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Exam 2 questions Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q 
An organism has its genetic make-up written as 2n=6, indicating it can produce \_\_\_\_\_ kinds of gametes based on their paternal chromosome and maternal chromosome combinations. 
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
A

C. 8

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2
Q 
Base on the independent assortment principle, what are the different types of gametes that can be formed by individuals with the genotype AaBbcc?
A. AaBbcc
B. ABc, Abc, aBc
C. ABc, Abc
D. ABc, Abc, aBc, abc
A

D. ABc, Abc, aBc, abc

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3
Q

A loss of function mutation ____.
A. is a neutral mutation
B. is the wild-type allele
C. results in an increased quantity of the normal gene product
D. results in reduced or no production of the gene product

A

D. results in reduced or no production of the gene product

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4
Q

Which of the following statements about an animal bearing a somatic mutation is true?
A. some but not all of the animal’s offspring will also carry the mutation
B. all of the animal’s offspring will carry the mutation
C. both the animal and its offspring will show the mutant trait
D. the animal but not its offspring can be affected by the mutation

A

D. the animal but not its offspring can be affected by the mutation

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5
Q 
A regulatory mutation has been observed in several individuals in a population. This mutation is NOT transmitted to offspring, so this mutation is most probably \_\_\_. 
A. a neutral mutation 
B. a gametic mutation 
C. a spontaneous, somatic mutation 
D. an induced gametic mutation
A

C. a spontaneous, somatic mutation

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6
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
A. mutations can be caused by mistakes of DNA replication
B. mutations sometimes don’t affect gene function
C. not all mutations will be passed to offspring
D. mutations are products of natural selection

A

D. mutations are products of natural selection

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7
Q 
A mRNA has \_\_\_ possible reading frames; a double-stranded DNA has \_\_\_ possible reading frames. 
A. 1;1
B. 1;2
C. 2;2
D. 2;4
E. 3;3
F. 3;6
G. 4;4
H. 4;8
A

F. 3;6

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8
Q 
Which of the following is NOT part of a mature mRNA in eukaryotic cells?
A. 5' UTR
B. 5' cap
C. introns
D. 3' UTR
A

C. introns

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9
Q

In eukaryotes, mature mRNA sequences are products of RNA processing; which of the DNA in below is likely to encode a 200 amino acid long polypeptide?
A. a 200 bp long DNA
B. a 600 bp long DNA
C. a 1000 bp long DNA

A

C. a 1000 bp long DNA

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10
Q

Which strand is the coding strand?

(promoter) +1
5’ GTAACTATG 3’
3’ CATTGATAC 5’

A. top strand
B. bottom strand
C. both top and bottom strands

A

A. top strand

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11
Q

What are the first six nucleotides of the RNA?

(promoter) +1
5’ GTAACTATG 3’
3’ CATTGATAC 5’

A. 5’ GUAACU 3’
B. 5’ CAUUCU 3’
C. 5’ CAUUGA 3’
D. ‘5 GUAAGA 3’

A

D. ‘5 GUAAGA 3’

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12
Q 
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is an enzyme that attached amino acid to a tRNA. In general, how many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases exist in a cell? 
A. 10
B. 20
C. 61
D. 64
A

B. 20

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13
Q

Ubiquitin is a protein important for degrading unwanted proteins in cells; it exists in every species ranging from bacteria to human beings. Given the selection pressure on the function of ubiquitin, one would predict the conservation of ubiquitin homology among all the species is likely to be highest in the level of:
A. the ubiquitin genomic DNA sequences
B. the ubiquitin mRNA sequences
C. the ubiquitin protein sequences

A

C. the ubiquitin protein sequences

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14
Q 
Two gene loci A and B are unlinked; which of the following genotypes represents a gamete produced by a failure to segregate during meiosis in a cell AaBb?
A. Ab
B. AaB
C. ab
D. AB
A

B. AaB

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15
Q 
Which term describes the individual in a pedigree whose phenotype was first brought to the attention of a medical researcher?
A. allele
B. proband
C. sinship
D. progeny
A

B. proband

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16
Q

In guinea pigs, the S allele for short hair is dominant over the s allele for long hair. Two short haired guinea pigs are mated several times. Out of 200 offspring, 50 of them have long hair. What are the probable genotypes of the parents?
A. Ss and ss
B. Ss and SS
C. Ss and Ss

A

C. Ss and Ss

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17
Q 
Normal parents have a child with Tay-Sachs disease, an autosomal recessive condition. What is the probability that their next child will be normal?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75
E. 100%
A

D. 75%

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18
Q 
A woman is heterozygous for the recessive X-linked gene for Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. What proportion of her daughters will be carriers for the trait if their father is not affected? 
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
A

C. 50%

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19
Q

In the ABO blood types, all of the following offspring are commonly possible EXCEPT ___.
A. an individual with type A blood from a mother with type O blood and father with type AB
B. an individual with type AB blood from a mother with type B and a father with type AB
C. an individual with type B blood from a mother with type A and a father with type AB
D. an individual with type O blood from a mother with type A and a father with type AB

A

D. an individual with type O blood from a mother with type A and a father with type AB

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20
Q

Bombay phenotype is an example of epistasis. The difference between dominance and epistasis is that:
A. dominance masks genes at different gene loci
B. epistasis masks genes at the same gene locus
C. epistasis masks genes at different gene loci
D. all of the above

A

C. epistasis masks genes at different gene loci

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21
Q

In a polypeptide chain, the last amino acid has a free ___ (amino group or carboxyl group), which, relatively speaking, is corresponding to the ___ (5’ or 3’) side of mRNA.

A

carboxyl group

3’

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22
Q

For Mendel’s garden pea experiment, smooth seed shape (R allele) is dominant over wrinkled pea shape (r allele), yellow color (G allele) is dominant over green allele (g allele), and these two genes are unlinked.
In a cross RrGg x Rrgg:
a. what is the probability of the offspring having wrinkled seeds ?

A

1/4

23
Q

For Mendel’s garden pea experiment, smooth seed shape (R allele) is dominant over wrinkled pea shape (r allele), yellow color (G allele) is dominant over green allele (g allele), and these two genes are unlinked.
In a cross RrGg x Rrgg: b. what is the probability of the offspring having yellow and wrinkled seeds?

A

1/4 x 1/2 = 1/8

24
Q

Which of the following would be true of a plant heterozygous for a single gene controlling flower color? (Assume complete dominance).
A. It displays the recessive flower color.
B. About half of all its progeny will display the recessive flower color.
C. It will produce gametes with recessive flower color alleles and gametes with dominant flower color alleles in about a 3:1 ratio.
D. If crossed with another heterozygous plant, the majority of progeny will have the dominant flower color.

A

D. If crossed with another heterozygous plant, the majority of progeny will have the dominant flower color.

25
Q

Of the methods listed below, which would be the best way to determine which of two alleles of a gene is dominant to the other?
A. Observe the relevant phenotype in the progeny that result from a cross between individuals from two different pure-breeding lines.
B. Observe the relevant phenotype among the progeny of several crosses between individuals within a single, pure-breeding line.
C. Perform crosses between series of randomly selected pairs to see which phenotype occurs more frequently.
D. Count the number of recessive individuals resulting from a cross between two recessive parents.

A

A. Observe the relevant phenotype in the progeny that result from a cross between individuals from two different pure-breeding lines.

26
Q

In an individual that is heterozygous for a particular trait, the recessive allele is not expressed. T or F ?

A

True

27
Q 
Round (R) seed shape is dominant to wrinkled (r) seed shape in pea plants. If an RR plant is crossed with an rr plant, what is the frequency of phenotypes in the F2 generation?
A. ¼ RR, ½ Rr, ¼ rr
B. 3 round seeds, 1 wrinkled seed
C. All round seeds
D. All wrinkled seeds
A

B. 3 round seeds, 1 wrinkled seed

28
Q 
If the first three F2 offspring grown from the cross described above are round, what is the probability that the next F2 offspring will be wrinkled ( RR X rr) ?
 A. 0%
 B. 25%
 C. 75%
 D. 100%
A

B. 25%

29
Q

The law of independent assortment states that one gene in a pair is always dominant to the other. T or F?

A

False

30
Q 
If a yellow pea plant with round seeds that has the genotype GgWw is crossed to itself, what proportion of the offspring will be green with round seeds?
A. 3/16
B. 1/16
C. 0
D. 9/16
A

A. 3/16

31
Q 
The following phenotypic ratios are determined for a trihybrid cross in which the gametes assort independently: 
A 1 : A 2 = ¼ : ¾ 
B 1 : B 2 = ¼ : ¾ 
C 1 : C 2 = ¾ : ¼ 
A. 27⁄64
B. 3⁄64
C. 9⁄64
D. 1⁄64
A

B. 3/64

32
Q

White eye color is an X-linked trait in one line of fruit flies. White eyes is recessive to red eyes. If a red-eyed female and a white-eyed male are crossed, _______.
A. all of their female progeny will have white eyes
B. none of their male progeny could have white eyes
C. all of their progeny will have white eyes
D. some of their male progeny may have white eyes

A

D. some of their male progeny may have white eyes

33
Q

For X-linked traits in Drosophila, the male phenotype is determined by the maternally inherited allele. T or F?

A

True

34
Q

Eye color in Drosophila is an X-linked trait. White eyes is recessive to red eyes. If a Drosophila male has white eyes, which of the following must also be true?
A. some of his female siblings from the same mating must also have white eyes
B. his father must also have white eyes
C. his mother had at least one white allele
D. all his male siblings from the same parents must also have white eyes

A

C. his mother had at least one white allele

35
Q

Which of the following statements about autosomal recessive traits is true?
A. If an individual expresses the trait, none of his or her offspring will express the trait.
B. Only females can pass the trait to their offspring.
C. If neither parent expresses the trait, but the offspring does, both parents must be heterozygous for the trait.
D. If an individual expresses the trait, then all of his or her offspring will also express the trait.

A

C. If neither parent expresses the trait, but the offspring does, both parents must be heterozygous for the trait.

36
Q

What is the most likely mode of transmission for a trait that is not expressed in parents but is expressed by one half of the sons?
What is the most likely mode of transmission for a trait that is not expressed in parents but is expressed by one half of the sons?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Rare X-linked dominant
D. Rare X-linked recessive

A

D. Rare X-linked recessive

37
Q

The role of the primers in PCR is _______.
A. solely to define the target region
B. the annealing temperature is maintained until polymerase has finished extension of the new strands
C. to define the target region and provide a 3’ end that can be extended by taq polymerase
D. to denature the template DNA and define the target region

A

C. to define the target region and provide a 3’ end that can be extended by taq polymerase

38
Q

If there are five molecules of DNA containing the target region at the beginning of a PCR reaction, how many copies of the target will be present after three rounds of amplification?
If there are five molecules of DNA containing the target region at the beginning of a PCR reaction, how many copies of the target will be present after three rounds of amplification?
A. 125
B. 500
C. 15
D. 40

A

D. 40

39
Q

Immediately after the primers have annealed to the target sequence, _______.
A. the temperature is raised to cause denaturation
B. the temperature is lowered so that taq polymerase can extend the primers
C. the temperature is raised so that taq polymerase can extend the primers
D. the annealing temperature is maintained until polymerase has finished extension of the new strands

A

C. the temperature is raised so that taq polymerase can extend the primers

40
Q 
Which of the following molecules is not required for a PCR reaction?
A. DNA
B. DNTPs
C. Primer
D. Ligase
A

D. Ligase

41
Q

The thermostability of Taq polymerase is required during the annealing phase of PCR. T or F?

A

False

42
Q

What is the purpose of raising the temperature to 90–95°C at the beginning of each cycle of PCR?
What is the purpose of raising the temperature to 90–95°C at the beginning of each cycle of PCR?
A. To attach the primer
B. To extend the primer
C. To separate the double‑stranded DNA
D. To renature two single DNA strands

A

C. To separate the double‑stranded DNA

43
Q

What is the function of restriction endonucleases in bacteria?
What is the function of restriction endonucleases in bacteria?
A. They provide a defense mechanism against infection by viruses.
B. They allow bacteria to genetically recombine with other bacteria.
C. They allow bacteria to engineer new DNA fragments.
D. They serve no function.

A

A. They provide a defense mechanism against infection by viruses.

44
Q

Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific recognition sequences and then bond two strands covalently with the same “sticky ends.”
Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific recognition sequences and then bond two strands covalently with the same “sticky ends.”
T or F?

A

False

45
Q

BamHI cuts the sequence 5′ G|GATCC 3′. Which of the following sequences would not be recognized by this enzyme?
BamHI cuts the sequence 5′ G|GATCC 3′. Which of the following sequences would not be recognized by this enzyme?
A. 3′ CCTAGGATC 5′
B. 3′ TCTTAAG 5′
C. 5′ AGCGGATCC 3′
D. 5′ AGGATCCGTA 3′

A

B. 3′ TCTTAAG 5′

46
Q

Which of the following statements about ddNTPs is true?
A. They have an oxygen at the 2′ carbon of the sugar.
B. DNA polymerase can add a new dNTP to a 3′ ddNTP.
C. They have a free 3′‑hydroxyl group on the sugar.
D. They have a hydrogen at the 3′ carbon of the sugar.

A

D. They have a hydrogen at the 3′ carbon of the sugar.

47
Q

DNA fragments that are 600 bp long will migrate more quickly through a sequencing gel than fragments that are 150 bp long. T or F?

A

False

48
Q

Which of the following statements about manual Sanger sequencing is true?
Which of the following statements about manual Sanger sequencing is true?
A. The DNA sequence obtained is complementary to the template strand.
B. One sequencing reaction is performed.
C. The DNA sequence is read from the top of the gel to the bottom.
D. Each of the four terminating ddNTPs is labeled with a different fluorescent dye

A

A. The DNA sequence obtained is complementary to the template strand.

49
Q

Which statement below is the most accurate to define a gene?
A. a gene is a DNA segment
B. a gene is a DNA segment that always encodes a protein
C. a gene is a DNA segment that always encodes a transcript

A

C. a gene is a DNA segment that always encodes a transcript

50
Q

Which of the following mutations cannot be categorized as SNP?
A. missense mutation
B. nonsense mutation
C. deletions of one or more nucleotides

A

C. deletions of one or more nucleotides

51
Q

Which of the following mutations would result in a lack of mRNA production?
A. mutations in the promoter region that abolish the binding to RNA polymerase
B. missense mutation
C. silent mutation
D. nonsense mutation

A

A. mutations in the promoter region that abolish the binding to RNA polymerase

52
Q

When a mutation is called a missense mutation, it means this mutation:
A. can occur in the promoter, intron or exon of a gene
B. occurs in the protein coding sequence (CDS)
C. makes the gene inactive
D. makes the gene overactive

A

B. occurs in the protein coding sequence (CDS)

53
Q

A bacterial gene called beginner encodes the Beginner protein, the length of protein coding sequence CDS is 693 n.t long.
There are ____ codons in the beginner CDS.
The length of the Beginner protein is ____ aa.

A

231; 230

Genetics (5 decks)

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