow

A

it takes 3-4 years to test production traits
the bull must be at least five to be evaluated

202
Q

define genetic markers

A

segments of DNA at a unique location in the genome

203
Q

what are the markers of choice

A

SNPs

204
Q

what is the whole gene

A

bovine snp50
GWAS
fine mapping
gene discovery
allele variation
BV
OR
bovine snp50
WGS
BV

205
Q

what is the 770k chip

A

illumina bovine HD
allows predictions to be less breed specific

206
Q

where is genomic selection used most

A

dairy cattle

207
Q

what are the four technologies of gene editing

A

meganucleases
zinc finger nucleases
transcription activator-like effector nucleases
CRISPR

208
Q

define meganucleases

A

removing or adding a singular trait

209
Q

define Zinc finger nucleases

A

targets 9 nucleotides

210
Q

define transcription activator-like effector nuclease

A

targets 16-17 nucleotides

211
Q

describe disease resistance

A

cattle can be genetically edited to resist mycobacterium bovis infection

212
Q

describe improved performance

A

myostatin is cut out and causes a double muscling phenotype

213
Q

describe animal welfare

A

gene editing holstein to be horn free

Genetics (5 decks)

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