Final Quiz/Assingment questions Flashcards
1
Q
Astigmatism is defined as:
A
a refractive error in which light rays fail to come to a single focus on the retina
2
Q
The mucous membrane that covers the globe adjacent to the cornea is the:
A
Conjunctiva
3
Q
Which of the following statements is true?
A
Always discuss a patient’s clinical and financial records privately and behind closed doors
4
Q
If a patient is taking a drop in their right eye three times a day, it may be abbreviated as:
A
OD gtt tid
5
Q
The retinal receptors are primarily rods and cones. The rods:
A
are distributed in the periphery and aid with night vision
6
Q
Projecting a professional image over the telephone involves:
A
avoiding using the word “no”
7
Q
The tough white fibrous outer coating of the eye that provides supportive tissue from the optic nerve is the:
A
Sclera
8
Q
The colored, circular muscle tissue located behind the cornea and immediately in front of the lens is called the:
A
Iris
9
Q
What is the downside to text and email communication with patients?
A
You have to be extra careful with your wording because the patient cannot tell your tone of voice
10
Q
A unit of measurement of strength or refractive power of lenses is called:
A
Diopter
11
Q
The vitreous is
A
anchored to the retina
12
Q
Children 18 years of age and younger should have their eyes examined at least:
A
at least once a year
13
Q
What three demands must be met when booking patient appointments?
A
Patient needs, practice needs, convenience of the patient
14
Q
The clinical abbreviations “prn” and “IOP” mean:
A
as needed, intraocular pressure
15
Q
An Optometric Assistant:
A
assists the Optometrist in the delivery of eye health care
16
Q
What is the correct abbreviation for “every 4 hours”?
A
q4h
17
Q
An effective way to help the indecisive patient select an appointment time would be:
A
offer two appointment times to choose from
18
Q
The 8 Step method to turn a phone call into a patient includes all of the following except:
A
provide eye exam fees immediately when asked
19
Q
What is the term for double vision?
A
diplopia
20
Q
What is a typical recall for an adult over 65 years of age?
A
once a year
21
Q
Which structure is responsible for the refraction of the eye?
A
cornea
22
Q
Which term means absence of the crystalline lens of the eye?
A
Aphakia
23
Q
The uveal tract consists of the iris, ciliary body, and __________?
A
Choroid
24
Q
Which of the following is an example of a pleasant phrase?
A
Thank you for your feedback
25
What does it mean to take the offensive with phone shoppers?
Gain control of the dialogue
26
At what point do the optic nerves become the optic tracts?
Optic chiasm
27
What is the abbreviation for “with correction”?
cc
28
Which structure produces aqueous humor?
ciliary body
29
When scheduling an appointment, an example of a positive question is:
What type of health insurance coverage do you have?”
30
What is a legal responsibility of an OA?
Keep patient information confidential
31
What can an optometrist NOT do?
operate
32
Which structure is responsible for night vision?
Rods
33
What is another term for slit lamp?
Biomicroscope
34
If a patient is taking a drop in their right eye before bed, it may be abbreviated as:
OD gtt hs
35
Amblyopia is defined as:
decreased visual acuity in one or both eyes, usually due to lack of sensory input during childhood.
36
An instrument for determining the refractive and binocular state of the eye is called a:
Phoropter
37
What three demands must be met when booking patient appointments?
Patient needs, practice needs, convenience of the patient
38
What part of the eye is known as the “window”?
Cornea
39
“DPA” and “ DFE” refers to:
“Diagnostic Pharmaceutical Agent” and “Dilated Fundus Exam”
40
The 8 Step method to turn a phone call into a patient includes all of the following except:
provide eye exam fees immediately when asked
41
A condition common after age forty, in which a gradual lessening of the eye’s power of accommodation causes difficulty in seeing near objects is called:
Presbyopia
42
A condition in which one eye deviates upwards all the time is called:
Hypertropia
43
Landolt C’s can be used to test:
Distance visual acuity of patients who do not speak English
44
For what is keratometry used?
Contact lens fittings
45
The standard testing distance for near visual acuities is:
16 inches / 40cm
46
In terms of infection control, universal precautions apply to:
blood
47
What does the patient wear to measure stereopsis?
3D polarized glasses
48
Which question observes the FOLDAR approach to asking follow – up questions?
Where is the headache located?
49
Which would cause erroneous results with automated refractors?
Improper patient alignment
50
Which statement about contrast sensitivity testing is true?
The patient should be visually – corrected for the test distance
51
Which test is used for colour vision screening?
Ishihara
52
When testing visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/30 line but makes 2 errors. How do you record this finding?
20/30
53
Stereoacuity is measured in:
seconds of arc
54
Which statement about handwashing is true?
Wash before and after every patient contact
55
Colour vision testing is done:
Monocularly to detect acquired defects
56
Sterility of diagnostic drops is compromised when:
The bottle tip is touched
57
Non – Contact Tonometry (NCT) measurements:
Require the removal of contact lenses first
58
Systolic blood pressure is:
The pressure of the blood as a result of contractions of the ventricles
59
Which of the following would be considered abnormal IOP measurements:
OD: 22 mm Hg OS: 23 mm Hg.
60
A test used to measure contrast sensitivity is:
Pelli Robson chart
61
ishihara test plates are used to detect:
red-green colour vision anomalies
62
In terms of infection control, universal precautions apply to all of the following, except:
tears
63
The standard testing distance for near visual acuities is:
16 inches/40cm
64
When testing the left eye for distance visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/30 line but makes 2 errors. How do you record this finding?
OS: 20/30-2
65
Diastolic blood pressure is:
the pressure of the ventricles at rest
66
A test used to measure depth perception is:
stereofly
67
To disinfect a semi-critical item it is appropriate to use:
3% hydrogen peroxide
68
The most significant question to ask during case history is:
Cheif complaint
69
Keratometry is:
the measurement of the central anterior curvature of the cornea
70
The purpose of stereopsis testing is to:
quantify depth perception
71
With the automated refractor, instrument myopia may occur due to:
the patient’s awareness of near even though the target is set at optical infinity
72
Contrast Sensitivity:
refers to the ability of the visual system to discriminate between an object and its background
73
Lea Symbols can be used to:
check the visual acuity of children who do not know their alphabet
74
About where from our line of sight does our physiological blind spot exist?
15° temporally
75
In visual field analysis, the term “threshold” refers to:
The brightness level where a stimulus can be seen 50% of the time
76
In relation to automated visual field testing, false positives are:
The rate at which a patient will respond to a stimulus that is not present
77
An advantage of the Optomap over a retinal cameras is:
Penetrates opacities
78
For which visual field is the superior retina responsible?
Inferior
79
Pachymetry is useful for all of the following situations, except:
Cataracts
80
Frequency Doubling Technology (FDT):
Utilizes a series of low spatial frequency gratings which flicker at a specific rate for the test stimulus
81
The Hill of Vision
Decreases in size and width with age
82
Tangent screen field testing:
Gives the sensitivity of the central 30 degrees & maps the blind spot
83
What number of fingers should NOT be shown during confrontation visual fields?
three
84
Rods:
Are responsible for our perception of movement and light
85
Which of the following is NOT a factor to obtain accurate fundus photos?
visual aqcuity
86
Frequency Doubling Technology (FDT):
Comprises a test field of 17 – 19 sectors to be measured
87
Corneal topography measures:
The curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea
88
Corneal topography is useful in all of the following conditions, except:
glaucoma
89
Which of the following statements is correct?
Rods are found in greatest proportion in the peripheral retina
90
The average corneal thickness is approximately:
540 µm
91
In perimetry, the level where a stimulus can be seen 50% of the time refers to:
threshold
92
A Scotoma is
an area of non-seeing in the visual field
93
An ultra-wide field retinal imaging device is the
optomap
94
Fundus photography provides photo documentation of the:
optic nerve
95
A pachymeter is used to:
measure corneal thickness
96
Tomographers have the ability to:
all of the above, (measure of the depth of the anterior chamber, differentiate the retinal layers,
measure the cup-to-disc-ratio)
97
The superior retina is responsible for our _________ visual field.
inferior
98
The assessment of corneal thickness is useful when:
all of the above (monitoring the progression of keratoconus, monitoring corneal edema,
determining a patients’ suitability for refractive surgery)
99
What percentage of false positives is considered poor reliability in a visual field test?
33%
100
When measuring confrontation visual fields:
the examiner and patient should be seated at the same height
101
An example of a tomographer is:
OCT
102
The normal visual field extends approximately:
90 degrees temporally, 60 degrees nasally and superiorly and 70 degrees inferiorly
103
A disadvantage of manual keratometry is that it:
only measures the central 3mm of the cornea
104
A reliable result for an automated visual field result depends upon:
alert patient
105
In relation to automated visual field testing, false positives are:
the rate at which a patient will respond to a stimulus that is not present
106
Corneal topography is the measurement of the:
curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea
107
Which of the following is problematic when taking retinal photos?
Droopy eye lids
108
The Inferior retina is responsible for our _________ visual field.
superior
109
If a patient is a glaucoma suspect, a _____________________ test should be performed.
Central Threshold
110
What is a symptom of Computer Vision Syndrome symptom?
diplopia
111
When secondary clouding occurs after cataract surgery:
YAG laser capsulotomy is performed
112
When using the Amsler Grid, the patient is instructed to:
cover one eye
113
A report letter differs from a referral letter in that:
Referral letters require follow – up action
114
Common symptoms of macular degeneration include all, except:
Peripheral vision loss
115
Which of the following drug classes is used to inhibit corneal sensation:
Anaesthetics
116
Treatment to control further vision loss with open angle glaucoma is achieved by:
Laser treatment in the anterior chamber
117
Secondary glaucoma is attributed to:
Some types of medication
118
What is a key factor in the likelihood of developing diabetic retinopathy?
Duration of diabetes
119
LASIK is considered advantageous over PRK because:
Of earlier refractive stability
120
Diabetic retinopathy manifests as:
exudates
121
A true ocular emergency requiring treatment within minutes is:
sudden vision loss
122
The most noticeable symptom of a retinal detachment is:
Appearance of a dark growing shadow
123
Acute glaucoma:
Is a build-up of eye pressure resulting from a blockage of fluid by the iris
124
Sjogren’s syndrome manifests which symptoms?
dry mouth and eyes
125
Dry AMD is best described as:
gradual vision loss associated with retinal pigment epithelium atrophy
126
The ability of the eye to focus at near involves:
Study Guide pg. 8
127
Examination of the pediatric patient is essential because there is a distinct connection between ______ and ________:
vision, learning
128
The statistics on vision problems in children reveal that 1 in _____ children are at risk of undiagnosed vision problems:
10
129
Common symptoms of dry eye include:
burning sensation
130
The presbyopic eye:
has decreased accommodative ability
131
The myopic eye:
focuses light at a point in front of the retina
132
Which of the following statements about cataract development is true?
The cloudiness does not spread from one eye to the other
133
Phacoemulsification is a surgical term associated with what procedure?
cataract surgery
134
Which of the following statements is true?
Dry macular degeneration results in gradual, moderate vision loss
135
The cup-to-disc ratio is a factor in what condition?
Glaucoma
136
Which is not a symptom of cataract development?
Decreased peripheral vision
137
Computer Vision Syndrome can be explained as:
eyestrain sometimes accompanied by musculoskeletal disorders
138
Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy involves:
new blood vessel growth on the retina, iris, or disk
139
A non- emergency, yet urgent ocular situation that should be seen sometime the same day is:
OA pg.386
140
Treatment of open-angle glaucoma may include:
trabeculoplasty
141
Which of the following drug classes is generally NOT prescribed to treat ocular disease?
Anesthetics
142
Treatment to control further vision loss with open angle glaucoma is achieved by:
drops, laser treatment, surgery
143
For the Rx +4.00 -1.00 x 180, what is written at 90 degrees on the power cross
3
144
A lens has a focal length of 3 meters. What is the power of the lens?
+0.33D
145
An occupational progressive lens:
is the lens of choice for primarily intermediate and near viewing
146
Principal meridians relate to:
cylinder lenses
147
When a lens has no power it is called:
plano
148
The image viewed through a prism is displaced:
toward the apex
149
The principal meridians are always:
90 degrees apar
150
The segment of a conventional flat-top bifocal is:
inset nasally
151
Transpose the following Rx: -3.50 +2.00 x 137.
-1.50 -2.00 x 047
152
Transpose this Rx: -1.00 -1.00x180:
-2.00 +1.00 x 090
153
Calculate the near power for this Rx: OD: -3.25 -0.25 x 180 add +2.00 OS: -3.50 -0.75 x 180 add +2.25
OD: -1.25 -0.25 x 180 OS: -1.25 -0.75 x 180
154
A presbyopic electrician who primarily installs ceiling fixtures might find ___________ lenses extremely helpful:
double segment bifoca
155
Which of the following statements about vertex distance is true?
A minus lens moved further from the face acts weaker
156
AR refers to a coating:
that increases light transmission and protects the lens
157
A good reason for using aspheric lens design would be:
for optically correcting aberrations in high Rx’
158
Calculate the spherical equivalent of -3.00 -1.00 x 025.
-3.5
159
The properties of Trivex™ include:
excellent optics, excellent impact resistance
160
An atoric lens design could be described as:
being able to increase the area of peripheral vision
161
When a lens has a single point focus, it is a:
spherical lens
162
The distance portion of a lens is +1.75. The near add power of the Rx is +1.25. What is the near power through the segment portion?
3
163
A plus lens could be described as:
thicker in the center
164
The acronym MASCOT is used as a reminder of the lens options to consider; which of the following is NOT included:
Cosmetic
165
Each colour has a specific wavelength & is measured in?
Nanometers
166
Damage to scratch resistant coating is more likely to occur from:
Excessive heat
167
Index of refraction is determined by the formula?
Speed of light in air/speed of light in the lens material
168
An advantage of using photochromic glass over plastic lenses is:
Function never wears out
169
Determine the intermediate power of the following 50% trifocal: + 2.00 – 1.00 x 180 add + 2.50
+ 3.25 – 1.00 x 180
170
Polarized ophthalmic lenses:
Are not recommended for pilots
171
A disadvantage of straight top bifocals vs. PALs (Progressive Addition Lenses) is that:
They are limited in their ability to provide clear vision at intermediate distances
172
The lens material with the lowest abbe value is?
Polycarbonate
173
The image viewed through a prism is displaced:
Toward the apex
174
The principal meridians are always:
90° apart
175
"With the rule astigmatism" would be described as?
the steepest meridian lies at 090 degree
176
Most photochromic lenses change colour with reaction to the amount of?
Ultraviolet light
177
To accurately measure an unknown PAL the first step is to:
identify the lens and re-mark the lens reference points using the manufacturer’s centration chart
178
In lensometry, the near addition of a flat top bifocal is found by:
taking the difference between the distance and near power readings
179
When using the manual lensometer to spot a spherocylinder lens for edging, the power wheel and the axis wheel are ___________ before placing the lens in the lensometer.
turned to the sphere power and axis of the prescription
180
The distance reference point of a progressive addition lens is located:
within the manufacturer’s distance arc or circle
181
When using a manual lensometer, the cylindrical component of the recorded prescription is determined by:
the power difference between the sphere reading and the cylinder readings
182
The benefit of using the manufacturers centration chart for PAL’s is:
opportunity to assess if the lens choice is appropriate for the frame selected
183
Using a manual lensometer to read a lens in minus cylinder power, the power wheel is first turned to:
high plus
184
The MRP is also referred to as:
prism reference point
185
Using the Rx provided below, what number would you read on the power wheel of a manual lensometer when the sphere target lines for the flat-top segment are in focus? OD: -3.25 -2.00 x 010 add +2.00
-1.25
186
How do you properly measure the near PDs in a ST/FT bifocal pair of glasses?
The inside edge of one segment to the outside edge of the other
187
If the prescription for a lens is +6.00 -4.00 x 050, what number would you read on the power wheel of a manual lensometer when the sphere target lines are in focus?
6
188
A __________ is used to measure the center thickness of a lens.
Lens caliper
189
To accurately remark an unknown PAL, you will need:
Progressive Lens Identifier book, corresponding centration chart, marking pen
190
After the first lens has been centered, measured and spotted on a lensometer, the second lens must not be:
adjusted up or down with the lens table
191
The typical removable markings on a PAL when it is returned from the lab include:
fitting cross
192
When prescribed prism is base up and base out, the target in the manual lensometer:
will not fall on the 90 or 180 degree line
193
When sphere and cylinder lines focus at the same time, and the lines cross at the center of the reticle, you are viewing:
a sphere lens without prism
194
Vertical prism is detected with the manual lensometer when:
both lenses don’t center equally at the same table height
195
A __________ is used to measure the base curve of a lens.
Lens clock
196
When reading a lens with a manual lensometer, you observe that the sphere and cylinder lines are in focus at the same time. What does this indicate?
Sphere lens
197
A patient has a PD of 65. The frame measurements are as follows: A = 53, B = 49, DBL = 18. How much will each lens need to be decentered?
3mm
198
The benefit of using the manufacturers centration chart for PALs is:
Opportunity to assess if the lens choice is appropriate for the frame selected
199
When using a manual lensometer, if cylinder is present in the lens:
the difference in power between the sphere lines and the cylinder lines is the amount of cylinder in the Rx.
200
Given a frame PD of 64, a patient PD of 60, and an ED of 62, what is the minimum blank size required?
70
201
Which of the following lenses do not meet safety standards?
Glass lenses
202
Which measurement is NOT considered in acceptable tolerance standards?
Lens size (‘A’ measurement)
203
In a Freeform PAL lens design, the prescription has been modified:
To a compensated Rx based on specific lens measurements provided
204
On a Progressive Addition Lens (PAL), what is engraved on the lens below the reference mark on the temporal side of the lens?
The addition power
205
The palpebral fissure is:
the almond-shaped opening between the upper and lower eyelids
206
Contact lens solutions that are grouped as “surfactants” are used to:
assist with removing debris from the lens during the cleaning process
207
Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis most commonly occurs when:
contact lenses are not adequately cleaned with a surfactant
208
Hydrogen peroxide:
is an effective disinfectant but must be neutralized before placement on the eye
209
What is the first step in a contact lens tutorial?
Washing your hands
210
After inspecting a GP lens, and prior to inserting it:
a drop of wetting solution is placed in the lens
211
Compared to soft contact lenses worn on a monthly basis, the advantages of GP lenses include:
decreased lens deposits
212
An advantage of using monovision to compensate for presbyopia is:
easier to fit than multifocal contact lenses
213
Orthokeratology lenses are:
specially designed GP lenses worn while sleeping to re-shape the cornea
214
All of the following are uses of tinted contact lenses, except:
provide protection to scratched corneas
215
Which structure is not a component of the lacrimal drainage system?
Cilia
216
Before a new contact lens patient departs the office, they should receive:
a wearing schedule and instructions
217
Which of the following is not a method for cleaning and disinfecting a contact lens case?
Soak the case in disinfecting solution and rinse it with tap water
218
Corneal neovascularization occurs when:
there is inadequate oxygen supply to the cornea
219
In regard to successful contact lens wear, the role of the pre-corneal fluid is to:
provide a rinsing system to remove debris from the cornea and contact lens
220
The normal blink rate is approximately:
10-15 times per minute
221
Wetting solutions are used with GP lenses to:
act as a mechanical buffer between the lens, cornea and eye lids
222
The thickest layer of the cornea is the:
Stroma
223
Blink inhibition can:
reduce the cleaning and wetting of the anterior surface of contact lenses
224
Where is the lateral canthus located?
At the temporal junction of the upper and lower eyelids
225
Soft contact lenses should be rubbed:
at the end of each day worn, with solution
226
When inserting a GP lens, it is placed:
Directly on the cornea
227
How to respond if a caller asks “How much are contact lenses?”
Are you a patient here?
228
Which pre – corneal fluid layer has these properties: convert the corneal epithelium from a hydrophobic to a hydrophilic surface?
Mucin
229
Which pre – corneal fluid layer has these properties: increases surface tension and slows evaporation?
Lipid
230
To determine if a soft contact lens is inverted:
Place it on the index finger and view the shape of the edge of the lens
231
A surfactant is sometimes called:
Daily cleaner
232
Which of the following statements is poor advice for a contact lens patient?
You may substitute cleaning solutions at your own discretion
233
A disadvantage of using monovision to compensate for presbyopia is:
Depth perception is compromised
234
Compared to GP lenses, the disadvantages of soft contact lenses include:
Vision may be less crisp
