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Blood Bank - I, II, III > E1 > Flashcards

E1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at causing direct hemmagluitnation?

  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • IgE
A

IgM

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2
Q

What reaction grade would occur if compliment was activated?

  • 4+ at room temperature
  • 3+ at AHG
  • Hemolysis
  • Negative
A

Hemolysis

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3
Q

Some blood group antibodies may react stronger with the red cells of individuals who have inherited 2 identical alleles for the antigen to which the antibody is directed. This is known as:

  • Post Zone effect
  • Pro Zone effect
  • Equivalence effect
  • Dosage
A

Dosage

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4
Q

Patient plasma with donor rd cells produced an agglutination reaction of 1+. How do you interpret this?

  • The reaction is weak, the patient can probably tolerate the donor cells.
  • The donor blood is compatible with patient plasma
  • The donor plasma is compatible with patient blood
  • The donor blood is incompatible with patient plasma
A

The donor blood is incompatible with patient plasma

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5
Q

Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells?

  • pH decreases
  • 2, 3 DPG increases
  • ATP increases
  • Plasma K+ decreases
A

pH decreases

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6
Q

Which additive solution increases shelf life the longest, to 42 days?

  • ACD-A
  • CPDA-1
  • CD2D
  • AS-3
A

AS-3

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7
Q

A nurse just called to add on a cross match to a pretransfusion specimen you worked on 4 days ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?

  • Check to see if there is enough volume in the original sample to complete the workup.
  • Perform compatibility testing on the original specimen
  • Indicate to the nurse that a new specimen need to be collected
  • Repeat the type and screen testing on the original sample to see if the patient has made any antibodies after transfusion.
A

Indicate to the nurse that a new specimen needs to be collected for pretransfusion testing.

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8
Q

What test that you have learned counts as phenotype testing?

  • ABO
  • Antibody Screen
  • IAT
  • Polymerase Chain Reaction
A

ABO

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9
Q

The immunodominant sugar responsible for blood group A specificity is:
- Fucose
- N-acetyl galactosamine
- D-Galactose
- N-acetyl glucosamine

A

N-acetyl galactosamine

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10
Q

What property makes the ABO system the most significant for transfusion compatibility?

  • Antibody ability to fix complement
  • Low Distribution of antigen throughout the body
  • Antibody is usually IgG
  • All of the above
A

Antibody ability to fix complement

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

  • An individual with the BO genotype is homozygous for B antigen
  • An individual with BB genotype is homozygous for B antigen
  • An individual with OO genotype is homozygous for O antigen
  • An individual with the AB phenotype is heterozygous for A and B antigens
A

An individual with the BO genotype is homozygous for B antigen

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12
Q

A mother is blood type O and a father is AB, what is the predicted percentage of offspring they would have that are blood type O?

  • 0
  • 25
  • 50
  • 100
A

0

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13
Q

A child is blood type as A, their biological sibling is O, their mother is blood type B, what is the father’s genotype?

  • OO
  • BO
  • AO
  • AB
A

AO

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14
Q

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 4+
A1 cell: 0
B cell: 0
Blood type: A pos

Assuming the interpretation is correct, Which result is in error?

  • Anti-A
  • Anti-B
  • Anti-D
  • A1 cell
  • B cell
A

B cell

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15
Q

What is the blood type of the patient with the following serological reactions?

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Control: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 4+

  • AB
  • A
    -B
  • O
A

O

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16
Q

What is the most likely blood type of the patient with the following serological reactions?

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 2+ mf
Anti-A,B: 2+ mf
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 0

  • A2
  • B3
  • Bx
  • Am
A

B3

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17
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a reasonable interpretation for these serological results.

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 3+
Anti-A,B: 4+
A1 cell: 2+
B cell: 4+

  • A1B with anti-I
  • A2B with anti-A1
  • AB2 with anti-B1
  • O with cold agglutination
A

AB2 with anti-B1

—
B2 does not exist

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18
Q

Anti-A1 lectin is QC’d every day of use. It is used today, what two reagents are the best choice for positives and negatives controls?

  • A1 cells and B cells
  • B cells and O cells
  • Anti-A and anti-B
  • A1 cells and A2 cells
A

A1 cells and A2 cells

19
Q

Which of the following ABO groups contains the least amount of H substance?

  • A1
  • A2
  • B
  • O
A

A1

O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

20
Q

Which blood type results would you see for a Bombay patient?

Becky: anti-A: 4+, anti-B: 4+, anti-D: 4+, A1 cell: 0, B cell: 0

Simone: anti-A: 4+, anti-B: 0, anti-D: 4+, A1 cell: 0, B cell: 4+

Carla: anti-A: 0, anti-B: 0, anti-D: 4+, A1 cell: 4+, B cell: 4+

Phi: anti-A: 0, anti-B: 0, anti-D: 0, A1 cell: 0, B cell: 0

-Becky
-Simone
-Carla
-Phi

A

Carla

—

Carla is O pos

21
Q

A patient with hh, LeLe, sese, A genes will express what antigens on their red cells?

  • A, H, Lea
  • Lea only
  • A and H only
  • A, H, Lea, Leb
A

Lea only

—-

In order for it to be H it has to be capitalized HH
In order for it to be Lea and Leb, it has to be LeLe and SeSe or LeSe

22
Q

What is the Rh blood group named for?

  • its function on the cell
  • the scientist who discovered it
  • its position in the alphabet
  • a monkey
A

a monkey

23
Q

Which of the following is the most common Rh genotype in Asians?

  • Dce/dce
  • DCe/DCe
  • DcE/dce
  • DCe/dce
A

DCe/DCe

—
R1/R1 —> Laura’s explanation: just remember that the number one race car driver is an alpha romero. The really explanation is that 70% of asians are Dce.

24
Q

(Choose all that apply) Which Rh system antibodies can an R0R0 patient make if they are immunized?

  • anti-D
  • anti-C
  • anti-E
  • anti-e
  • anti-c
  • anti-d
A

anti-C and anti-E

—
R0R0 —> Dce/Dce: Laura’s explanation. Since the patient is Dce/Dce, that means that they are only familiar with little c and little e. If they are immunized, they will make antibodies against what they don’t have, which would be anti-C and anti-E.

25
Q

An individual has the following Rh phenotype: D+ C+ E- c+ e+ Using Fischer/Race terminology what is the most likely genotype if they are Causian?

  • DCe/dce
  • Dce/DcE
  • Dce/DcE
  • DCe/dcE
A

DCe/dce

26
Q

A donor unit of which genotype would be acceptable to give to patient who has developed an anti-c?

-r’r
- R0R1
- R2r’
- R1r’

A

R1r’

—
Laura’s explanation: This patient has developed antibodies against little c. So that means the donor unit must not have little c in the blood or else there will be a transfusion reaction and that would be terrible. So from all of the choices, only R1r’ which is DCe/dCe does not provide little c in the blood. So we are in the clear from a transfusion reaction.

27
Q

True or False: A partial D patient can make anti-D

A

True

Laura’s explanation: Partial D patient has almost all the parts to making anti-D. If they are transfused with D positive cells, this may help them develop an anti-D alloantibody a.k.a the part of the epitope that is missing.

Weak D cannot make D. It’s weak.

28
Q

Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in caucasians?

  • D
  • E
  • c
  • e
A

e

29
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding antigens in the Rh system?

  • D and d are an antithetical pair
  • C and c are an antithetical pair
  • E and e are an antiterhical pair
  • f is the combination of ce from one haplotype
A

D and dd are an antithetical pair

30
Q

In which patient population is it most important to identify partial D?

  • Cardiac
  • Elderly
  • Prenatal
  • Sickle cell Disease
A

-Prenatal

31
Q

Cells carrying a weak D antigen require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence?

  • Direct Antiglobulin Test
  • Indirect Antiglonulin Test
  • Microplate Test
  • Warm autoadsorption
A

Indirect Antiglobulin Test

—
This test detects antibodies in the serum (that are floating around ) - We need enhancement to actually find it, so incubation period, AGH!

32
Q

Which property does anti-D share with anti-B?

  • Immunoglobulin subclass
  • Preferred reactive temperature
  • Immune stimulation trigger
  • Ability to cause transfusion reaction
A

Ability to cause transaction reaction

33
Q

Which of the following is not true about Rh null cells?

  • Typically Rhag negative
  • Shaped like Stomatocytes
  • Shaped like Acanthocytes
  • Don’t have D, C, c, e, or E antigens
A

Shaped like Acanthocytes

—
Rh null cells are shaped stomatocytes = mouth like, not spiky

34
Q

A woman types as Rh positive. She has anti-c titer of 32. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by HDN. What is the father’s most likely rh genotype?

  • rr
  • r”r
  • R1r
  • R2r
A

R1r

—
Laura’s Explanation: The patient has anti-D and since she has a anti-c titer of 32. That means the patient has antibodies that fight off against little c. So the mother has to have DCe/DcE as her Rh.

If the baby has a negative DAT, that means that there was no agglutination at AHG and there was no hemolytic reaction of the newborn, so the baby must have have anti-D and anti-C in their blood. So from all of the choices, the only one that has the big D and big C is R1r.

35
Q

You are running a paternity test for a mother who has birthed fraternal twins. You being testing with ABO and Rh phenotype for all. The following are the results:

Mother: O D+C+c-E-e+
Twin A: A D+C+c-E-e+
Twin B A D+C+c+E+e+
What must the father Rh genotype be?

-R1R1
- R2R2
- R1R0
- R1R2

A

R1R2

36
Q

To answer this question, enter results numerically in whole numbers rounded to 1 significant figure:

Help the student you are training to find blood compatible for your patient with an anti-E. You walk them to the frequency chart to look up the frequency of E antigen in the general population. It is roughly ______%. Blood compatible for an antigen of this frequency is _____%. To be sure you find one unit of compatible blood you would type ______ ABO compatible units for the E antigen.

A
  1. 70
  2. 30
  3. 3
37
Q

In IAT tests, RBC, must be washed in saline 4 times before the addition of AHG reagent in order to:

  • Wash away any hemolyzed cells
  • Remove traces of free serum globulins
  • Neutralized any excess AHG reagent
  • Increase the antibody binding of antigen
A

Remove traces of free serum globulins

38
Q

Which of the following reagents is used to facilitate hemagglutination following sensitization of red cells with an IgG alloantibody?

  • anti-human globulin
  • Low ionic strength solution
  • Poly ethylene glycol
  • 22% bovine albumin
A

anti-human globulin

39
Q

Interpret the following test results:

SCI - IS: 0, 37C: 0, AHG: 0, CC: 0
SC2 - IS: 0, 37C: 0, AHG: 0, CC: 0
SC3 - IS: 0, 37C: 0, AHG: 0, CC: 0

  • Positive
  • Negative
  • Invalid
A

Invalid

40
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the net negative charge surrounding red blood cells?

  • Dielectric constant
  • Van der Waals forces
  • Hydrogen bonding
  • Zeta Potential
A

Zeta Potential

41
Q

Who developed the indirect anti globulin test for “incomplete” antibody detection?

  • Orwell
  • Landsteiner
  • Weiner
  • Coombs
A

Coombs

42
Q

Interpret the following serological results:

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 2+
Anti-D: 2+
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 0

A

B pos

43
Q

What follow up testing might you perform to complete this work up this patient is a baby?

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 2+
Anti-D: 0

  • Saline Control
  • Reverse Type testing
  • Weak D test
  • Antibody Screen
A
  • Weak D test
44
Q

Interpret the following serological results.

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
Anti-D: 0
A1 cell: 4+
B cell: 0

  • A pos
  • B pos
  • O pos
  • AB pos
  • A neg
  • B neg
  • O neg
  • AB neg
  • ABO Discrepancy
A

ABO discrepancy

Blood Bank - I, II, III (4 decks)

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