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Final Review Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q 
An organism has its genetic make-up written as 2n=8, indicating it can produce \_\_\_ kind of gametes based on the number of chromosomes. 
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 16
A

E. 16

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2
Q

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 1:1 ration for a particular trait. This suggests…
A. That the parents were true breeding for contrasting traits
B. That a blending of traits has occurred
C. It is a result of a testcross of heterozygote plants
D. Each offspring has the same alleles

A

C. It is a result of a testcross of heterozygote plants

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3
Q 
Which of	the	following	statements	is/are correct?	
I. Mutations occur randomly. 
II. Somatic mutations	can be passed	to offspring.
III. All mutations are bad.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and II
E. I and III
F. II and III
G. All true
A

A. I

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is correct:
A. Mendel’s equal segregation principle cannot be applied to sex chromosome linked genes
B. Mendel’s independent assortment principle can be applied to any two given genes
C. Genetic map is based on calculations of recombination frequencies of linked genes
D. Crossing over takes place between any two chromosomes

A

C. Genetic map is based on calculations of recombination frequencies of linked genes

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5
Q 
The human genome contains three genes for enolase (alpha, beta, and gamma), whereas yeast contains just one for enolase. The three human enolase genes are \_\_\_\_ of each other, wherease the human and yeast enolase genes are \_\_\_\_ of each other. 
A. orthologs; paralogs
B. paralogs; orthologs
C. orthologs; homologs
D. homologs; paralogs
A

B. paralogs; orthologs

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6
Q

A gene related to a second gene by descent from a common ancestor.

A

paralog

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7
Q

Genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestor by speciation.

A

ortholog

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8
Q

A gene inherited in two species by a common ancestor.

A

homolog

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9
Q

Mary is a healthy 15 year old girl. Mary’s mother Sarah is 45 years old; 5 years ago she was diagnosed with breast cancer associated with the autosomal BRCA1 gene mutation. Sarah’s sister Joan is 50 years old and appears healthy. Which of the following statements is /are true?
I. Mary’s mother has BRCA1 gene, but Mary and her aunt don’t
II. Mary, her mother and aunt will all have BRCA1 genes
III. Breast cancer cells detected in Mary’s mother likely are due to multiple gene mutations
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and II
E. I and III
F. II and III
E. All true

A

F. II and III

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10
Q

Which of the statements below is not true with regard to genomic imprinting?
A. DNA methylation is one of the mechanisms that result in genomic imprinting
B. Genomic imprinting can be inheritable
C. Some cases of haploinsufficiency can be explained by genomic imprinting phenomenon
D. An imprinted gene allele is hyperactive

A

D. An imprinted gene allele is hyperactive

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11
Q 
DNA methylation is important to explain lots of biological phenomenon. To study DNA methylation, which of the techniques below can be used?
A. in situ hybridization 
B. Northern hybridization 
C. RT-PCR
D. Bisulfite sequencing technique
A

D. Bisulfite sequencing technique

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12
Q

Which of the following is true of oncogenes?
I. Their normal function is to inhibit cell proliferation
II. They are the result of dominant mutations of protooncogenes
III. They always are transcription factors
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and II

A

B. II

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13
Q

Which of the following is true?
I. Genetic imprinting is a result of change of DNA sequence
II. Epigenome is dynamic and can vary from one developmental stage to another
III. Metagenomics means study the genome of metazon
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and II
E. I and III
F. II and III
G. All true

A

B. II

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14
Q

Given that homology is defined as the state of being homologous, and that natural selection presses selection pressure on preserving the information relevant to the gene activity, in general, which level of a gene, such as the Pax6 gene of the zebrafish and its encoded product, should have highest homology among different species, such as among humans, Drosophila and C. elegans?
A. The genomic DNA sequences of Pax6 genes
B. The coding sequence (CDS) of the Pax6 genes
C. The amino acid sequence of the Pax6 proteins

A

C. The amino acid sequence of the Pax6 proteins

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Pseudogenes are considered dead genes because they affect survival
II. Gene duplication always results in the situation that one of the two gene copies gains novel function
A. I
B. II
C. I and II
D. Both false

A

D. Both false

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16
Q

Which of the following is true?
I. The Hardy-Weinberg principle can be applied to autosomal genes only
II. The Hard-Weinberg principle is based on a few assumptions including random mating, and large population size
III. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium explains eliminations of genes
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and II
E. I and III
F. II and III
G. All true

A

D. I and II

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17
Q

You are investigating traits of a new species of beetle. You have isolated two true lines that one line shows blue shells and long antenna, and the other shows green shells and short antenna. Crossing these two lines always yields F1 progeny with blue shells and long antenna. Which shell color is dominant, blue or green?

A

blue

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18
Q

You are investigating traits of a new species of beetle. You have isolated two true lines that one line shows blue shells and long antenna, and the other shows green shells and short antenna. Crossing these two lines always yields F1 progeny with blue shells and long antenna. Which antenna length is dominant, short or long?

A

long

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19
Q

Crossing the blue shells and long antenna F1 progeny with beetles that have green shells and short antenna yield the following progeny:
Blue shell, long antenna: 122
Green shell, short antenna: 118
Total: 240
Based on the result above, the linkage relationship between the shell color locus and the antenna length locus is ___ (unlinked, completely linked, or incompletely linked.)

A

Completely linked

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20
Q 
Reverse transcriptase originally was discovered from: 
A. Bacteria
B. DNA virus
C. RNA virus
D. Drosophila
A

C. RNA virus

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21
Q

The function of reverse transcriptase is:
A. Make a new DNA strand based on an RNA template strand
B. Make a new DNA strand based on a DNA template
C. Make a new RNA strand based on an RNA template

A

A. Make a new DNA strand based on an RNA template strand

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22
Q

A reporter gene is a transgene or endogenous gene?

A

Transgene

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23
Q

A reported gene is often used to report:
A. When the gene of interest is expressed
B. Where the gene of interest is expressed
C. Which DNA element(s), such as enhancers, regulate the gene expression
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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24
Q

What is an ortholog?
A. Genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestral gene
B. Genes that have the same function but did not evolve from a common ancestral gene
C. Non-coding region of a gene
D. Coding region of a gene

A

A. Genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestral gene

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25
Q 
Your research advisor has given you a nucleotide sequence from a protein coding gene and asked you to identify which species it us most likely from and which gene it represents. Which of the below public databases would you search?
A. blastp
B. blastn
C. orf finder
D. phylogeny-fr
A

B. blastn

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26
Q

Which of the statements below is incorrect?
A. Aneuploidy can be derived from nondisjunction during meiosis
B. Trisomy 21 is an example of polyploidy
C. Chromosomal translocation could cause abnormal gene function
D. Cancer is not just one disease but many disease

A

B. Trisomy 21 is an example of polyploidy

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27
Q

Which of the enzymes below is expressed actively in tumor cells but being silent in most of normal cells in adult tissues:
A. RNA polymerase
B. Telomerase
C. tRNA acetyltransferase

A

B. Telomerase

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28
Q

Which of the statements below is correct?
A. The occurrence of cancer often requires multiple gene mutations
B. Cancer cells find ways to avoid apoptosis
C. Cancer cells often have cytoskeletal changes
D. Cancer cells often exhibit genomic instability
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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29
Q

Proto-oncogenes are genes whose products ____ (promote or suppress) cell growth and cell divisions. An oncogene is derived from mutations of a proto-oncogene, and causes ____ (recessive or dominant) phenotype.

A

Promote; dominant

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30
Q

Which of the statements below is incorrect?
A. Epigenetics refers to changes in the regulation of the expression of gene activity through changes to the DNA sequence
B. Epigenetics refers to changes in the regulation of the expression of gene activity through DNA modifications without any change to the DNA sequence

A

A. Epigenetics refers to changes in the regulation of the expression of gene activity through changes to the DNA sequence

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31
Q

Genomic imprinting means:
A. The imprinted genes are super active, producing more gene products than usual
B. The imprinted genes are inactive; they produce no products

A

B. The imprinted genes are inactive; they produce no products

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32
Q 
Which of the mechanisms below produce epigenetic effects: 
A. DNA methylation 
B. Histone modification 
C. Modification through microRNA 
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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33
Q

Mitochondria are organelles that generate ____ (ATP, or vitamins); mitochondrial DNA usually is ____ (linear, or circular) form.

A

ATP, circular

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34
Q

In mammals, mitochondrial DNA inheritance is…
A. Paternal inheritance
B. Maternal inheritance
C. From both parents

A

B. Maternal inheritance

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35
Q

Proteins used for respiratory chain reactions are encoded by:
A. mitochondrial genome only
B. nuclear genome only
C. both nuclear and mitochondrial genomes

A

C. both nuclear and mitochondrial genomes

36
Q

Which of the statements below is correct?
A. Pseudogenes are derived from genes that accumulate lots of mutations and lose their protein producing abilities
B. Pseudogenes are derived from repetitive DNA sequences that look like they have open reading frames

A

A. Pseudogenes are derived from genes that accumulate lots of mutations and lose their protein producing abilities

37
Q

Genetic drift versus natural selection, which of the statements below is correct?
A. Genetic drift affects the genetics makeup of the population but through an entirely random process
B. Similar to natural selection, genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution, and works to produce adaptations

A

A. Genetic drift affects the genetics makeup of the population but through an entirely random process

38
Q

Among the factors affecting allele frequencies, which of the below is/are major factor(s)?
A. Mutation
B. Natural selection
C. Inbreeding occurs in a large population
D. All of the above

A

B. Natural selection

39
Q

The Hardy-Weinberg describes the effects of reproduction and Mendel’s laws on the allelic and genotypic frequencies of a population. It assumes that:
A. The population
B. The allelic and and genotypic frequencies of interest are free from the effects of mutation, migration, and natural selection for the gene of interest
C. The genes of interest are not on sex chromosomes
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

40
Q

Linked genes assort independently. T or F?

A

False

41
Q

The movement of genes between different species

A

Horizontal gene transfer

42
Q

Studies the genomes of entire groups of organisms.

A

Metagenomics

43
Q

Genes that are located on the same chromosome.

A

Syntenic genes

44
Q

Genes located together on the same chromosome.

A

Linkage group

45
Q

Mapping by recombination frequency determined by genetic crosses, in the unit of genetic linkage: centimorgan (cM)

A

Genetic map

46
Q

Mapping by chromosome staining, such as using G staining to establish karyotype

A

Cytological map

47
Q

Mapping by restriction enzyme mapping, and by DNA sequencing genome projects

A

Physical map

48
Q

Linked genes segregate together, and crossing over produces meiotic recombination between them. T or F?

A

True

49
Q

Phenomenon in which two genes are located on the same chromosome.

A

Physical linkage

50
Q

Linkage between genes that are located close together on the same chromosome with no crossing over between them.

A

Complete linkage

51
Q

Linkage between genes that exhibit some crossing over; intermediate in its effects between independent assortment and complete linkage.

A

Incomplete linkage

52
Q

Identifying the genotype that is responsible for a phenotype.

A

Forward genetics

53
Q

Seeking to alter genes in order to illuminate their multiple phenotypes.

A

Reverse genetics

54
Q

A gene that naturally exists in the genome

A

Endogenous gene

55
Q

A gene that has been modified by externally applied recombinant DNA techniques and reintroduced into the genome of an organism

A

Transgene

56
Q

A term applied to organisms that have been genetically modified to incorporate foreign DNA into their genomes

A

Transgenic

57
Q

A transgene that encodes an easily assayed product or that is coupled to the upstream sequence of another gene and introduced into cells or organisms

A

Reporter gene

58
Q

A general term for any genetic unit that can insert into a chromosome, exit, and relocate; it often included insertion sequences, transposons, some phages, and controlling elements,

A

Transposable DNA

59
Q

A gene related to a second gene by descent from a common ancestral DNA sequence.

A

Homolog

60
Q

Are genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestral gene by speciation.

A

Orthologs

61
Q

Are genes related by duplication within a genome; can evolve new functions over time.

A

Paralogs

62
Q

ETS

A

Expressed Sequence Tags

63
Q

RFLP

A

Restriction Fragments Length Polymorphism

64
Q

SNP

A

Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

65
Q

Molecular genetic testing to identify a set of closely linked segments of DNA; used in linkage analysis or when a given trait is in linkage disequilibrium with a marker or set of makers

A

Haplotype analysis

66
Q

Determines the DNA sequence of entire genomes

A

Structural genomics

67
Q

Determines the functions of genes by using genomic-based approaches

A

Functional genomics

68
Q

Studies how genomes evolve

A

Comparative genomics

69
Q

Dominant mutated copies of normal genes (proto-oncogenes) that stimulate cell division.

A

Oncogenes

70
Q

Genes hat normally inhibit cell division; recessive mutations in these genes may contribute to cancer.

A

Tumor-repressor

71
Q

They contribute to cell proliferation by mutating and rearranging host genes and by altering the expression of host genes

A

Viruses

72
Q

Refers to chromosome sets that have an abnormal number of chromosomes or chromosome segments.

A

Aneuploidy

73
Q

Lack of a chromosome due to nondisjunction.

A

Monosomy

74
Q

Having an additional (third) chromosome.

A

Trisomy

75
Q

Gene duplication is often derived from unequal crossing over. T or F?

A

True

76
Q

A specific gene abnormality in chromosome 22 of leukemia cancer cells (particularly chronic myelogenous)

A

Philadelphia chromosome

77
Q

Cancer that begins in the skin or in tissues that line or cover internal organs

A

Carcinoma

78
Q

Cancer that begins in bone, cartilage fat, muscle, blood vessels, or other connective or supportive tissues

A

Sarcoma

79
Q

Cancer that starts in blood-forming tissue such as the bone marrow and causes large numbers of abnormal blood cells to be produced and enter the blood

A

Leukemia

80
Q

Cancers that begin in the cells of the immune system

A

Lymphoma and myeloma

81
Q

Cancers that begin in the tissues of the brain and spinal cord

A

CNS cancers

82
Q

Example of proto-oncogene; some of the most frequently mutated genes in human tumors

A

ras genes

83
Q

Example of tumor-suppressor gene; most frequently mutated gene (50% of all cancers)

A

p53 gene

84
Q

Example of tumor-suppressor gene (the first identified); familial and sporadic

A

RB1 gene

85
Q

Including retinoblastoma, most cancer development requires multiple gene mutations. T or F?

A

False (excluding retinoblastoma)

Genetics (5 decks)

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