Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Testing of the last was the last wash in the eluate procedure ensures that:

a) The check cells will work
b) The antibody identified in the eluate is the antibody attached to the red cells
c) The antibody identified in the eluate should be in the patient plasma
d) The pH of the elute is appropriate for panel cell testing

A

The antibody identified in the eluate should be in the patient plasma

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2
Q

Other than anti-IgG, what is Polyspecific AHG reagent?

a) IgM
b) C9
c) C3d
d) C4

A

C3d

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3
Q

Which statement is true for allo-adsorption procedure?

a) It is utilized when patients have been recently transfused
b) It removes antibody from patient cells
c) QC for this procedure involves testing of the last was
d) Patient cells are used to remove autoantibody from their own plasma

A

It is utilized when patients have been recently transfused

alloadsopriton - panaagglutination with immune stimulating event - trans

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4
Q

What test should be done next with the following results?

a) Adsorption
b) Phenotype for M antigen
c) DAT
d) Anemia Studies

Anti- A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 3+
B cell: 3+

___ IS___37___AHG___CC
SC1: 3+, 1+, 0 , 2+
SC2: 3+, 1+, 0, 2+
Auto: 3+, 3+, 3+, NT

A

DAT

DAT: Positive auto control; hemolysis evident.

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5
Q

Which DAT results indicate that an elution should be performed?

a) AHG + IgG+ C3d-
b) AHG - IgG - C3d-
c) AHG +IgG - C3d+
d) AHG +IgG- C3d-

A

AHG +IgG+ C3d-

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6
Q

Which test result differentiates between high incident antibody and autoantibody workup?

a) Elution
b) Auto Control
c) Adsorption
d) DAT

A

Auto control

auto control - w/antibody Id

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7
Q

Shortness of breath indicates hemolytic anemia, what test differentiates between cold acting antibodies and warm acting antibodies being the cause?

a) Auto control
b) Cold Screen
c) Elution
d) Donath Landsteiner

A

Cold Screen

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8
Q

Which type of anemia is not often associated with compliment activation?

a) PCH
b) CAD
c) Drug Adsorption
d) WAIHA

A

Drug Adsorption

-Drugs attach to RBC membrane, direct destruction of rbc, IgG, no compli

PCH - compliment is low
CAD - cold aggluitnin disease - moderate chronic hemolytic anemia
WAIHA - Warm auto immune hemolytic anemia - Autoantibody reacts with patients’ RBC’s in vivo may activate compliment or not.

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9
Q

Which antibody is most likely acting in this cold screen?

___ IS___37___AHG___CC
SC1: 3+, 2+, 0 , 2+
SC2: 3+, 2+, 0, 2+
SC3: 3+, 2+, 0, 2+
Cord: 3+, 2+, 0, 2+
Cell

a) Anti-I
b) Anti-IH
c) Anti-i
d) Anti-M

A

b) Anti-IH

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10
Q

What test helps differentiate pathologic vs benign CAD?

a) Antibody ID
b) DAT
c) Antibody Titer
d) Donath Landsteiner

A

Antibody Titer

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a control for the Donath Landsteiner test?

a) Patient cells + normal plasma
b) Samples kept at 37C until test commences
c) Normal plasma + patient plasma
d) Normal plasma

A

Patient cells + normal plasma

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12
Q

Which of the following diagnoses is NOT reasonable for the following serological results?

Anti- A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 0
B cell: 3+

___ IS___37___AHG___CC
SC1: 0, 1+, 3+ , NT
SC2: 0, 1+, 3+, NT
Auto: 3+, 3+, 3+, NT

a) WAIHA
b) CAD
c) Aldomet Antibody
d) Transfusion reaction with anti-e

A

–> CAD

side note: Aldomet(IgG+)

CAD is suspected when there is cold screen with cord cell.

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13
Q

This mechanism of drug related hemolysis is less severe with penicillin and most severe with Cefotetan. Which mechanism is it?

a) Drug Adsorption
b) Immune Complex
c) Membrane Modification
d) Drug-Independent Auto Anti-body

A

Drug Adsorption

Drugs: Cefotetan, streptomyocin, penicilin

Drug- Adsorption:
- Drugs attach to RBC membrane
- Antibody directed to drug causes destrution of RBC
- IgG no compliment
- Hemolysis yes (tea color in blood)
- extravascular to intravasular

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14
Q

Which transfusion recommendation is appropriately matched to its autoantibody diagnosis?

a) Darzalex - don’t transfuse
b) WAIHA - transfuse with blood warmer
c) CAD - wash the cells
d) Cefotetan - transfuse as normal

A

Cefotetan - transfuse as normal

Cefotetan usually given during surgery prophylactically.

Hemolysis appears 7-10days laster with anemia <4g. Second does is usally fatal.

Darzalex - chemotherapy drug; transfusing them is perfectly fine. (give them blood all the time)

WAIHA - Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia - we cannot transfuse, not even with a blood warmer, because its already a warm acting antibody. You have to consult with a pathologist and the doctor and they have to sign a form. B/C any thing you try to give to them will be incompatible, and lysis, and make their system worse!

CAD - Cold agglutinate, we need to warm the blood. We warm before we give it to the patient that way we don’t activate hemolysis.

Cefotetan is a medication reaction, where it cause the tea color in serum, support the transfusion, but stop the drug.

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15
Q

A crossmatch sample collected at 1405 on Monday would expire on which day at midnight?

a) Tuesday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Friday

A

Thursday

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16
Q

When should a transfusions be checking vitals?

a) Before the unit started
b) 15 minutes after unit is started
c) 15 minutes after unit is completed
d) Both a and b

A

Both a and b

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17
Q

What blood type donor units should anti-AB, be used on?

  • A neg
  • B pos
  • AB pos
  • O neg
A

O neg

18
Q

What does NOT have to be verified when blood is read back for issue?

a) Patient ID
b) Unit ID
c) Visual Inspection
d) Compatibility
e) All have to be verified

A

e) All have to be verified

19
Q

What blood type should a patient with the following serological results received?

Anti- A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 1+
B cell: 4+

a) A or O
b) O only
c) A or AB
d) A only

A

O only

20
Q

The purpose of immediate spin crossmatch is to:

a) Ensure survival of transfused RBCs
b) Determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient
c) Detect cold reacting antibodies
d) Meet computer crossmatch requirements

A

Determine ABO compatibility between donor and recipient

21
Q

Electronic crossmatch may be performed in place of serological crossmatch under the following conditions.

a) Previous Apps with anti-c; current A post with anti-c
b) Previous Opos anti-E; current Ops neg screen
c) Previous Opos neg screen; current Opos neg screen
d) Previous None; current One neg screen

A

Previous Opos neg screen; current Opos neg screen

22
Q

Which crossmatch is performed on a patient with a negative antibody screen but no previous history?

a) Electronic
b) Extended
c) Immediate Spin
d) Elution

A

Immediate Spin

23
Q

A patient with a cold autoagglutinin will give additional reactions in which of the following tests:

a) ABO forward type
b) IS crossmatch
c) AHG screen
d) DAT IgG

A

IS crossmatch

24
Q

Given the following Blood typing results, which type of RBCs can you transfuse?

Anti- A: 4+
Anti-B: 1+
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 0
B cell: 4+

a) A neg only
b) A and O
c) O neg only
d) A neg and AB neg

A

O neg only

25
Q

Given the results below, which subgroup do you think the patient is?

Anti- A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Anti-A, B: 1+
A1 cell: 1+
B cell: 4+

a) A2
b) B3
c) Bx
d) Am

A

Am

26
Q

What is this patient’s blood type?

Anti- A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Control: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 4+

a) AB
b) A
c) B
d) O

A

O

27
Q

If a mother is blood type O, and child 1 is A and child 2 is B what is the father’s genotype?

  • AO
  • AB
  • BB
  • OO
A

AB

28
Q

A person with the following genes has what in their saliva?

HH, LeLe, SeSe, OO

  • Lea only
  • Leb and H
  • Lea and B
  • A and B
A

Leb and H

Secreter LeLe SeSe = Leb
Secreter LeLe sese = Lea

29
Q

The Lewis Gene codes for a transferase that transfers a sugar onto precursor substance what is that sugar?

  • Frucose
  • N-acetylgalactosamine
  • N-acetylglucosamine
  • D-Galactose
A

Fucose

30
Q

D antibodies are known to cause which of the following?

  • Hemolytic transfusion Reactions
  • Hemolytic disease of the Newborn
  • Both
  • Neither
A

Both

31
Q

How do you interpret an Rh type that is not reactive with anti-D but is positive in elution studies?

  • Rh negative
  • LW negative
  • Del
  • Partial D
A

Del

32
Q

Which of the following genotypes are heterozygous for E?

  • R2r”
  • R0r
  • rr
  • R2r
A

R2r

33
Q

Which Rh haplotype is most frequent in the Asian population?

  • R0
  • R1
  • R2
  • r
A

R1

34
Q

Which blood system does NOT have strongly expressed antigens expressed at birth?

  • MNS
  • Duffy
  • Kell
  • Lutheran
A

Lutheran

35
Q

Nulls of MNS protect against which disease?

  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Plasmodium vivax
  • Taenia
  • Hemophilus Influenza
A

Plasmodium falciparum

36
Q

A request for 6 D negative units was received for patient Carmen SanDiego. One of the six was 2+ incompatible on AHG crossmatch, why?

  • Low incidence antibody
  • High incidence antibody
  • Patient is Weak D
  • Patient has Positive autocontrol
A

Low incidence antibody

37
Q

Which of the following is a high incidence/ low incidence pair?

  • Fya/Fyb
  • Jka/Jkb
  • E/C
  • Lua/Lub
A

Lua/Lub

38
Q

Which of the following is destroyed by Enymes?

  • Kpa
  • S
  • B
  • Jka
A

S

Jka- enhance
B - not enhanced/nor destroy
Kpa - they are just there

39
Q

On Sadie Hawkins’ panel, what activity is being demonstrated by the antibody(ies)?

  • Enzyme susceptibility
  • Dosage
  • Low frequency
  • Neutralization
A

Enzyme susceptibility

40
Q

On Sadie Hawkins’ panel, how many antibodies are present?

-1
-2
-3
-4

A

2

41
Q

On Sadie Hawkins’ panel, which cell would I choose for rule outs from the 16-cell selected cell panel?

-1
-2
-3
-4

A

4