Final Review 2 Flashcards by Lindsay Kirkpatrick

Which of the following is the most common idiopathic scoliosis?
a. Juvenile
b. Adolescent
c. Infantile

Adolescent

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Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a severe kyphoscoliosis and dumbbell IVFs?
a. poliomyelitis
b. lateral hemivertebra
c. duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. short leg syndrome
e. neurofibromatosis

neurofibromatosis

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Which of the following is the most common etiology of scoliosis?
a. idiopathic
b. congenital
c. neuromuscular
d. neurofibromatosis

idiopathic

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Which of the following is the correct pairing of types of spondylolisthesis?
a. Type I isthmic
b. Type III traumatic
c. Type V dysplastic
d. Type II pathologic
e. Type VI iatrogenic

Type VI iatrogenic

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Upon radiographic examination, a finding of 35% anterior migration of L4 on L5 with evidence of severe facet arthrosis is noted, which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?
a. L4, anterolisthesis grade 2 isthmic
b. L4, anterolisthesis grade 3 degenerative
c. L4, anterolisthesis grade 2 degenerative
d. L5, anterolisthesis grade 3 dysplastic
e. L5, retrolisthesis grade 1 pathologic

L4, anterolisthesis grade 2 degenerative

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Which of the following scolioses is most concerning for possible underlying pathology?
a. Right thoracic
b. Left thoracic
c. Right lumbar
d. Left lumbar
e. Right thoracic and left lumbar

Left thoracic

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Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis for a pt with a curvature with thoracic concavity to the left and lumbar concavity to the right?
a. Left thoracic and right lumbar Double major scoliosis
b. Right thoracic and left lumbar Double major scoliosis
c. Left thoracic and right lumbar Double minor scoliosis
d. Left thoracic and right lumbar Double primary scoliosis
e. Right thoracic and left lumbar Double primary scoliosis

Right thoracic and left lumbar Double major scoliosis

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Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis for a long C curvature and hypertrophy of the gastrocnemius muscles bilaterally in a sedentary person?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. Short leg syndrome
e. Neurofibromatosis

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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Which of the following is the most common scoliosis?
a. Right thoracic
b. Left thoracic
c. Right lumbar
d. Left lumbar
e. Right thoracic and left lumbar

Right thoracic

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Which of the following is the most common microorganism to cause acute suppurative osteomyelitis?
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus

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Which of the following organisms has been found to cause septic arthritis more commonly in IV drug abusers than the general population?
a. Salmonella
b. Klebsiella
c. Pseudomonas
d. Mycobacterium Tb
e. Clostridium

Pseudomonas

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Which of the following is the synonym for septic arthritis in IV drug abusers?
a. Mainliner’s syndrome
b. Wilkinson syndrome
c. Potts Dz
d. Kummell’s Dz
e. Kohler’s Dz

Mainliner’s syndrome

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Which of the following organisms has been found to cause acute suppurative osteomyelitis in pts with sickle cell disease?
a. Salmonella
b. Klebsiella
c. Pseudomonas
d. Mycobacterium Tb
e. Clostridium

Salmonella

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Which of the following is not one of the five most common locations for septic arthritis in IV drug abusers?
a. Spine
b. Sacroiliac joints
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Subtalar joint
e. Acromioclavicular joint

Subtalar joint

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Which of the following terms represents periosteal new bone in acute suppurative osteomyelitis?
a. Sequestrum
b. Involucrum
c. Sinus tract
d. Cloaca
e. Marjolin’s ulcer

Involucrum

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How long, approximately, does it typically take for acute suppurative osteomyelitis in extremities to show on conventional radiography?
a. 1 day
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 weeks
e. 1 month

1 week (7-10 days)

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How long, approximately, does it typically take for acute suppurative osteomyelitis in the spine to show on conventional radiography?
a. 1 day
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 weeks
e. 1 month

3 weeks (21 days)

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Which of the following represents a subacute infection of bone?
a. Sequestrum
b. Marjolin’s ulcer
c. Osteoblastoma
d. Osteoid osteoma
e. Brodie’s abscess

Brodie’s abscess

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Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis in a patient with night pain that can be relieved by aspirin and upon radiographic examination had a 1.8cm lucent nidus with moderate surrounding sclerosis?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Brodie’s abscess
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Osteoma
e. Enostoma

Brodie’s abscess

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Which is the organism that most commonly is responsible for producing subcutaneous air (gas gangrene)?
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium perfringens

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Which of the following is not known for malignantly transforming to fibrosarcoma?
a. pagets
b. fibrous dysplasia
c. fibrous cortical defect
d. chronic osteomyelitis
e. bone infarctions

fibrous cortical defect

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Which of the following choices is not true about tuberculosis?
a. It is the second most common infection in the world
b. It infects the spine in approximately 50% of cases with skeletal involvement
c. It is associated with a finding of a ranke complex upon chest radiography
d. It causes a decreased intervertebral disc height faster than with suppurative spinal osteomyelitis
e. When it affects the bones of the hand it is known as spina ventosa

d. It causes a decreased intervertebral disc height faster than with suppurative spinal osteomyelitis

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Which TWO CHOICES of the following are most closely related to sickle cell disease?
a. osteonecroses
b. hair on end appearance of the skull
c. H-shaped vertebrae
d. Erlenmeyer flask deformity
e. Paintbrush metaphyses

a. osteonecroses
c. H-shaped vertebrae

Which of the following measurements of the abdominal aorta is considered dilatation but not aneurysmal?
a. 5.5cm
b. 3-3.49cm
c. 3-3.49mm
d. 7mm
e. 7cm

3-3.49cm

A finding of generalized osteopenia and Erlenmeyer flask deformity of the distal femurs bilaterally is noted which of the following should be included on your differential? a. Sickle cell anemia b. Hemophilia c. Thalassemia d. Gaucher's e. Osteopetrosis

Sickle cell anemia Thalassemia Gaucher's

Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis with a finding of widening of the intercondylar notch and ballooning of the epiphysis of the femur and no hand or wrist involvement? a. Leukemia b. Hemophilia C. JCA d. Sickle cell dz e. Thalassemia

Hemophilia

Radiolucent metaphyseal bands is an associated finding in ____ while radiopaque metaphyseal bands is an associated finding in ____ a. Leukemia, thalassemia b. Harris growth arrest lines, lead poisoning c. Lead poisoning, leukemia d. Leukemia, lead poisoning e. Thalassemia, lead poisoning

Leukemia, Lead poisoning

Which of the following is the eponym for AVN in the scaphoid? a. Legg-calve-perthes b. Kienbocks c. Preisers d. Blounts e. Panners

Preisers

Which of the following fractures predisposes a pt to Diaz dz? a. SCFE b. Jones c. Fischer d. Kocher e. Aviator

Aviator

Which of the following is not associated with causing AVN? a. Pancreatitis b. Sarcoidosis c. Amyloidosis d. Caissons e. Exogenous steroid use

Sarcoidosis

Which of the following is the appropriate eponym for AVN of the humeral head? a. Kohler b. Kummel c. Diaz d. Hass e. Panner

Hass

Which of the following eponyms represents a normal developmental finding? a. Diaz b. Panner c. Van Neck d. Kienbock e. Preiser

Van Neck

Which of the following is the most common artery to see conduit wall calcification in? a. Femoral b. Popliteal c. Aorta d. Common iliacs e. Subclavian

Aorta

Avascular necrosis affects ____ while bone infarction is a term that describes involvement in ____? a. Epiphyses, apophyses b. Apophyses, metaphyses c. Metaphyses, epiphyses d. Epiphyses, metaphyses e. Metaphyses, diaphyses

Epiphyses, metaphyses

Which of the following are findings associated with hypovitaminosis D? Select all that apply. a. Ring epiphysis of wimberger b. Pelkin spurs c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage d. White line of frankel e. Paintbrush metaphyses

Paintbrush metaphyses

Which of the following is the most common etiology of generalized osteopenia? a. Congenital b. Metabolic c. Senile d. Vascular e. Neoplasia

Senile

Which of the following T-scores is indicative of osteoporosis and which T-score is indicative of a 4x increased risk of sustaining a fracture? a. -2.5, -2 b. -2.5,-3 c. -3,-3 d. -2.5, -4 e. -3,-1

-2.5, -2

Which of the following should be included in a differential with a finding of pseudofractures? Select all that apply. a. Pagets b. Osteomalacia d. Fibrous dysplasia d. Rickets e. Neurofibromatosis

Pagets Osteomalacia Fibrous dysplasia, Rickets

Which of the following findings is not associated with scurvy? a. Scorbutic rosary b. Pelkin spurs c. White line of frankel d. Cupping of the metaphyses e. Trummerfeld zone

Cupping of the metaphyses

Which of the following is **not** associated with hyperparathyroidism? a. Ungual tuft resorption b. Subperiosteal resorption c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage d. Tumoral calcinosis e. Widening of the SI joints

Subperiosteal hemorrhage

Which of the following is/are associated with hyperparathyroidism? Select all that apply. a. Histiocytosis x b. Pseudotumors c. Brown tumors d. Renal osteodystrophy e. Sandwich vertebrae

Brown tumors Renal osteodystrophy

Which of the following is not associated with acromegaly? a. Prominent superior orbital ridge b. Prognathism c. Spade like ungual tufts d. Posterior vertebral body scalloping e. Tumoral calcinosis

Tumoral calcinosis

Which of the following should be included in your differential for posterior vertebral body scalloping? Select all that apply. a. Marfans b. Osteogenesis imperfects c. Achondroplasia d. Neurofibromatosis e. Acromegaly

Marfans Achondroplasia Neurofibromatosis Acromegaly

Which of the following is not true of Eosinophilic granuloma? a. Typically occurs between 5-10 yoa b. It is the most common occurring of the Langerhan's cell hystiocytoses c. The skull is involved 95% of cases d. Pancake vertebra may reconstitute the majority of its height e. It is associated with a hole within a hole appearance in skull lesions

The skull is involved 95% of cases

Which of the following should be included on your differential for a finding of posterior vertebral body scalloping? Select all that apply. a. Marfans b. Von Recklinghausens c. Achondroplasia d. Hodgkins lymphoma e. Ehlers-danlos

Marfans Von Recklinghausen's Achondroplasia Ehlers-Danlos

Which of the following presents with a bone within a bone appearance? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Achondroplasia c. Cleidocranial dysostosis d. Osteopetrosis e. Trevors disease

Osteopetrosis

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with otosclerosis, decreased bone density, wormian bones and poor dentition? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. Downs syndrome d. Osteopetrosis e. Nail-patella syndrome

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with wormian bones, otosclerosis, multiple levels of SBOs and approximately 45 teeth? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. Downs syndrome d. Osteopetrosis e. Nail-patella syndrome

Cleidocranial dysostosis

Which two of the following choices are most appropriate as possible diagnoses for a patient with wormian bones and an accessory physis at the proximal 2nd metacarpal base? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. Downs syndrome d. Osteopetrosis e. Normal finding

Cleidocranial dysostosis (Extra physis = Supranumerary epiphysis)

Which of the following is the eponym for dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica? a. conradi hunerman disease b. Voorhoeves disease c. Trevors disease d. Osteopathia striata e. Albers schonberg

Trevors disease

Which of the following is the eponym for osteopetrosis? a. Conradi hunerman disease b. Voorhoeves disease c. Trevors disease d. Osteopathia striata e. Albers schonberg

Albers-Schonberg

Which of the following is characterized by stippling of the epiphyses of an infant which resolves by the second year of life and the infant will develop identically to an achondroplast? a. Conradi hunerman disease b. Voorhoeves disease c. Trevors disease d. Osteopathia striata e. Albers schonberg

Conradi-Hunermann disease

Which of the following is characterized by having an osteochondroma of an epiphysis? a. Conradi hunerman disease b. Voorhoeves disease c. Trevors disease d. Osteopathia striata e. Albers schonberg

Trevors disease

Which of the following is associated with a finding of iliac horns? a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. Downs syndrome d. Osteopetrosis e. Nail-patella syndrome

Nail-patella syndrome

Which of the following is not true of spondylolistheses? a. MC at L5 b. L4 is the MC level for type III c. C6 is the MC cervical spine level d. Hangman fx is classified as a type lI e. Isthmic is the most common type

Hangman fx is classified as a type lI

Which of the following is the MC used classification system for grading spondylolisthesis? a. Salter-harris b. Nash-moe c. Meyerding d. Wiltse e. Cobb

Meyerding

Which of the following populations tends to have the highest percentage of spondylolisthesis? a. Caucasian b. African american c. Athletes d. Gymnasts e. Inuit

Inuit