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Geology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the best measure of the wetness or dryness of a region?

A

Difference between annual precipitation and evaporation potential

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2
Q

How are sand grains transported by the wind?

A

By saltation in the first few meters above the land surface

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3
Q

What mature desert landscape feature consists of coalesced alluvial fans?

A

Bajada

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4
Q

What are inselbergs?

A

Bedrock hills in a highly eroded desert landscape

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5
Q

What term refers to the “bouncing” mode of sand transport in a windstorm or stream?

A

Saltation

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6
Q

Where did the great loess deposits in the central United States originate?

A

They originated as rock flour in Pleistocene glacial streams and rivers.

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7
Q

Which one of the following is determined by the angle of repose for dry sand?

A

Inclination angle of a dune slip face

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8
Q

Which one of the following concerning desert lands is FALSE?

Wind is the dominant agent of erosion and sediment transport.

Running water has little effect on shaping the landscape

A

Running water has little effect on shaping the landscape.

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9
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning rock weathering is true?

A

Warm temperatures and high soil moisture accelerate chemical weathering.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements concerning dry lands is FALSE?

Wind is the dominant agent of erosion and sediment transport.

Running water has little effect on shaping the landscape

A

Wind is the dominant agent of erosion and sediment transport.

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11
Q

Which dune is crescent-shaped with its tips pointing downwind?

A

Barchan

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12
Q

Where are rain shadow deserts common?

A

The dry valleys of eastern California and Nevada

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13
Q

What type of deposit consists of glacial rock flour from blowing winds?

A

Loess

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14
Q

What percentage of Earth’s land area do desert and steppe lands cover?

A

3o%

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15
Q

Where has the process of desertification been particularly well documented over the past 5o years?

A

The Sahel along the southern margin of the Sahara Desert

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16
Q

Between which latitudes do most dry lands lie?

A

Between 20 and 3o degrees north and south of the equator

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17
Q

Which of the following is formed from the abrasion of rocks by windblown sand?

A

Ventifacts

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18
Q

Which sand dunes are long, high, and parallel with the prevailing wind direction?

A

Longitudinal

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about deserts is true?
Deserts are lifeless.
Wind is the most significant agent of erosion in desert regions.
Deserts are always hot.
Water is the most significant agent of erosion in deserts.

Deserts are dominated by sand dunes.

A

Water is the most significant agent of erosion in deserts.

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20
Q

Which of the following statements characterizes ephemeral streams?

Ephemeral streams flow only at certain times of the year.
Ephemeral streams don’t have any life in them.
Ephemeral streams flow all the time in the desert.
Ephemeral streams generally depend on groundwater in the desert to flow year round.
Ephemeral streams are streams that flow through deserts, but hay their origins outside of the desert

A

Ephemeral streams flow only at certain times of the year.

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21
Q

Which one of the following is an evaporite mineral?

clay 
quartz 
calcium
gypsum
A

gypsum

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22
Q

What is a playa commonly occupied by?

   an ephemeral lake 
   a sand dune 
   Salt-tolerant vegetation 
   a dome
   an interdune
A

an ephemeral lake

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23
Q

What does saltating mean?

Flakes of gypsum mineralize to form crystals that resemble the shape and size of salt grains.
Sand grains avalanche down the slip face of a dune.
Sand grains are lifted by the wind, leap a short distance, and then fall back to the ground.
Sand grains pile up to form little ripples that grow into larger dunes.
Clay particles rotate through the air as they are blown by desert winds.

A

Sand grains are lifted by the wind, leap a short distance, and then fall back to the ground.

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24
Q

What is the angle of repose for sand on the slip face (leeward side)?

90 degrees
10 degrees
40 degrees
34 degrees

A

34 degrees

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25
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the Basin and Range region of the westem United States?

a region with alternating mountains and basins that have been produced by reverse faulting
a region with alternating mountains and basins that have been produced by normal faulting
a large area characterized by large mountains and rivers that reach the Pacific Coast
an area with alternating mountains and basins in a humid climate
a region formed by tectonic extension that includes perennial rivers and extensive channel networks

A

a region with alternating mountains and basins that have been produced by normal faulting

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26
Q

A(n)______is a cone-shaped deposit of sediment that is deposited when a stream exits the mouth of a canyon.

   alluvial fan
   inselberg
   bajada 
   playa 
   dune field
A

alluvial fan

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27
Q

What type of rocks would you expect to find in a playa lake depositional environment?

   fossiliferous limestone
   interbedded sandstones and conglomerates cross           
   bedded sandstone 
   evaporites and claystone
   poorly sorted conglomerates
A

evaporites and claystone

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28
Q

An isolated, heavily eroded hill or mountain that rises abruptly from a plain is a(n)

   fault block
   playa 
  alluvial fan
   bajada 
  inselberg
A

inselberg

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29
Q

Other than the landforms you learned about in the video, what is another landform present in the Basin and Range Province?

   vegetated hills lopes 
  integrated drainage networks 
  deep lakes
  perennial streams 
  sand dunes
A

sand dunes

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30
Q

Which of the following describes favorable conditions for transverse dune formation?

areas with steady prevailing winds and abundant sand areas adjacent to the coast with partial vegetative corer areas with variable winds and abundant sand
areas with a flat, hard surface and limited sand
areas with variable winds, vegetative cover, and limited sand

A

areas with steady prevailing winds and abundant sand

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31
Q

Which of the following is a difference between barchan and parabolic dunes?

 Barchan dunes are commonly found on the coast, while parabolic dunes prefer hard, bedrock surfaces.
A barchan exhibits a concave slip face, while a parabolic dune shows a convex slip face. 
A barchan exhibits a convex slip face, while a parabolic dune shows a concave slip face.
The tips of a barchan dune point into the wind, while the tips of a parabolic dune point downwind.     Barchan dunes are partially covered by vegetation, while parabolic dunes lack vegetative cover.
A

A barchan exhibits a concave slip face, while a parabolic dune shows a convex slip face.

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32
Q

Barchanoid dunes are an intermediate form of

    barchan and parabolic dunes 
   barchan and transverse dunes 
   barchan and longitudinal dunes
   barchan and star dunes 
   parabolic and transverse dunes
A

barchan and transverse dunes

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33
Q

Which dunes are formed under varying wind directions, but are dominantly parallel to the average direction?

   barchan 
   parabolic
   barchanoid 
  transverse
  longitudinal
A

longitudinal

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34
Q

Star dunes exhibit

scalloped rows of sand orientated perpendicular to wind    many ridges radiating from a central point    numerous ridges that align perpendicular to wind direction    cresent-shaped ridges with convex slip faces    several ridges that suggest a consistent wind direction
A

many ridges radiating from a central point

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35
Q

What type of hard stabilization structure is designed to keep tidal inlets from shifting location or filling with sand?

Groins

Breakwaters

Seawalls

Jetties

A

Jetties

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36
Q

Which of the following pairs of words refer to the movements of sand and water on a beach due to a breaking wave?

Swash and slosh

Wash and backwash

Splash and slosh

Backwash and swash

A

Backwash and swash

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37
Q

What is a deep-water wave?

A wave where the water depth exceeds one-half the wavelength

A wave where the wavelength exceeds one-half the wave height

A wave where the wave height exceeds the water depth

A wave where the wavelength exceeds one-half the water depth

A

A wave where the water depth exceeds one-half the wavelength

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38
Q

Which of the following is an isolated remnant of bedrock standing above a wave-cut platform along a shoreline?

Sea stack

Sea cave

Seamount

Sea arch

A

Sea stack

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39
Q

What essentially causes water movement and sand transport parallel to a beach?

A long fetch parallel to a beach

The uprush of water from each breaking wave (the swash) is at an oblique angle

Strong offshore winds creating a pileup of water along a beachfront

Deep-water waves breaking offshore

A

The uprush of water from each breaking wave (the swash) is at an oblique angle

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40
Q

Which one of the following would prove that a coastline is emergent?

Extensive barrier islands

Numerous large estuaries

Many small bedrock islands

Elevated wave-cut terraces

A

Elevated wave-cut terraces

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41
Q

What type of hard stabilization structure is built more or less parallel to the beach?

Jetties

Seawalls

Groins

Breakers

A

Seawalls

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42
Q

Which one of the following is a manmade coastal feature?

Sand spit

Sea arch

Barrier island

Breakwater

A

Breakwater

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43
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the gravitational forces affecting Earth?

The gravitational forces of each vary depending upon seasons on Earth.

The lunar force is about twice that of the Sun.

The solar force is about twice that of the Moon.

The solar and lunar gravitational forces are about the same magnitude.

A

The lunar force is about twice that of the Sun.

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44
Q

What currents move sand and water parallel to the beach?

Longshore

Rip

Flood

Refracted

A

Longshore

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45
Q

Which of the following describes a baymouth bar?

A sand deposit on the estuary side of an inlet through a barrier island

A sand deposit on the seaward side of a tidal inlet to a large estuary

A sandbar extending across a former inlet to a bay or estuary

A sand barrier extending partway across the entrance to a bay or estuary

A

A sandbar extending across a former inlet to a bay or estuary

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46
Q

Along which type of coastline are large estuaries more common?

Stable

Submergent

Emergent

Retreating

A

Submergent

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47
Q

When does a deep-water wave become a shallow-water wave?

When the wavelength is about one-half the water depth

When the wavelength is about twice the water depth

When the wave period is greater than one-half the water depth

When the wave period is greater than twice the water depth

A

When the wavelength is about twice the water depth

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48
Q

How are spits, hooks, and baymouth bars formed?

Wave erosion cuts away both sides of a long sandbar, leaving a sand ridge aligned parallel to the shore.

A headland is eroded and the sand is deposited in an offshore basin.

Sand eroded from a wave-cut cliff is deposited around sea stacks and arches.

Sand is deposited from longshore currents.

A

Sand is deposited from longshore currents.

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49
Q

What do the terms “swash” and “backwash” describe?

The forward and backward water movements as storm waves reflect from a seawall or groin

The swirling action and sand movements produced when a shallow-water wave impinges on the bottom

The oscillatory movements of water beneath a passing wave

Movements of water and sand as waves break along a beach

A

Movements of water and sand as waves break along a beach

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50
Q

Which tides are the maximum-amplitude tides produced when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned?

Rip tides

Tidal surge

Spring tides

Neap tides

A

Spring tides

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51
Q

What process describes incoming waves slowing down and rotating until they are parallel to the shoreline?

Resurgent

Erosion

Refraction

Reflection

A

Refraction

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52
Q

What is “fetch”?

The beachfront area where rapid erosion is taking place

The rotational movements of water particles beneath a passing surface wave

Ocean currents moving parallel to the beach

A large expanse of open water over which the wind blows and generates waves

A

A large expanse of open water over which the wind blows and generates waves

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53
Q

What is the name of a natural sandbar or low sand ridge that connects one island to another island or to the mainland?

Tombolo

Sand groin

Jetty

Spit

A

Tombolo

54
Q

What type of tide is a tidal current that flows through an inlet into a bay or estuary?

Neap

Spring

Flood

Ebb

A

Flood

55
Q

What feature erodes and leads to enlargement and extension of a wave-cut platform in the inland direction?

Offshore, wave-cut breakwater bar

Wave-cut barrier beach

Wave-cut tombolo

Wave-cut cliff

A

Wave-cut cliff

56
Q

Which of the following tides is an incoming or rising tide?

Flood

Rip

Ebb

Drift

A

Flood

57
Q

Which one of the following coastlines would typically have wave-cut cliffs, sea stacks, sea arches, and wave-cut platforms?

One where bedrock is vigorously eroded as sea level rises

One where unconsolidated sediments are being eroded as sea level falls

One where unconsolidated sediments are being rapidly eroded as sea level rises

One where a bedrock, wave-cut cliff is rapidly retreating inland as sea level falls

A

One where bedrock is vigorously eroded as sea level rises

58
Q

Emergent coastlines of Scandinavia (Norway and Sweden) and the Hudson Bay region of Canada result from which one of the following combinations?

The tectonic subsidence rate exceeds the rate of sea level rise.

The rate of glacial rebound is less than the rate of sea level rise.

The rate of tectonic uplift exceeds the rate of sea level fall.

The rate of glacial rebound exceeds the rate of sea level rise.

A

The rate of glacial rebound exceeds the rate of sea level rise.

59
Q

When does a deep-water wave become a shallow-water wave?

When the wave period is greater than one-half the water depth

When the wavelength is about twice the water depth

When the wavelength is about one-half the water depth

When the wave period is greater than twice the water depth

A

When the wavelength is about twice the water depth

60
Q

Which of the following features extends partway across the mouth of a bay or estuary?

Barrier island

Jetty

Spit

A

Spit

61
Q

What term describes the broad dome of water moving with the eye and frontal portion of a hurricane?

Cyclonic mound

Storm surge

Sea dome

Eyewall ridge

A

Storm surge

62
Q

When does a deep-water wave become a shallow-water wave?

When the wavelength is about twice the water depth

When the wave period is greater than twice the water depth

When the wavelength is about one-half the water depth

When the wave period is greater than one-half the water depth

A

When the wavelength is about twice the water depth

63
Q

Which of the following are both calcium-bearing minerals?

Calcite and gypsum

Halite and sylvite

Bauxite and kaolin

Quartz and plagioclase

A

Calcite and gypsum

64
Q

Which one of the following is a FALSE statement concerning the Bingham Canyon mine?

The ore contains, on average, more than 3 percent by weight of copper.

The mine is the largest open-pit copper mine in North America.

Most of the mineralized rock is part of an igneous rock pluton.

The mine is located in Utah near Salt Lake City.

A

The ore contains, on average, more than 3 percent by weight of copper.

65
Q

Which type of coal is typically found only in association with tightly folded strata?

Peat

Lignite

Anthracite

Bituminous

A

Anthracite

66
Q

How do graphite deposits typically form?

As hydrothermal vein deposits in limestone around a granitic batholith

By decomposition of humus and soil gases during intense tropical weathering

By metamorphism of organic-rich black shales

As deposits around submarine hot spring vents

A

By metamorphism of organic-rich black shales

67
Q

Why are sandstones much more common reservoir rocks of petroleum than are shales?

Sandstones are more abundant than shales.

Sandstones are more permeable than shales; thus subsurface fluids tend to flow through sandstones rather than through shales.

Shales, especially black shales, are much richer in primary organic matter than are sandstones.

Shales are more porous, so the oil tends to leak out over time.

A

Sandstones are more permeable than shales; thus subsurface fluids tend to flow through sandstones rather than through shales.

68
Q

Which mineral is the source of phosphorous in phosphate fertilizers?

Garnet

Kaolinite

Apatite

Phosphorite

A

Apatite

69
Q

Which of the following are used as abrasives?

Talc and graphite

Apatite and galena

Calcite and gypsum

Diamonds and garnets

A

Diamonds and garnets

70
Q

Why are coal and petroleum considered fossil fuels?

Carbon dioxide, released when coal and petroleum burn, contributes to the greenhouse effect.

The oxygen and nitrogen content of coal and petroleum was derived from the ancient atmosphere.

Their energy content was derived from ancient sunlight.

Coal beds and petroleum reservoir rocks contain abundant fossils.

A

Their energy content was derived from ancient sunlight.

71
Q

What mineral decomposes chemically to produce acidic soil waters that can cause secondary enrichment in copper and other ores?

Calcite

Pyrite

Quartz

Bauxite

A

Pyrite

72
Q

With what natural resource are the terms “cap rock” and “reservoir strata” associated?

Bedded rock salt

Petroleum

Oil shale

Sedimentary iron ore

A

Petroleum

73
Q

Of the following minerals, which would not be likely to be concentrated in placer deposits?

Corundum

Diamond

Gypsum

Native gold

A

Gypsum

74
Q

Which common rock-forming silicate mineral that exists as large crystals with quartz and feldspars in pegmatites is used as an insulator in electrical equipment?

Muscovite

Graphite

Hornblende

Olivine

A

Muscovite

75
Q

In which of the following situations would vein- or fissure-filling deposits of lead and zinc minerals be common?

Rhyolitic lava flows interbedded with pyroclastics

Impactites and shattered rock of a meteorite-impact zone

Rocks of a contact-metamorphic zone formed around a shallow, granite pluton

Rocks formed in a deep, high-grade regional-metamorphic zone

A

Rocks of a contact-metamorphic zone formed around a shallow, granite pluton

76
Q

Of what metal is bauxite the ore?

Iron

Aluminum

Tin

Gold

A

Aluminum

77
Q

Which of the following is a renewable resource?

Petroleum

Timber

Soil

Water

A

Timber

78
Q

In which of the following tectonic rock units would copper and copper–zinc sulfide deposits formed around ancient seafloor hot spring vents most likely be found?

An ophiolite complex

An exotic terrane

A cratonic complex

An accretionary wedge complex

A

An ophiolite complex

79
Q

Which of the following ore deposits form because of the prolonged, intense tropical weathering of specific kinds of bedrock?

Silver

Magnesium

Mercury

Aluminum

A

Aluminum

80
Q

What mineral once was made into pencil lead but now is more commonly used as a solid lubricant?

Gypsum

Graphite

Bornite

Galena

A

Graphite

81
Q

What mineral is an essential component of plasters and plasterboard?

Garnet

Talc

Apatite

Gypsum

A

Gypsum

82
Q

What term means “the sun in the making”?

Nebular sun

Presun

Solar disk

Protosun

A

Protosun

83
Q

Which era is sometimes called the “age of dinosaurs”?

Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Pleistocene

Cretaceous

A

Mesozoic

84
Q

During which era did mammals become the dominant land animals?

Pleistocene

Cretaceous

Mesozoic

Paleozoic

Cenozoic

A

Cenozoic

85
Q

Which single supercontinent had formed by the close of the Paleozoic?

Gondwanaland

Laurasia

Rodinia

Pangaea

A

Pangaea

86
Q

According to most sources, what is the approximate age of Earth?

2 billion years old

4.5 million years old

16 million years old

4.6 billion years old

A

4.6 billion years old

87
Q

What were the first true terrestrial animals?

Mammals

Lobe-finned fish

Trilobites

Reptiles

A

Reptiles

88
Q

Which one of the following does not characterize the early development and specialization of primitive mammals?

Specialization of limbs

Increase in size

Specialization of teeth

Increase in stomach capacity

Increase in brain capacity

A

Increase in stomach capacity

89
Q

During which time period did large tropical swamps extend across North America, eventually becoming the vast coal deposits of eastern North America and Europe today?

Devonian

Pennsylvanian

Cambrian

Silurian

A

Pennsylvanian

90
Q

Which type of bacteria thrive in environments that lack free oxygen?

Anaerobic

Iron-fixing

Aerobic

Foraminifera

A

Anaerobic

91
Q

What era is known as the “age of flowering plants”?

Cenozoic

Precambrian

Mesozoic

Paleozoic

A

Cenozoic

92
Q

Which geologic period was supposedly a time of major extinctions, including those of 75 percent of amphibian families?

Mississippian

Pennsylvanian

Permian

Jurassic

A

Permian

93
Q

What term means “planets in the making”?

Terrestrial

Asteroids

Jovian

Protoplanets

A

Protoplanets

94
Q

Which one of the following represents the greatest expanse of geological time?

Paleozoic

Cenozoic

Mesozoic

Precambrian

A

Precambrian

95
Q

During the early Paleozoic era, the current continents of South America, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, India, and perhaps China comprised which vast southern continent?

Gondwanaland

Rodinia

Laurasia

Pangaea

A

Gondwanaland

96
Q

With what other element dissolved in water was most of the Earth’s first free oxygen combined, as observed in Precambrian rocks?

Carbon

Iron

Silicon

Potassium

A

Iron

97
Q

Fossil fuels are notably absent from rocks from which time period listed below?

Precambrian

Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Paleozoic

A

Precambrian

98
Q

What is the major source of free oxygen in the atmosphere?

Green plants

Silicate minerals

Water

Molten rock

A

Green plants

99
Q

In rocks of which age does most of Earth’s iron ore exist?

Precambrian

Mesozoic

Paleozoic

Cenozoic

A

Precambrian

100
Q

What term means “the era of ancient life”?

Cenozoic

Precambrian

Paleozoic

Neolithic

A

Paleozoic

101
Q

What important event in animal evolution occurred at the beginning of the Cambrian period?

The appearance of animals with wings

The development of cells

The appearance of animals with hard parts

The development of animals with vertebrae

A

The appearance of animals with hard parts

102
Q

Which rocks are devoid of fossils, which hinders the correlation of rock units?

Cenozoic

Paleozoic

Precambrian

Mesozoic

A

Precambrian

103
Q

Where is it thought that Earth’s primitive atmosphere came from?

It was produced by radioactive decay of the core of Earth.

It was expelled from within the Earth.

It escaped from water.

It was collected from the nebula.

A

It was expelled from within the Earth.

104
Q

Which era of geologic time spans about 88 percent of Earth’s history?

Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Precambrian

Paleozoic

A

Precambrian

105
Q

What continent dominated the Northern Hemisphere during the late Paleozoic, combining present-day North America, Europe, western Asia, Siberia, and perhaps China?

Laurasia

Rodinia

Gondwanaland

Pangaea

A

Laurasia

106
Q

What acid forms when atmospheric CO2 dissolves in seawater?

Carbonic acid

Hydrochloric acid

Nitric acid

Carbolic acid

A

Carbonic acid

107
Q

Below which altitude measurement is 50 percent of Earth’s atmosphere found?

  1. 2 km
  2. 4 km
  3. 6 km
  4. 9 km
  5. 5 km
A

5.6 km

108
Q

What term refers to the temperature decrease in the troposphere?

Thermocline

Environmental lapse rate

Tropopause

Adiabatic lapse rate

A

Environmental lapse rate

109
Q

In which layer of the atmosphere do temperatures rise to more than 1000°C?

Thermosphere

Troposphere

Cryosphere

Stratosphere

Mesosphere

A

Thermosphere

110
Q

Are eccentricity, obliquity, and precession considered to be natural, human, solar, volcanic, or astrological causes of climate change?

Natural

Solar

Volcanic

Astrological

Human

A

Natural

111
Q

What was the approximate increase in global temperature during the twentieth century?

  1. 7°C
  2. 6°C
  3. 9°C
  4. 5°C
  5. 8°C
A

0.8°C

112
Q

Would the average surface temperature of Earth’s atmosphere be lower, higher, or unchanged if it contained no greenhouse gases?

Lower

Unchanged

Higher

A

Lower

113
Q

What term describes the amounts of methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) present in greenhouse gases?

Major

Trace

Minor

Negligible

A

Trace

114
Q

What accounts for the increase in atmospheric nitrous oxide (“laughing gas”)?

Dental procedures

Fertilizers

Factories

Locomotives

Automobiles

A

Fertilizers

115
Q

Of the following, what material makes up much of the shells of numerous marine microorganisms called foraminifera?

SiO2

NaCl

CO2

CaCO3

Fe2O3

A

CaCO3

116
Q

How many spheres are involved in the exchanges of energy and moisture that occur in Earth’s climate system?

Seven

Six

Five

Three

Four

A

Five

117
Q

Which of the following substances can be used as a paleothermometer?

Corals

Fossil pollen

Aerosols

Tree ring data

A

Corals

118
Q

How much has sea level risen over the last 100 years?

Between 10 and 23 cm

Between 15 and 23 cm

Between 25 and 30 cm

Between 10 and 15 cm

Between 5 and 10 cm

A

Between 10 and 23 cm

119
Q

In which zone of the atmosphere is ozone concentrated?

Cryosphere

Stratosphere

Troposphere

Thermosphere

Mesosphere

A

Stratosphere

120
Q

What is the environmental lapse rate that occurs going up in the troposphere?

The air temperature decreases 4.2°C/km.

The air temperature decreases 5.3°C/km.

The air temperature decreases 0°C/km.

The air temperature decreases 3.5°C/km.

The air temperature decreases 6.5°C/km.

A

The air temperature decreases 6.5°C/km.

121
Q

What type of bacteria produces methane?

Aerobic

Aerated

Anaerobic

A

Anaerobic

122
Q

What instrument records vertical changes in temperature, pressure, wind, and humidity?

Aerometer

Radiosonde

Theodolite

Climoprobe

Barometer

A

Radiosonde

123
Q

What term refers to a measurement of the amount of radiation reflected by a surface?

Electromagnetic spectrum

Absorption

Reflection

Dispersion

Albedo

A

Albedo

124
Q

In which layer of the atmosphere does the temperature remain constant to an altitude of about 20 kilometers?

Tropopause

Troposphere

Stratopause

Stratosphere

Mesosphere

A

Stratosphere

125
Q

What gases will be released as a result of the melting of permafrost and decomposing vegetation?

CFCs and ozone

Carbon dioxide and methane

Nitrous oxide

Carbonic acid

Hydrogen and helium

A

Carbon dioxide and methane

126
Q

Which gaseous element comprises the greatest percentage of the air that we breathe?

Carbon dioxide

Oxygen

Helium

Hydrogen

Nitrogen

A

Nitrogen

127
Q

Which regions of the Earth will experience a greater adverse response to global warming?

Tropical

Boreal

Polar

Grassland

Coastal

A

Polar

128
Q

What is the name of the lines of indirect evidence that scientists use to reconstruct past climates?

Proxy data

Paradigms

Inferences

Hypotheses

A

Proxy data

129
Q

How do explosive volcanic eruptions affect global temperatures?

Explosive volcanic eruptions have no effect on global temperatures.

Explosive volcanic eruptions raise global temperatures.

Explosive volcanic eruptions lower global temperatures.

A

Explosive volcanic eruptions lower global temperatures

130
Q

How will increased levels of atmospheric CO2 ultimately affect the pH of global oceans?

Raise

Lower

Have no effect on

Dilute

A

Lower

131
Q

What huge magnetic storms may be responsible for variations in temperature and precipitation?

Sunspots

Hurricanes

Tsunamis

Typhoons

Monsoons

A

Sunspots

Geology (3 decks)

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