Final review Flashcards

1
Q

A _ is formed when magma intrudes between existing sedimentary layers

dike
sill
stream
inclusion

A

sill

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2
Q

The loess in western China was derived from windblown, glacial rock flour.
True
False

A

False

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3
Q

which of the following statements regarding radioactive decay is true?

more daughter products accumulate over time
less daughter products accumulate over time

A

more daughter products accumulate over time

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4
Q

if one half-life has lapsed, what is the radioactive parent to stable daughter isotope ratio?

A

50:50

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5
Q

What era are we currently in?

Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Precambrian

Paleozoic

A

cenozoic

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6
Q

Which era of geologic time spans about 88 percent of Earth’s history?

Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Precambrian

Paleozoic

A

Precambrian

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7
Q

true or false:

The fossil record is biased toward preserving organisms with hard parts.

A

true

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8
Q

True or false:

the first life on earth developed during the Cambrian Period.

A

false

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9
Q

Worldwide, the largest percentage of freshwater readily available to humans is stored in?

A

Pore spaces between rocks and sediment

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10
Q

What percentage of earths liquid freshwater is in the form of groundwater?

A

94%

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11
Q

What percentage of Earths water is in the form of groundwater?

A

0.62%

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12
Q

In terms of freshwater storage, groundwater is second only to which of the following sources?

lakes
rivers
glaciers
water table

A

glaciers

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13
Q

True or false

Groundwater migrates from areas of low pressure to areas of high pressure

A

false

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14
Q

Are records of seismic waves

seismograph

seismogram

time-travel graph

epigraph

A

Seismograms

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15
Q

A few sections of the San Andreas Fault exhibit a slow, gradual displacement known as_.

fault slump
fault creep

A

fault creep

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16
Q

True or false:

Tsunamis travel as a single wave across the ocean

A

False

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17
Q

Sun + Moon =

Spring Tide
Neap Tide

A

Spring Tide

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18
Q

Sun - Moon =

Spring Tide
Neap Tide

A

Neap Tide

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19
Q

Extra high tides caused by gravity from the sun and moon are called

Spring Tide
Neap Tide

A

Spring tides

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20
Q

Extra low tides caused when there is least difference between high tide and low tide are called

Spring Tide
Neap Tide

A

Neap tides

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21
Q

A scientific theory is a tentative or untested explanation that is proposed to explain scientific observations.

True

False
A

False

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22
Q

The ________ forms the relatively cool, brittle plates of plate tectonics.

asthenosphere

lithosphere
 	astrosphere
 	eosphere
A

lithosphere

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23
Q

According to the rock cycle, any type of rock (igneous, sedimentary, or metamorphic) may be transformed into another type of rock, given enough time.

True
False
A

True

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24
Q

In sedimentary rocks, lithification includes ________.

    compaction and cementation
 	cementation and weathering
 	compaction and transportation
 	crystallization and cooling
A

compaction and cementation

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25
Q

Internally, the Earth consists of spherical shells with different compositions and densities.

True
 	False
A

True

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26
Q

The ________ is not a part of the Earth’s physical environment.

solid Earth

astrosphere
 	hydrosphere
 	atmosphere
A

astrosphere

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27
Q

The asthenosphere ________.

is a subdivision of the outer core
 	is a zone of strong material
exists below a depth of 100 kilometers
 	exists below a depth of 700 kilometers
A

exists below a depth of 100

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28
Q

The asthenosphere is actually a part of the ________ of the Earth.

outer core
crust
inner core

mantle
A

mantle

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29
Q

The ________ division of the geologic time scale is an era of the Phanerozoic eon.

Paleocene

Paleozoic
 	Permian
    Proterozoic
A

Paleozoic

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30
Q

During the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, direct observations showed that a glacier in Switzerland flowed forward in the downhill direction while its snout (terminus) was retreating higher up the valley. Which of the following explains these observations in a rational, scientific way?

Cooler temperatures meant slower forward glacier flow resulting in snout retreat.
The glacial hypothesis was finally accepted as a scientific theory.
Rocky debris in the valley downhill from the snout was deposited by Noah

s flood.

The melting rate of ice in the glacier exceeded the rate at which new snow and ice were added to the glacier.
A

The melting rate of ice in the glacier exceeded the rate at which new snow and ice were added to the glacier.

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31
Q

The ________ is thought to be a liquid, metallic region in the Earth’s interior.

inner core
lithosphere
mantle

outer core
A

outer core

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32
Q

All of the following are possible steps of scientific investigation except for

  the collection of scientific facts through observation and measurement
assumption of conclusions without prior experimentation or observation
 the development of one or more working hypotheses or models to explain facts 
development of observations and experiments to test the hypotheses
A

assumption of conclusions without prior experimentation or observation the development of one or more working hypotheses or models to explain facts development of observations and experiments to test the hypotheses

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33
Q

The proposes that the bodies of our solar system formed at essentially the same time from a rotating cloud of
gases and dust.

Big Bang theory
Plate Tectonics theory
Nebular hypothesis
Heliocentric theory

A

Nebular hypothesis

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34
Q

The most prominent feature on the ocean floor are the

deep-ocean trenches
oceanic ridges
seamounts
lava plateaus

A

oceanic ridges

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35
Q

Seafloor spreading rates can be estimated if the geologic ages of the magnetic field reversals are independently
known.

True
False

A

False

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36
Q

Avery long-lived magma source located deep in the mantle is called a

magma welt
basalt spout
melt well
hot spot

A

hot spot

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37
Q

Linear, magnetic patterns associated with mid-ocean ridges are configured as

concentric circles about a rising plume of hot mantle rocks and magma
reversed magnetizations along the rift valleys and normal magnetizations along the ridge
normal and reversed magnetized strips roughly parallel to the ridge
normal and reversed magnetized strips roughly perpendicular to the ridge axis

A

normal and reversed magnetized strips roughly parallel to the ridge

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38
Q

Deep-oceanic trenches are most abundant around the rim of the _____ocean basin.

Atlantic
Indian
Arctic
Pacific

A

Pacific

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39
Q

Cooler, older, oceanic lithosphere sinks into the mantle at

subduction zones along convergent plate boundaries

transform fault zones along divergent plate boundaries

rift zones along mid-ocean ridges

sites of long-lived, hot spot volcanism in the ocean basins

A

subduction zones along convergent plate boundaries

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40
Q

Which one of the following most accurately describes the volcanoes of the Hawaiian Islands?

stratovolcanoes associated with subduction and a convergent plate boundary

shield volcanoes fed by a Long-Lived hot spot below the Pacific Lithospheric plate

shield volcanoes associated with a mid-Pacific ridge and spreading center

stratovolcanoes associated with a mid-Pacific transform fault

A

shield volcanoes fed by a Long-Lived hot spot below the Pacific Lithospheric plate

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41
Q

Which of the following statements apply to the asthenosphere, but not the lithosphere?

zone in the upper mantle that deforms by plastic flowage

cool, rigid Layer of crust and upper mantle that forms the tectonic plates

deforms mainly by brittle fracturing and faulting

partial melting of rising granitic plumes produces huge volumes of basaltic magma

A

zone in the upper mantle that deforms by plastic flowage

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42
Q

The volcanoes and deep valleys of east Africa are related to a

continental rift along which parts of the African continent are beginning to slowly separate

fault allowing Arabia to slip westward past east Africa and penetrate into Turkey

transform fault aligned with the Red Sea carrying the Arabian and African blocks in opposite directions

continental collision zone between Africa and the Zagros Mountains along the southern margin of Eurasia

A

continental rift along which parts of the African continent are beginning to slowly separate

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43
Q

Early results of the Deep Sea Drilling Project clearly justified the conclusion that

the oceans have not always contained most of Earth’s water

the ocean basins are relatively young; most ocean basin rocks and sediments are Cretaceous or younger in
age

Proterozoic rocks are found only as seamounts in the deepest parts of the ocean basins

the youngest sediments were deposited directly on the oldest seafloor basalts

A

the ocean basins are relatively young; most ocean basin rocks and sediments are Cretaceous or younger in
age

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44
Q

The Himalayan Mountains are the tectonic product of a collision between India and Eurasia that began in Eocene time and still continues.

True
False

A

True

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45
Q

New oceanic crust and lithosphere are formed at

divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of rhyolitic magma

convergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of rhyolitic magma

divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma

convergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma

A

divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma

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46
Q

An extensive, late Paleozoic glaciation affected southern India, southern Africa and southeastern South America.

True
False

A

True

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47
Q

In general, rocks of the continental crust are Less dense than rocks of the oceanic crust.

True
False

A

True

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48
Q

Which one of the following is an important fundamental assumption underlying the plate tectonic theory?

Earth’s magnetic field originates in the outer core.

Earth’s diameter has been essentially constant over time.

Radioactive decay slows down at the extreme pressures of the inner core.

Earth’s ocean basins are very old and stable features.

A

Earth’s diameter has been essentially constant over time.

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49
Q

Calcite and halite react with dilute acids to evolve carbon dioxide.

True
False

A

False

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50
Q

What mineral is the hardest known substance in nature?

silicate

native gold

diamond

muscovite

A

diamond

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51
Q

How do the electrons behave in a mineral with metallic bonding?

They are tightly bound to certain atoms and cannot readily move.

They can move relatively easily from atom to atom inside the mineral.

They react with protons to make neutrons in the outer valence shells.

They move to adjacent negative ions, forming positive ions.

A

They can move relatively easily from atom to atom inside the mineral.

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52
Q

Which of the following best characterizes ferromagnesian silicates?

They contain iron and magnetite, are black in color, and they have metallic lusters.

They are black to dark-green silicate minerals containing iron and magnesium.

They contain magnetite and ferroite, and they are clear to Light green.

They are mostly clear, colorless, and rich in the elements magnesium and ferrium.

A

They are black to dark-green silicate minerals containing iron and magnesium.

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53
Q

Nonmetallic minerals like quartz and gypsum have no industrial uses.

True
False

A

False

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54
Q

Which of the following best defines a mineral and a rock?

A rock has an orderly, repetitive, geometrical, internal arrangement of minerals; a mineral is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of rocks.

A mineral consists of its constituent atoms arranged in a geometrically repetitive structure; in a rock, the atoms are randomly bonded without any geometric pattern.

In a mineral the constituent atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of different mineral grains.

A rock consists of atoms bonded in a regular, geometrically predictable arrangement; a mineral is a consolidated aggregate of different rock particles.

A

In a mineral the constituent atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of different mineral grains.

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55
Q

Which carbonate mineral reacts readily with cool, dilute hydrochloric acid to produce visible bubbles of carbon dioxide gas?

calcite

quartz

dolomite

plagioclase

A

calcite

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56
Q

Which one of the following describes a mineral’s response to mechanical impact?

luster

cleavage

streak

crystal form

A

cleavage

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57
Q

Which of the following minerals is a silicate?

hematite

muscovite

calcite

halite

A

muscovite

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58
Q

Which of the following is correct for isotopes of the same element?

The atoms have different numbers of protons and the same number of neutrons.

The atoms have the same number of electrons and different numbers of protons.

The atoms have different numbers of neutrons and the same number of protons.

The atoms have different numbers of electrons but the same number of neutrons.

A

The atoms have different numbers of neutrons and the same number of protons.

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59
Q

In which type of chemical bonding are electrons shared between adjacent atoms?

ionic

subatomic

covalent

isotopic

A

covalent

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60
Q

Atoms of the same element, zinc for example, have the

same number of electrons in the nucleus

protons in the nucleus

neutrons in the outer nuclear shell

electrons in the valence bond level

A

protons in the nucleus

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61
Q

All silicate minerals contain which two elements?

iron, silicon

silicon, sodium

oxygen, carbon

silicon, oxygen

A

silicon, oxygen

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62
Q

Which one of the following is a typical product of weathering?

micas

ferromagnesians

feldspars

clays

A

clays

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63
Q

Which of the following has the highest specific gravity?

wood

water

gold

quartz

A

gold

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64
Q

A(n) texture represents a single, Long period of cooling and crystallization.

glassy

pyroclastic

aphanitic

phaneritic

A

phaneritic

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65
Q

Consider the Bowen’s reaction series. Which mineral would you expect to see as a phenocryst in a porphyritic basalt?

olivine

quartz

orthoclase

sodium-rich plagioclase

A

olivine

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66
Q

___ is thought to be common in the Earth’s mantle but rare in the crust?

Pumice

Granite

Pegmatite

Peridotite

A

Peridotite

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67
Q

A is an open cavity in a volcanic rock that was filled by a gas bubble when the Lava was still mainly Liquid.

porphyrocryst

vesicle

phenocryst

xenocryst

A

vesicle

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68
Q

Bowen’s reaction series predicts the sizes of the different mineral grains that grow from crystallizing magmas.
True
False

A

False

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69
Q

Peg matites are smaller volume, intrusive bodies with glassy textures.
True
False

A

False

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70
Q

WITH PICTURE

magma cools and consolidates without growth of mineral grains

A

Answer: Minerals do grow when magma cools and consolidates.

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71
Q

___ often contain gem-quality crystals of minerals such as beryl and tourmaline and high concentrations of
relatively rare elements such as Lithium, boron, and beryllium?

Welded tuff sheets

Basaltic lavas

Granitic pegmatites

Diorite plutons

A

Granitic pegmatites

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72
Q

Which of the following minerals crystallize early in Bowen’s reaction series?

biotite

quartz

olivine

muscovite

A

olivine

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73
Q

The sizes, shapes, and arrangements of mineral grains in an igneous rock are known as

silica content

texture

mineral content

Bowen’s reaction series

A

texture

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74
Q

Olivine and quartz commonly crystallize together from mafic or basaltic magmas.

True
False

A

False

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75
Q

___ is named fora prominent, volcanic mountain range in western South America.

Basalt

Andesite

Pegmatite

Peridotite

A

Andesite

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76
Q

Which of the following best describes an aphanitic texture?

The rock is crystalline; mineral grains are too small to be visible without a magnifying Lens or microscope.

The mineral grains have glassy textures.

The rock consists of broken, volcanic-rock and mineral fragments.

The rock is crystalline; mineral grains are of distinctly different sizes.

A

The rock is crystalline; mineral grains are too small to be visible without a magnifying Lens or microscope.

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77
Q

The last minerals to crystallize on Bowen’s Reaction Series result in igneous rocks with a___ composition.

felsic

intermediate

mafic

ultramafic

A

felsic

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78
Q

___ destroyed the city of St. Pierre, Martinique in 1902.

Mudflows

Basaltic Lava flows

Heavy ashfall

A nuee ardente

A

A nuee ardente

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79
Q

Basaltic Lavas are generally hotter and more viscous than andesite Lavas.

True
False

A

False

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80
Q

Which kind of volcanism is typical of mid-oceanic ridge systems?

explosive; composite cones

submarine; basaltic lava flows

fissure eruptions; flood basalts fields

explosive; rhyolitic, pyroclastic flows

A

submarine; basaltic lava flows

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81
Q

Which of the following best describes seamounts and islands of the deep ocean basins?

Huge granite bathoLiths intruded beneath the ocean floor.

Piles of basaltic Lava flows built up from the ocean floor by multiple, summit and flank eruptions.

Andesitic pyroclastic rocks submerged when the mountains sank below sea Level.

Domed gabbro intrusions and massive, submarine, rhyolitic, pyroclastic cones.

A

Piles of basaltic Lava flows built up from the ocean floor by multiple, summit and flank eruptions.

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82
Q

Which of the following is associated with deep mantle hot spots?
Vesuvius and the other volcanoes of Italy

the volcanoes of Hawaii and Quaternary activity in Yellowstone National Park

the very young cinder cones scattered across the southwestern United States

Mount St. Helens and other volcanoes of the Cascade Mountains

A

the volcanoes of Hawaii and Quaternary activity in Yellowstone National Park

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83
Q

The Columbia Plateau in Washington and Oregon is

a flood basalt plateau

a thick stack of welded-tuff layers

a caldera filled with rhyolite lava flows

a field of Large stratovolcanoes

A

a flood basalt plateau

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84
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the big Hawaiian volcanoes?

They Lie directly above a transform plate boundary that cuts deeply into the mantle.

They lie directly above an active subduction zone where the Pacific plate is sinking into the mantle.

They Lie along the crest of the East Pacific Rise, a mid-ocean ridge or spreading center.

They are situated in the interior of a Large, Pacific plate above a hot spot deep in the mantle.

A

They are situated in the interior of a Large, Pacific plate above a hot spot deep in the mantle.

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85
Q

The recent (geologically) volcanic activity in Yellowstone National Park is

related to plate subduction

related to a divergent plate boundary

related to a transform plate boundary

related to intraplate, hot spot volcanism

A

related to intraplate, hot spot volcanism

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86
Q

Which kind of eruptive activity is most Likely to be highly explosive?

Lava flows from a Large shield volcano on an oceanic island

fissure eruptions feeding Lava to flood basalt accumulations

lava flows from a large cinder cone complex

eruptions of big, continental margin, composite cones or stratovolcanoes

lava flows from a large cinder cone complex

A

eruptions of big, continental margin, composite cones or stratovolcanoes

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87
Q

Which one of the following best describes volcanism in the Cascade Range, northwestern United States?

related to a mantle hot spot

related to plate subduction

related to a mid-oceanic ridge system

related to deep, transform faults

A

related to plate subduction

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88
Q

The average composition of rocks comprising a large composite cone or stratovolcano is similar to a(n) magma.

basaltic

ultramafic

andesitic

rhyolitic

A

andesitic

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89
Q

Which statement about the May, 1980, eruption of Mount St. Helens is false?

During the eruptive period, the mountain peak was substantially built up by new lava flows and pyrocLastic debris.

Plumes of ash rose high into the atmosphere during the major eruptive events.

Mudflows accompanied the major eruptive events.

The most powerful explosive event was preceded by a massive landslide.

A

During the eruptive period, the mountain peak was substantially built up by new lava flows and pyrocLastic debris.

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90
Q

Pockets of magmas can be formed by the melting of deep continental crust heated by the intrusion of other magmas. Which of the following correctly describes this process?

Intrusion of basaltic magma causes deep crustal rocks to melt, producing andesitic or rhyoLitic magmas.

Intruded rhyolite magma causes basalt magma to form by melting of granite.

Intrusion of diorite magma causes basalt magma to melt from peridotite.

ALL of these correctly describe the process.

A

Intrusion of basaltic magma causes deep crustal rocks to melt, producing andesitic or rhyoLitic magmas.

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91
Q

Which region has the greatest concentration of currently active volcanoes?

the coastal plain of western Africa

European Russia and Siberia

the area surrounding the Red Sea

the circum-Pacific area

A

the circum-Pacific area

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92
Q

What volcanic events formed Crater Lake, Oregon? When did they take place?

A powerful explosion blew away the top of a stratovolcano; 10 million years ago.

The crater of a Large, extinct cinder cone filled with water; 5 million years ago.

Landslides and volcanic mudfLows dammed the Mazama River; 500 years ago.

CaLdera collapse followed major ash and pyroclastic-flow eruptions; 6000 years ago.

A

CaLdera collapse followed major ash and pyroclastic-flow eruptions; 6000 years ago.

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93
Q

Clay minerals formed from gabbro or diorite bedrock illustrate which kind of weathering?

chemical

proactive

syntropical

mechanical

A

chemical

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94
Q

What two chemical constituents cannot form by chemical weathering of the feldspar minerals?

soluble sodium and potassium bicarbonates

insoluble iron oxides and soluble magnesium
bicarbonates

silica and insoluble clay minerals

silica and soluble calcium bicarbonate

A

insoluble iron oxides and soluble magnesium

bicarbonates

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95
Q

The solum or true soil includes all horizons above the C-horizon.

True
False

A

True

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96
Q

Which of the following statements concerning humus is not true?

Humus is typically found above the B soil horizon.

Humus consists of decaying and partly decayed leaves and other plant materials.

Humus is readily leached from the B horizon in weakly acidic, soil solutions.

Humus is less abundant in wet, tropical, forested areas than in temperate, forested areas.

A

Humus is readily leached from the B horizon in weakly acidic, soil solutions.

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97
Q

Like most other liquids, water decreases in volume when it freezes.

True
False

A

False

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98
Q

What two factors speed up rates of chemical reaction and weathering in rocks and soils?

low temperatures; very dry

low temperatures; very moist

high temperatures; very dry

warm temperatures; very moist

A

warm temperatures; very moist

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99
Q

Assume that water filling a crack in a rock undergoes cycles of freezing and melting. Which of the following statement is true?

Water expands as it melts, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart.

Water shrinks as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be drawn closer together.

Water expands as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart.

Water shrinks as it melts, causing the crack walls to be pulled closer together.

A

Water expands as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart.

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100
Q

In the Rocky Mountain region of the United States, north-facing slopes (downhill direction is toward the north) are typically more moist and heavily forested than south-facing slopes. Why?

North-facing slopes receive more sunlight in the summer; snow melts faster and more soil moisture is available for the trees.

South-facing slopes receive more moisture and sunlight; rock weathering is slower.

North-facing slopes receive about the same amount of precipitation as south-facing slopes; less moisture evaporates from north-facing slopes.

South-facing slopes receive less moisture, yet rock weathering is faster.

A

North-facing slopes receive about the same amount of precipitation as south-facing slopes; less moisture evaporates from north-facing slopes.

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101
Q

Lateritic soils form under what climatic conditions?

warm and moist as in a wet, tropical forest

cool and relatively dry as in the northern Great Plains of the United States

hot and dry as in the desert regions of North Africa and Arabia

moist and temperate as in the northeastern United States

A

warm and moist as in a wet, tropical forest

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102
Q

Clay minerals, silica (Si02), and dissolved potassium bicarbonate in the soil water are products of which process?

chemical weathering of olivine and plagioclase feldspar

mechanical weathering of granite and rhyolite

chemical weathering of orthoclase feldspar

differential mechanical weathering of micas

A

chemical weathering of orthoclase feldspar

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103
Q

Sheeting fractures and exfoliation domes commonly develop in areas with soft, highly fractured bedrock.

True
False

A

True

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104
Q

In which area would weathering by frost wedging probably be most effective?

in a moist, tropical forest

in cool high desert areas

where the subsoil is permanently frozen

in moist, temperate climates

A

in moist, temperate climates

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105
Q

Which term describes a soil formed by weathering of the underlying bedrock?

transformational

residual

relict

transported

A

residual

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106
Q

What mineral particles are the dominant coloring agents in reddish, brownish, and yellowish soils?

soluble potassium and sodium bicarbonates

humus and calcium carbonate

very fine-sized, silica and calcite particles

dust-sized grains of iron oxides

A

dust-sized grains of iron oxides

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107
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes erosion?

Erosion is the disintegration and decomposition of rocks and minerals at the surface.

Erosion is the movement of weathered rock and regolith toward the base of a slope.

Erosion is the process by which weathered rock and mineral particles are removed from one area and transported elsewhere.

Erosion is the combined processes of Leaching, eluviation, and mass wasting.

A

Erosion is the process by which weathered rock and mineral particles are removed from one area and transported elsewhere.

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108
Q

Which of the following sedimentary features can each be used to determine paleocurrent directions?

mud cracks and ripple marks

ripple marks and cross stratification

fossils and mud cracks

grain size sorting and ripple marks

A

ripple marks and cross stratification

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109
Q

Detrital sedimentary rocks have clastic textures.

True
False

A

True

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110
Q

Graywacke sandstones are typically better sorted than sandstones lithified from ancient beach sands.

True
False

A

False

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111
Q

___ are further concentrated in a residual brine after NaCL is crystallized.

Iron, sodium, and chlorine

Magnesium, calcium, and sulfur

Calcium, sulfur, and titanium

Potassium, magnesium, and bromine

A

Potassium, magnesium, and bromine

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112
Q

___ cement produces bright-red and yellow colors in some sandstone.

Clay

Calcite

Quartz

Iron oxide

A

Iron oxide

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113
Q

A feldspar-rich sandstone is called an arkose.

True
False

A

True

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114
Q

Sedimentary rocks account for about what percentage of the Earth’s outermost 10 kilometers of rock (first percentage). Also, what percentage of the Earth’s continental area is covered by sedimentary rocks (second percentage)?

5% &; 75%

3.5% &; 100%

65% &; 10%

85% &; 100%

A

5% & 75%

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115
Q

Clay and muddy sediments Lithify to form shales and mudstones.

True
False

A

True

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116
Q

What is the chemical formula for dolomite, the major mineral in doLostones?

NaCl

ca5o4 42H20

Si02

CaMg(CO3)2

A

CaMg(CO3)2

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117
Q

Which type of sediment undergoes the most compaction as it lithifies to sedimentary rocks?

marine mud

desert dune sand

reef limestone

coarse gravel

A

marine mud

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118
Q

Oolitic limestone is most Likely to form in what type of depositional environment?

quiet, muddy, Lagoons and bays

shallow, clear, marine waters with vigorous current activity

deep, marine waters below most wave action

acidic, organic-rich waters in freshwater swamps and bogs

A

shallow, clear, marine waters with vigorous current activity

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119
Q

Peat is thought to be the original material from which coals are formed.

True
False

A

True

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120
Q

Flint, chert, and jasper are microcrystalline forms of

quartz; (Si02)

hematite (Fe203)

halite (NaCL)

calcite (CaCO3)

A

quartz; (Si02)

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121
Q

a common mineral found in igneous rocks, is the most abundant mineral in detrital sedimentary rocks.

Calcite

Orthoclase

Quartz

B iotite

A

Quartz

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122
Q

___ sandstone contains abundant feldspar, suggesting that the sand was derived by weathering and erosion of
granitic bedrock.

Quartz-rich

Lignitic

Arkosic

Oolitic

A

Arkosic

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123
Q

Which of the following rocks changes from shale in low-grade metamorphic environments?

fault breccia

migmatite

slate

foliated hornfels

A

migmatite

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124
Q

According to the chart in the text, which rock has the finest grain size?

slate

gneiss

marbLe

phyllite

A

slate

125
Q

High-grade, regional metamorphism produces significant and recognizable changes in the textures and mineral compositions of rocks.

True
False

A

True

126
Q

What major change occurs during metamorphism of Limestone to marble?

CaLcite grains grow Larger and increase in size.

CLays crystaLLize to micas, forming a highly foliated, mica-rich rock.

Limestone grains react to form quartz and feldspars.

Calcite grains are dissolved away leaving only marble crystals.

A

CaLcite grains grow Larger and increase in size.

127
Q

___ is thought to form by partial melting and in situ crystallization of the melted portion.

Magmatite

Magnetite

Migmatite

Megatite

A

Migmatite

128
Q

___ is characterized by the segregation of light- and dark-colored mineraLs into thin layers or bands.

Garnet hornfels

Granitic gneiss

SLate

Quartzite

A

Granitic gneiss

129
Q

___ is a strong, parallel alignment of coarse mica flakes and/or of different mineral bands in a metamorphic rock.

Rock cleavage

Foliation

Stress streaking

Marbleizing

A

Foliation

130
Q

Which of the following is not necessary for the formation of metamorphic rock?

pressure

heat

calcium-rich or liquids

chemically active Liquids

A

calcium-rich or liquids

131
Q

Calcite is the main mineral constituent of the sedimentary rock limestone and of the metamorphic rock marble.

True
False

A

True

132
Q

Three major factors involved in metamorphism are elevated temperature, elevated pressure, and the chemical action of hot fluids.

True
False

A

True

133
Q

What foliated, metamorphic rock is texturally intermediate between slate and schist?

fault breccia

phyllite

quartzite

gneiss

A

phyllite

134
Q

Hornfels are metamorphic rocks produced at great depths and high temperatures associated with regional metamorphism.

True
False

A

False

135
Q

___ forms from the metamorphism of limestone or
dolostone.

Migmatite

Amphibolite

Marble

Quartzite

A

Marble

136
Q

Partial melting is an important process in the formation of migmatites.

True
False

A

True

137
Q

Which of the following would exhibit sheared and mechanically fragmented rocks?

fault movements at shallow depths

intense compression in a deep-seated, regional
metamorphic zone

heating of shales and mudstones near a pluton

regional metamorphism of pyroclastic volcanic rocks

A

fault movements at shallow depths

138
Q

When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source. The source is also referred to as the

inertial point

epicenter

focus

seismic zone

A

focus

139
Q

The distance between a seismological recording station and the earthquake source is determined from the

earthquake magnitude

intensity of the earthquake

length of the seismic record

arrival times of P and S waves

A

arrival times of P and S waves

140
Q

The asthenosphere is Located

within the crust

in the upper mantle

between the mantle and outer core

within the outer core

A

in the upper mantle

141
Q

Which one of the following best characterizes tsunamis?

They cause the land to ripple and oscillate.

They are faster than seismic surface waves.

They have relatively small amplitudes compared to their very Long wavelengths.

They are easily seen at sea but are Lost in the swell and breaking waves along a coast.

A

They have relatively small amplitudes compared to their very Long wavelengths.

142
Q

The elastic rebound theory for the origin of earthquakes was first proposed by___following the ___ earthquake.

Reid; 1906, San Francisco

Giuseppe; 1925, Pizza Lake

Richter; 1989, Loma Prieta

Mohorovicic; 1964, Anchorage

A

Reid; 1906, San Francisco

143
Q

The record of an earthquake obtained from a seismic instrument is a(n)

seismograph

seismogram

time-travel graph

epigraph

A

seismogram

144
Q

The average composition of the oceanic crust is thought to approximate that of

granite

basalt

peridotite

iron

A

basalt

145
Q

Earthquakes result from the sudden release of elastic strain energy previously stored in rocks surrounding a zone of fault movement.

True
False

A

True

146
Q

The___ earthquake was accompanied by extensive fire damage.

Anchorage, 1964

San Francisco, 1906

Mexico City, 1985

Yerevan, Armenia, 1988

A

San Francisco, 1906

147
Q

The position on Earth’s surface directly above the earthquake source is called the

epicenter

inertial point

focus

seismic zone

A

epicenter

148
Q

The Richter earthquake magnitude scale is based on the total amount of energy released by the earthquake.

True
False

A

True

149
Q

Major earthquakes are often followed by somewhat smaller events known as

aftershocks

foreshocks

tremors

hyposhocks

A

aftershocks

150
Q

Oceanic crust is mainly basaltic in composition; the mantle is more like the igneous rock peridotite in chemical composition.

True
False

A

True

151
Q

___ refers to the tendency for a foundation material to Lose its internal cohesion and fail mechanically during
earthquake shaking.

Slurrying

Liquefaction

Motion slip

Seismoflowage

A

Liquefaction

152
Q

The magnitude scale is a measure of the energy reLeased. It does not directly measure the extent of building damage.

Gutenberg

Reid

Mercalli

Richter

A

Richter

153
Q

Geologically, ___ are actually submerged parts of the continents.

coastal guyots

continental shelves

continental trenches

abyssal plains

A

continental shelves

154
Q

Where in the oceans are biological communities thriving without sunlight?

in shallow water, coral reefs

in muds of deep-ocean trenches

around seafloor, hot spring vents

around fissure vents for flood basalts

A

around seafloor, hot spring vents

155
Q

Oceans cover approximately of Earth’s surface area?

10%

90%

50%

70%

A

70%

156
Q

The continental rise is located

at the top of a mid-ocean ridge

at the top of the continental slope

between an abyssal plain and continental slope

at the seaward edge of a deep ocean trench

A

at the seaward edge of a deep ocean trench

157
Q

The Lies at the base of the continental slope.

offshore shelf

off-slope reef

continental rift

continental rise

A

continental rise

158
Q

___ is (are) not part of an ophiolite complex.

Basaltic Lavas and pillow Lavas

Residual, unmelted, crustal lithosphere

Intrusive, coarse-grained gabbro

Steeply inclined, basaltic dikes

A

Residual, unmelted, crustal lithosphere

159
Q

The average height of the continents above sea Level is greater than the average depth of the ocean basins below sea level.

true
false

A

false

160
Q

Which of the following is not true of deep ocean trenches?

They are Long and narrow depressions.

They are sites where plates plunge back into the mantle.

They are geologically very stable.

They may act as sediment traps.

A

They are geologically very stable.

161
Q

Geologically, what is the best way to explain the thousands of feet of coral limestone beneath most atolls?
Sea level has fallen thousands of feet since the reef began to grow.

An eroded volcanic seamount rose thousands of feet after the limestone formed.

The eroded volcano slowly sank as sea level remained steady or rose gradually.

The volcano never reached the surface, allowing a very thick cap of coral Limestones to accumulate.

A

The volcano never reached the surface, allowing a very thick cap of coral Limestones to accumulate.

162
Q

The west coast of South America and the east coast of North America have very different continental margins.

True
False

A

True

163
Q

_____proposed a correct theory of how atolls formed.

Isaac Newton

Charles Darwin

James Hutton

Charles Lyell

A

Charles Darwin

164
Q

Submarine canyons form the deepest parts of the ocean basins.

True
False

A

False

165
Q

An atoll is a low, coral reef island typically surrounding an interior lagoon.

True
False

A

True

166
Q

Submarine canyons found on the continental slope and rise are believed to have been created

by rivers during the ice age

by faulting

because of a plate plunging into the mantle

none of these

A

none of these

167
Q

___ is the oceanward edge of a continental shelf.

The deepest portion of a deep-ocean trench

The top of the abyssal plain

The base of the continental rise

The top of the continental slope

A

The top of the continental slope

168
Q

The are a geologically old mountain range folded and deformed during the Paleozoic.

Cascades in the northwestern United States

Rockies in the western United States

Appalachians in the eastern United States

Alps in Europe

A

Appalachians in the eastern United States

169
Q

The mountains and valleys of the Basin and Range Province of the western United States formed in response to

strike-slip faulting and hanging wall block uplifts

reverse faults and large displacement, thrust faulting

tensional stresses and normal-fault movements

normal faulting and horizontal compression

A

tensional stresses and normal-fault movements

170
Q

A graben is characterized by

a hanging wall block that has moved up between two reverse faults

a footwall block that has moved up between two normal faults

a hanging wall block that has moved down between two normal faults

a footwalL block that has moved down between two reverse faults

A

a hanging wall block that has moved down between two normal faults

171
Q

The Himalayan Mountains and Tibetan Plateau are still rising today as Eurasia slides beneath the Indian subcontinent.

True
False

A

False

172
Q

Fractures in rock that have not involved any fault slippage are called joints.

True
False

A

True

173
Q

In a normal fault

the hanging wall block below an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block

the footwaLL block below an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block

the hanging wall block above an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block

the footwall block above an inclined fault plane moves upward relative to the other block

A

the hanging wall block above an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block

174
Q

In thrust faulting,

grabens develop on the footwall block

the crust is shortened and thickened

horizontal, tensional stresses drive the deformation

the hanging wall block slips downward along the thrust fault

A

the crust is shortened and thickened

175
Q

Folded limestones that occur high in the Himalayas were originally deposited as sediments in a

marine basin between India and Eurasia

Cenozoic fault basin between Africa and Arabia

deep ocean trench along the southern margin of India

Late Paleozoic syncline north of the Tibetan Plateau

A

marine basin between India and Eurasia

176
Q

The Black Hills of South Dakota are a good example of a(n)

anticline

syncline

basin

dome

A

dome

177
Q

A(n)___ fault has little or no vertical movements of the two blocks.

stick slip

oblique slip

strike slip

dip slip

A

strike slip

178
Q

Accretionary wedges develop along subduction zones where sediments and other rocks are scraped off a descending plate and piled against the leading edge of the overriding plate.

True
False

A

True

179
Q

Which one of the following is an example of an isostatic movement?

stream downcutting following a drop in sea Level

arching of strata at the center of a dome

numerous aftershocks associated with deep-focus earthquakes

uplift of areas recently covered by thick, continental ice sheets

A

uplift of areas recently covered by thick, continental ice sheets

180
Q

Large circular downwarped structures are called

anticlines

synclines

basins

domes

A

basins

181
Q

A thrust fault is best described as

a steeply inclined, oblique-slip fault

a low-angle, reverse fault

a vertical, normal fault

a near vertical, strike-slip fault

A

a low-angle, reverse fault

182
Q

Tensional forces normally cause which one of the following?

strike-slip faults

reverse faults

normal faults

thrust faults

A

normal faults

183
Q

Which one of the following materials has the maximum, sustainable, slope angle, as determined by the angle of
repose?

dry silt

moist, sandy soil with a clay-rich matrix

dry sand

moist, clay-rich shale layers

A

dry sand

184
Q

Earthflows and slumps generally involve movement of unconsolidated or weakly consolidated soil and regolith.

True
False

A

True

185
Q

A scarp is the exposed portion of the rupture surface beneath a slump block.

True
False

A

True

186
Q

Which of the following statements concerning mudflows is not true?

Mudflows may be caused by heavy rains or melting snow.

In hilly areas, mudflows move down the canyons and stream valleys.

Mudflows deposit talus slopes.

Mudflows can move and carry very Large boulders and other coarse debris.

A

Mudflows deposit talus slopes.

187
Q

How do freezing, thawing, wetting, and drying contribute to soil creep?

The soil becomes much weaker when dry and frozen.

Gravity exerts a much stronger force when the soil is wet and thawed.

The soil expands and contracts, Lifting particles and dropping them a slight distance downslope.

Eventually, these cause the soil and regolith to suddenly slide down the slope.

A

The soil expands and contracts, Lifting particles and dropping them a slight distance downslope.

188
Q

___denotes the exposed, crescent-shaped rupture surface at the head of a slump.

Scoop

Sole

Toe

Scarp

A

Scarp

189
Q

Consider a steep highway cut made by removing slightly weathered to fresh, fractured, granite bedrock. Which of the following situations is most stable against rocksLides?

one set of widely spaced, sub-horizontal fractures

two sets of fractures, one inclined toward the road cut and the other away

A two sets of fractures, one widely spaced and sub-horizontal, the other inclined away from the highway cut

one set of widely spaced fractures inclined towards the road cut

A

one set of widely spaced, sub-horizontal fractures

190
Q

A triggering mechanism, such as heavy rains or an earthquake, are necessary for mass wasting to occur.

True
False

A

False

191
Q

A geologist wants to Locate a horizontal coal bed on a soil-covered slope where soil creep is active. A distinctive sandstone bed underlies the coal bed. On the basis of weathered sandstone fragments in the soil, where is the coal bed?

just below the lowest piece of sandstone seen in the soil

just above the highest piece of sandstone seen in the soil

just below the highest piece of sandstone seen in the soil

just above the lowest piece of sandstone seen in the soil

A

just above the highest piece of sandstone seen in the soil

192
Q

The steepest, stable, slope angle possible in unconsolidated, granular materials like sand and gravel is called the angle of retention.

True
False

A

False

193
Q

As an erosional process, how is mass wasting unique from wind, water, and ice?

Mass wasting affects particles of aLL sizes whereas the others affect only smaller particles.

Mass wasting does not require a transporting medium.

Mass wasting affects much Larger geographic areas than does wind, water, and ice.

All of these make mass wasting unique compared to wind, water, and ice.

A

Mass wasting does not require a transporting medium.

194
Q

Slump describes the very sLow, downhiLL movement of soil and regoLith.

True
False

A

False

195
Q

___ involves movement on a zone of compressed air.

A slump

A mudflow

A rock avalanche

Soil creep

A

A rock avalanche

196
Q

How do the strength and cohesion of clay-rich regolith or soil change with the addition of water?

Water does not affect the cohesion but Lowers the strength.

Water reduces the strength of cLays but raises the cohesion of the soil.

Water increases the strength and cohesion.

Water lowers the strength and cohesion.

A

Water lowers the strength and cohesion.

197
Q

Lahars are essentially mudflows associated with volcanoes and volcanism.

True
False

A

True

198
Q

___ are components of the hydrologic cycle that release water vapor directly to the atmosphere.

Runoff and infiltration

Evaporation and transpiration

Precipitation and runoff

Discharge and transportation

A

Evaporation and transpiration

199
Q

With the passage of time, deposition and erosion gradually shorten the channel length of a meander loop.

True
false

A

false

200
Q

The lowest base level for most streams is sea Level.

True
False

A

True

201
Q

In the absence of cutoff, how does a river meander Loop behave over time?

The gradient is raised as the loop lengthens, and the channel migrates toward the cut or inner bank of the Loop.

The gradient is raised as the loop shortens, and the channel migrates away from the cut or outer bank of the loop.

The gradient is Lowered as the channel Lengthens and migrates toward the cut or outer bank of the Loop.

The gradient is lowered as the Loop shortens, and the channel migrates toward the cut or inner bank of the loop.

A

The gradient is Lowered as the channel Lengthens and migrates toward the cut or outer bank of the Loop.

202
Q

Which one of the following does not apply to stream turbulence and average velocity?

channel shape; bed roughness

Laminar flow; dissolved load

discharge; stream gradient

stream gradient; channel roughness

A

Laminar flow; dissolved load

203
Q

___ are characteristics of downcutting streams and a youthful stage of vaLLey evolution.

Rapids and lots of whitewater

Wide floodplains
U-shaped, cross-vaLLey profiles

Meandering channels and natural levees

A

Rapids and lots of whitewater

204
Q

A___ drainage pattern is common in the Appalachian Valley and Ridge Province.

dendritic

polygonal

circular

trellis

A

trellis

205
Q

___make up the suspended loads of most rivers and streams.

Dissolved ions and sand

Dissolved salts

Silt and clay-sized, detrital grains

Sand and gravel that move during floods

A

Silt and clay-sized, detrital grains

206
Q

What is the drop in water surface elevation divided by the distance the water flows?

stream discharge

hydraulic capacity

hydrologic resistance

stream gradient

A

stream gradient

207
Q

Foreset beds are part of a deltaic, depositional sequence.

True
False

A

True

208
Q

___ are characteristics found in all good aquifers.

High porosity and high permeability

Low permeability and high potability

High potability and high portability

Low porosity and low permeability

A

High porosity and high permeability

209
Q

Permeability is the physical force that pushes water below the water table through a porous, rock material.

True
False

A

False

210
Q

The aerated zone

Lies above the water table

pore spaces are filled with water

is a well-oxygenated, shallow aquifer

lies below the capillary fringe zone

A

lies below the capillary fringe zone

211
Q

The water table is a surface separating the saturated and unsaturated zones.

True
False

A

True

212
Q

For unconfined aquifers, what hydrologic factor is approximated by the slope of the water table?

porosity head

hydro competency

affluent decline

hydraulic gradient

A

hydraulic gradient

213
Q

___ are specific features of karst topography.

Streams flowing into depressions and continuing underground

Perched water table springs on hillsides

Numerous artesian wells in a given area Perennial,

influent streams fed by Large springs

A

Streams flowing into depressions and continuing underground

214
Q

___ is the volume of voids or open space in a rock or unconsolidated material.

Permeability

Space yield

Porosity

Saturation index

A

Porosity

215
Q

In general, contaminated groundwater will be naturally cleaned faster by circulation through porous and permeable sands than by circulation through fractured, crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks.

True
False

A

True

216
Q

Which of the following best describes how geysers erupt?

Water suddenly boils in disconnected voids and cracks above the water table, causing the aquifer to explosively fragment.

Water sLowLy boils in a network of vertical cracks above the water table, sending up a plume of steam and hot water.

Water below the water table sLowLy boils in a vertical crack or natural conduit, causing a plume of condensed water vapor to rise above the vent.

With a slight reduction in pressure, water in a saturated, natural conduit suddenly boils, sending a plume of steam and hot water into the air above the vent.

A

With a slight reduction in pressure, water in a saturated, natural conduit suddenly boils, sending a plume of steam and hot water into the air above the vent.

217
Q

A disappearing (sinking) creek is

an influent stream in a karst area

a stream that downcuts below the water table

a creek that originates as a large spring flowing from a cave

a small creek flowing downslope to the top of a perched water table

A

an influent stream in a karst area

218
Q

After ice sheets and glaciers,___ contain(s) the next highest percentage of Earth’s freshwater.

the atmosphere

lakes and rivers

groundwater

rocks and minerals

A

groundwater

219
Q

_____controls the ease (or difficulty) of groundwater transmission through a porous material.

Potability

Portability

Pernneosity

Permeability

A

Permeability

220
Q

Speleothems generally form below the water table by water dripping from the roofs of caverns.

True
False

A

False

221
Q

Lowering of the water table around a pumping well results in a cone of infiltration.

True
False

A

False

222
Q

Which of the following describes the configuration of an unconfined water table around a pumping well?

depressional withdrawal

upside-down siphon

cone of depression

inverted cone head

A

cone of depression

223
Q

Which one of the following could not have significantly affected climatic variations and advances and retreats of ice sheets during the Pleistocene epoch?

movements of Earth’s tectonic plates

variations in the Sun’s energy output

precession of Earth’s orbit

wobbling of Earth’s rotational axis

A

movements of Earth’s tectonic plates

224
Q

Melting and evaporation are two forms of ablative calving.

True
False

A

False

225
Q

Rapid surge movements of the Earth’s tectonic plates offer a convincing explanation for the advances and retreats of the Pleistocene ice sheets.

True
False

A

False

226
Q

Eccentricity, obliquity, and precession are three factors involved in the Milankovitch astronomical explanation of why the Pleistocene continental ice sheets alternately grew and shrank in size.

True
False

A

True

227
Q

The recessional moraine is the Largest of many terminal moraines Laid down by a retreating glacier.

True
False

A

False

228
Q

Surges in glacial movement are probably related to unusually fast rates of basal sliding.

True
False

A

True

229
Q

The great, Southern Hemisphere glaciation that affected parts of Africa, South America, India, Australia, and Antarctica occurred

in late Paleozoic time

in Late Proterozoic time

in early Cenozoic time

in middle Mesozoic time

A

in late Paleozoic time

230
Q

The downstream end or snout of a glacier advances over periods of time during which ablation exceeds accumulation.

True
False

A

False

231
Q

A(n) is likely to host a waterfall or steep rapids today.

outwash plain

Hanging Valley

striated drumlin

horn peak

A

Hanging Valley

232
Q

Which one of the following prominent Landforms, Located from the Wasatch Range, Utah, westward to the Sierra Nevada, California, formed during the Pleistocene glacial episodes?

terminal moraines of continental ice sheets that moved south from Canada

old shorelines of large, pluvial lakes

erosional features produced by continental glaciation

subaerial deltas submerged by the post-glacial rise in sea level

A

old shorelines of large, pluvial lakes

233
Q

What type of moraine is formed by the merging of two Lateral moraines at a junction of two valley glaciers?

medial

recessional

ground

kettle

A

medial

234
Q

A drumlin is a

smooth, tapering ridge of till; formed and shaped beneath a continental ice sheet

bowl-shaped depression eroded Largely by frost action and glacial plucking

till mound of outwash deposited by meltwater streams at the snout of a glacier

smooth, striated, bedrock ridge shaped and polished by a glacier

A

smooth, tapering ridge of till; formed and shaped beneath a continental ice sheet

235
Q

___ are both deposited by meltwater streams.

Terminal moraines and cirques

Outwash plains and valley trains

Valley moraines and ice sheet trains

Recessional kettles and erratics

A

Outwash plains and valley trains

236
Q

A is a glacier-cut valley that partly flooded as sea level rose.

till crevasse

fiord

hanging cirque

kettle trough

A

fiord

237
Q

Which is the only continent without glaciers?

Africa

Australia

South America

Europe

A

Australia

238
Q

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Alluvial fans typically rim desert valleys; playas form in the lowest, interior parts of the valleys.

Inselbergs are low, circular depressions on gently sloping pediments and bajadas.

Playas are typically covered with gravel-sized desert pavement and loess deposits.

Saline sediments and evaporites are common in inselbergs and pediments of desert landscapes.

A

Alluvial fans typically rim desert valleys; playas form in the lowest, interior parts of the valleys.

239
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?

Desert landscapes are monotonous, relatively flat areas covered to various depths with sand.

Deserts and dry lands are concentrated in areas of ascending air masses and relatively low atmospheric pressures.

Despite infrequent rainfalls, erosional and depositional features of running water are important in desert landscapes.

Rainshadow deserts occur where air masses descend after first having risen to cross a mountain range.

A

Despite infrequent rainfalls, erosional and depositional features of running water are important in desert landscapes.

240
Q

Which one of the following is a low-latitude desert characterized by high atmospheric pressures and descending air masses (not rain shadow deserts).

Sahara Desert; northern Africa

Atacama Desert in Chile, South America

Gobi Desert, China and Mongolia

desert valleys of the Great Basin, United States

A

Sahara Desert; northern Africa

241
Q

Which one of the following statements about sand dunes is correct?
A dune migrates in the direction of inclination of the slip face.

The more gently sloping surface is the leeward slope of the dune.

Sand is blown up the slip face and rolls down the more gently sloping flank of the dune.

In a sand dune, the more gently inclined strata lie parallel to the slip face.

A

A dune migrates in the direction of inclination of the slip face.

242
Q

Loess deposits in the central United States ________.

blew in from the dry areas in the Great Plains and southwestern desert areas

originated as rock flour in Pleistocene glacial streams and rivers

accumulated from flooding of the Mississippi River

were originally deposited as barchanoid dunes and later redeposited by glaciers

A

originated as rock flour in Pleistocene glacial streams and rivers

243
Q

Bajadas develop from coalescence of alluvial fans along fronts of mountain ranges in arid lands.

True
 	False
A

True

244
Q

Desertification has been particularly well documented over the past 50 years in ________.

the Empty Quarter of the Arabian Peninsula

the Sahel along the southern margin of the Sahara Desert

the Dust Bowl states of the Great Plains

the steppe lands of southern Russia, Ukraine, and Kazakhstan

A

the Sahel along the southern margin of the Sahara Desert

245
Q

What mature, desert landscape feature consists of coalesced alluvial fans?

balda

bajada

bahia

baja

A

bajada

246
Q

Loess consists mainly of silt-sized particles.

True
False

A

True

247
Q

How are sand grains transported by the wind?

high in the moving air column as suspended load

by saltation in the first few meters above the land surface

by deflation of abraded desert pavement

by being picked up in swirling dust clouds and carried to distant blowouts

A

by saltation in the first few meters above the land surface

248
Q

How is desert pavement formed?

Deflation and sheet wash remove fine-sized materials leaving coarse, weathered, rock fragments concentrated at the surface.

Blowing wind removes fine-size soil particles; coarser particles abrades to sand size.

Running water deposits gravel and sand over the finer-sized soil particles.

Intense chemical weathering removes the sand- and silt-sized particles, leaving coarse rock debris covering the land surface.

A

Deflation and sheet wash remove fine-sized materials leaving coarse, weathered, rock fragments concentrated at the surface.

249
Q

Windblown loess, like sand, typically accumulates as mound-like dunes.

True
False

A

False

250
Q

Tidal flats are submerged during ebb tide.

True
False

A

False

251
Q

Fetch refers to ________.

the beachfront area where rapid erosion is taking place

a large expanse of open water over which the wind blows and generates waves

the rotational movements of water particles beneath a passing surface wave

ocean currents moving parallel to the beach

A

a large expanse of open water over which the wind blows and generates waves

252
Q

A baymouth bar is a manmade feature designed to control wave erosion.

True
False

A

False

253
Q

The Gulf Coast lacks barrier islands.

True
False

A

False

254
Q

The zigzag movement of sand grains along a beach is ________.

caused by obliquely breaking waves

called beach drift

very unusual and seldom occurs

both caused by obliquely breaking waves and called beach drift

A

both caused by obliquely breaking waves and called beach drift

255
Q

Groins are constructed for the purpose of maintaining or widening beaches that are losing sand.

True
False

A

True

256
Q

Fetch is ________.

a method of shoreline erosion control

the distance between the trough of a wave and the still water level

the circular pattern made by water particles when a wave passes

none of these

A

none of these

257
Q
Which one of the following is a landform created by wave erosion?
 	spit
 	estuary
 	tombolo
	sea arch
A

sea arch

258
Q
Which of the following is designed to prevent or retard shoreline erosion?
 	groin
 	beach nourishment
 	seawall
        all of these
A

all of these

259
Q
When waves reach shallow water, they are often bent and tend to become parallel to the shore. This process is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	oscillation
	refraction
 	translation
 	reflection
A

refraction

260
Q

Longshore sand transport and longshore currents depend on waves impinging parallel to a shoreline.

True
False

A

False

261
Q
Which one of the following structures is built to protect boats from large breaking waves?
 	jetty
 	groin
	breakwater
 	seawall
A

breakwater

262
Q
A poleward-moving ocean current is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
	warm
	cold
 	warm only in the Northern Hemisphere
 	warm only in the Southern Hemisphere
A

warm

263
Q
A sandbar that completely crosses a bay, sealing it off from the open ocean is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	sea stack
	tombolo
 	coastal barrier
	none of these
A

none of these

264
Q

The movement of sand parallel to the shore ________.
is created by waves approaching at an oblique angle
may create spits
is achieved by longshore currents
All of these

A

All of these

265
Q

Phanerozoic, marine, sedimentary strata of the same age on different continents can usually be correlated by their fossil assemblages.

True
False

A

True

266
Q
Who is credited with formulating the doctrine of uniformitarianism?
 	Aristotle
 	Lyell
	Hutton
 	Playfair
A

Hutton

267
Q

Catastrophism ________.

was a philosophy that was first expounded by the early Greeks

was based upon the belief that Earth was millions of years old

helped man understand the true nature of the forces that shaped the Grand Canyon

is a modern term used to describe earthquakes and volcanic activity

A

was a philosophy that was first expounded by the early Greeks

268
Q
Consider the names of the eras in the geologic time scale. What is meant by "zoic"?
	ife; living things
 	rocks; lithified strata
        time; recording of events
 	places; geographic references
A

life; living things

269
Q

The term Paleozoic describes the era of ancient life forms.
True
False

A

True

270
Q

All of geologic time prior to the beginning of the Paleozoic era is termed the Phanerozoic eon.
True
False

A

False

271
Q
What of the following refers to the investigative process by which geologists identify and match sedimentary strata and other rocks of the same ages in different areas?
 	super matching
	correlation
 	strata indexing
	cross-access dating
A

correlation

272
Q

A disconformity is an erosional unconformity with parallel beds or strata above and below.
True
False

A

True

273
Q
The ratio of parent to daughter isotopes in a radioactive decay process is 0.40. How many half-lives have elapsed since the material was 100% parent atoms?
 	less than l
 	more than 3
	between l and 2
 	between 2 and 3
A

between l and 2

274
Q

The term Mesozoic refers to life forms intermediate in complexity between early and much later, more modern-looking life forms.
True
False

A

True

275
Q

Rapid burial and possession of hard parts are necessary conditions for the preservation of plant or animal remains as fossils.
True
False

A

True

276
Q
The era known as the "age of mammals" is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	Precambrian
	Paleozoic
 	Mesozoic
 	Cenozoic
A

Cenozoic

277
Q

Which of the following best characterizes an angular unconformity?

Tilted strata lie below the unconformity, and bedding in younger strata above is parallel to the unconformity.

Horizontal lava flows lie below the unconformity, and horizontal, sedimentary strata lie above.

It is the discordant boundary between older strata and an intrusive body of granite.

Tilted strata lie below the unconformity with loose, unconsolidated soil above.

A

Tilted strata lie below the unconformity, and bedding in younger strata above is parallel to the unconformity.

278
Q

When a beta particle is emitted, the mass number of the isotope remains unchanged.
True
False

A

True

279
Q

An unconformity is a buried ________.

fault or fracture with older rocks above and younger rocks below

surface of erosion separating younger strata above from older strata below

fault or fracture with younger strata above and older strata below

surface of erosion with older strata above and younger strata below

A

surface of erosion separating younger strata above from older strata below

280
Q

Evidence of an extensive glaciation places western Africa near the South Pole during the early Paleozoic Era.
True
False

A

True

281
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ means "planets in the making."
 	Jovian
 	Asteroids
 	Terrestrial
	Protoplanets
 	None of these
A

Protoplanets

282
Q

During the early Paleozoic Era, the continent of Gondwanaland included North and South America.
True
False

A

False

283
Q
As they formed, due to their high temperatures and comparatively weak gravitational fields, which planets were unable to retain appreciable amounts of hydrogen, helium, and ammonia?
	Jupiter and Neptune
	Mercury and Earth
 	Uranus and Pluto
 	Jupiter and Uranus
 	Neptune and Uranus
A

Mercury and Earth

284
Q
Which era is sometimes called the "age of dinosaurs"?
 	Pleistocene
 	Cenozoic
 	Cretaceous
	Mesozoic
 	None of these
A

Mesozoic

285
Q
Following the reptilian extinctions at the close of the Mesozoic, two groups of mammals, the marsupials and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, evolved.
 	eukaryotes
 	cephalopods
	trilobites
        placentals
 	stromatolites
A

placentals

286
Q
The Precambrian rock record indicates that much of Earth's first free oxygen combined with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dissolved in water.
 	potassium
 	silicon
	iron
 	carbon
 	None of these
A

iron

287
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ period is sometimes called the "golden age of trilobites."
	Cambrian
 	Silurian
 	Pennsylvanian
 	Devonian
 	Triassic
A

Cambrian

288
Q

The fossil record supports the hypothesis that the hard parts of organisms evolved for survival.
True
False

A

False

289
Q

Earth’s original atmosphere, several billion years ago, was similar to the present atmosphere.
True
False

A

False

290
Q

The Cenozoic Era is the age of mammals.
True
False

A

True

291
Q
Earth's primitive atmosphere evolved from gases \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	produced by radioactive decay
 	collected from the nebula
 	escaping from water
 	from the sun
	expelled from within
A

expelled from within

292
Q

During the Cenozoic Era, the eastern and western margins of North America experienced similar geologic events.
True
False

A

False

293
Q
The first true terrestrial animals were the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	mammals
	reptiles
 	lobe-finned fish
 	trilobites
 	marsupials
A

reptiles

294
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ means "the sun in the making."
 	solar disk
 	presun
 	nebular sun
 	sol
        protosun
A

protosun

295
Q

The natural cause(s) of climate change is(are) ________.

variability in Earth’s orbit

movement of lithospheric plates farther/closer to the equator

volcanic activity

variability in Earth’s orbit and volcanic activity

All of these

A

All of these

296
Q
Ozone, another important component of the atmosphere is concentrated in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	thermosphere
 	mesosphere
 	troposphere
	stratosphere
A

stratosphere

297
Q

The goal of paleoclimatology is to understand the climate of the past in order to ________.

assess the current and potential future climate in the context of natural climate variability

discover the changes in climate through geologic time and correlate it with gas composition changes in the atmosphere

positively identify why some species died out and others remain on Earth

All of these

A

assess the current and potential future climate in the context of natural climate variability

298
Q

Climate is a description of the ________.

state of the atmosphere at a given time and place

aggregate weather conditions, “average weather”

central component of the complex, connected global environmental system on which all life depends

exchange of energy and moisture

A

aggregate weather conditions, “average weather”

299
Q

Hotter objects radiate more total energy per unit area than do colder objects.
True
False

A

True

300
Q
Ozone is a major component in a noxious mixture of gases and particles called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	aerosols
	trace gases
	photochemical smog
 	water vapor
 	chloroflurocarbons
A

photochemical smog

301
Q

Oxygen isotope analysis is the measurement between the ratio of the two isotopes of hydrogen. The lighter isotope, 16O, ________.
evaporates more readily from the oceans
is more prevalent in precipitation
is more prevalent in glaciers
All of these

A

All of these

302
Q

Earth’s atmosphere is divided vertically into four layers on the basis of temperature. The layers, in order from bottom to top, are ________.

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere

mesosphere, thermosphere, stratosphere, troposphere

A

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

303
Q
What percent of the solar energy reaching the top of the atmosphere passes through the atmosphere and is absorbed at Earth's surface?
	20 percent
 	30 percent
 	40 percent
	50 percent
A

50 percent

304
Q
The trace gas(es) that are most important are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	methane
 	nitrous oxide
 	chlorofluorocarbons
 	methane and nitrous oxide
	All of these
A

All of these

305
Q
Clean, dry air is composed almost entirely of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
	nitrogen
 	oxygen
 	carbon dioxide
	nitrogen and oxygen
 	oxygen and carbon dioxide
A

nitrogen and oxygen

306
Q
One half of the atmosphere lies below an altitude of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	16 kilometers
 	100 kilometers
	5.6 kilometers
 	3.7 kilometers
A

5.6 kilometers

307
Q

Seafloor sediments are very important in discovering paleoclimate because they ________.

contain the remains of organisms, which change with changing climate

contain meteorites, which show when climate had a drastic fluctuation

show a record of temperature in the oceans, which can then be correlated to the temperature of the atmosphere

All of these

A

contain the remains of organisms, which change with changing climate

308
Q
Proxy data for climate change detection comes from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 	seafloor sediments
 	glacial ice
 	fossil pollen
 	tree growth rings
	All of these
A

All of these

309
Q

The use of coal and other fuels is the most prominent means by which humans add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
True
False

A

True