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MedSurg > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the action of Zofran? What are side effects of Zofran?

A

Zofran blocks serotonin in the CTZ

Side effects: HA and constipation

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2
Q

When administering blood, what is the ration in which you want to see the H&H rise?

A

1 point to 3% ratio

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3
Q

The overuse of Tums (Ca Carbonate)may cause….

A

Hypercalcemia

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4
Q

What are the side effects of Diltiazem?

A

Bradycardia and peripheral edema

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5
Q

What are side effects of hydroxyl ing (Visteril)?

A

Dry mouth and drowsiness

Anticholinergic effects

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6
Q

How can you prevent crystalluria with sulfonamides?

A

Increase fluids

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7
Q

When titrating mannitol, what does the urine output minimum need to be?

A

Minimum output of 30mL/hr

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8
Q

HHNK (HHS) and DKA develop because of what cause:

A

Insulin deficiency

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9
Q

What do you need to assess first with zithromycin?

A

Assess for allergies first,

then obtain blood cultures before ABX use

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10
Q

A patient experiences pain during admin of a chemo medication, what action is first?

A

STOP the infusion

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11
Q

What is the antidote for benzodiazapines?

A

Flumazenil

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12
Q

What is drug distribution?

A

Drug distribution occurs when a drug is administered and carried to the desired site for action.

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13
Q

What is the half life of Bactrium?

A

12 hours, give medication at 8am and 8pm

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14
Q

What can result from increased levels of vasopressin?

A 
Water intoxication 
(S/Sx: crackles, edema, HTN, tachycardia, altered LOC)
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15
Q

After an ABX is ordered, what is the next action?

A

Obtain cultures before the initial dose is given.

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16
Q

A patient has Diabetes Incipidus and is concerned about taking desmopressin, what do you do?

A

Ask: Tell me your concerns

Ask open-ended questions

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17
Q

What are the adverse effects of propofol?

A

Respiratory depression, hypotension, and bacterial growth

Should NOT have anxiety

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18
Q

What is a therapeutic effect of vasopressin?

A

Decreased urine output

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19
Q

What is patient education regarding topical nitro?

A

Remove old patch before a new patch is applied

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20
Q

Why do you increase fluids with Cyclophophamide?

Chemo med

A

To prevent hemorrhagic cystitis

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21
Q

What are S/Sx of hypoglycemia?

A

Weakness, altered LOC, hungar, HA

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22
Q

When is a drug level considered effective?

A

When the drug is maintained above the minimum therapeutic effective level

23
Q

With AIDS medications, what is the goal of antiretrovirals?

A

Slow decline of CD4 cells
Decrease viral load
Decrease resistance of infection
Decrease ability of oppertunistic infections

24
Q

What are adverse effects of administering COLD blood?

A

Dysrhythmias

Have patient on a cardiac monitor

25
Q

During blood transfusions, the nurse is responsible for:

A

Stay with the patient for 15-20 minutes, administer blood slowly

26
Q

What is the timeframe to administer blood?

A

2-4 hours

27
Q

Which insulin lasts 24 hours and a flat peak?

A

Lactus (glargine)

28
Q

What IVF do you give Piggyback with blood transfusions?

A

Normal Saline

29
Q

What are indications for administering Fresh Frozen Plasma?

A

Deficiency in clotting factor, put is bleeding

30
Q

What IVF do you hang when TPN runs out before the next feeding?

A

10% dextrose

31
Q

Thrombolitic therapy for CVA is given within:

A

3 hours of symptom onset

32
Q

Which heart medication has a persistent cough?

A

ACE inhibitors

33
Q

What is the reversal agent for conscious sedation agents?

A

Narcan

34
Q

How quickly can you decrease a blood sugar by?

A

50-75 per hour

If insulin drip is lowering a sugar faster than that, SLOW the drip

35
Q

You are administering PRBCs and the patient has a reaction, stop the infusion and then do what?

A

Send blood and urine for samples

36
Q

Check blood sugar when taking which med?

A

Corticosteroids

37
Q

Multiple units of PRBC are given, which electrolyte needs replaced?

A

Calcium

You will have hypocalcemia and hyperkalemia

38
Q

When PCA is initiated, you want to see:

A

Minimal pain and reasonably comfortable

39
Q

Class 1B antidysrhythmia also used for seizures?

A

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

40
Q

A patient has HTN and is newly diagnosed with DM, which medication will you give?

A

Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor with less side effects)

41
Q

White patches present in mouth, what do you do?

A

Notify PCP for prescription of nystatin

42
Q

Medication to prevent premature ovulation, to control ovarian stimulation?

A

HCG

CLomide is used to stimulate egg production

43
Q

What do you want to teach pt taking doxorubicin

A

Report SOB, palpitations and edema

44
Q

What timeframe do you give salvaged RBCs

A

6 hours from removal

45
Q

Heartburn that doesn’t go away with tums, what do you respond?

A

Does it radiate to the arm or jaw

46
Q

Give blood within 2-4 hours to prevent:

A

R/F infections (Pathogen growth)

47
Q

When monitoring for reaction during blood admin, the nurse

A

Stays with the pt for the first 15-20 minutes

48
Q

Antiretrovirals in combo for HIV/AIDS because:

A

Prevents resistance to antiretrovirals

49
Q

Zithromycin given how many times per day?

A

1 time per day

50
Q

What is the action of estrogen therapy?

A

Suppress tumor growth

51
Q

Albumin helps with hypovolemia by

A

Pulling the fluid from the extravascular space into the INTRAVASCULAR

52
Q

Which insulin can be given SubQ or IV?

A

Regular insulin

53
Q

Which insulin do you NOT mix?

A

Lantus

54
Q

R/F oversedation with PCA, assess

A

How easily the patient can be aroused

MedSurg (6 decks)

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