Final Quiz/Assingment questions Flashcards
Astigmatism is defined as:
a refractive error in which light rays fail to come to a single focus on the retina
The mucous membrane that covers the globe adjacent to the cornea is the:
Conjunctiva
Which of the following statements is true?
Always discuss a patient’s clinical and financial records privately and behind closed doors
If a patient is taking a drop in their right eye three times a day, it may be abbreviated as:
OD gtt tid
The retinal receptors are primarily rods and cones. The rods:
are distributed in the periphery and aid with night vision
Projecting a professional image over the telephone involves:
avoiding using the word “no”
The tough white fibrous outer coating of the eye that provides supportive tissue from the optic nerve is the:
Sclera
The colored, circular muscle tissue located behind the cornea and immediately in front of the lens is called the:
Iris
What is the downside to text and email communication with patients?
You have to be extra careful with your wording because the patient cannot tell your tone of voice
A unit of measurement of strength or refractive power of lenses is called:
Diopter
The vitreous is
anchored to the retina
Children 18 years of age and younger should have their eyes examined at least:
at least once a year
What three demands must be met when booking patient appointments?
Patient needs, practice needs, convenience of the patient
The clinical abbreviations “prn” and “IOP” mean:
as needed, intraocular pressure
An Optometric Assistant:
assists the Optometrist in the delivery of eye health care
What is the correct abbreviation for “every 4 hours”?
q4h
An effective way to help the indecisive patient select an appointment time would be:
offer two appointment times to choose from
The 8 Step method to turn a phone call into a patient includes all of the following except:
provide eye exam fees immediately when asked
What is the term for double vision?
diplopia
What is a typical recall for an adult over 65 years of age?
once a year
Which structure is responsible for the refraction of the eye?
cornea
Which term means absence of the crystalline lens of the eye?
Aphakia
The uveal tract consists of the iris, ciliary body, and __________?
Choroid
Which of the following is an example of a pleasant phrase?
Thank you for your feedback
What does it mean to take the offensive with phone shoppers?
Gain control of the dialogue
At what point do the optic nerves become the optic tracts?
Optic chiasm
What is the abbreviation for “with correction”?
cc
Which structure produces aqueous humor?
ciliary body
When scheduling an appointment, an example of a positive question is:
What type of health insurance coverage do you have?”
What is a legal responsibility of an OA?
Keep patient information confidential
What can an optometrist NOT do?
operate
Which structure is responsible for night vision?
Rods
What is another term for slit lamp?
Biomicroscope
If a patient is taking a drop in their right eye before bed, it may be abbreviated as:
OD gtt hs
Amblyopia is defined as:
decreased visual acuity in one or both eyes, usually due to lack of sensory input during childhood.
An instrument for determining the refractive and binocular state of the eye is called a:
Phoropter
What three demands must be met when booking patient appointments?
Patient needs, practice needs, convenience of the patient
What part of the eye is known as the “window”?
Cornea
“DPA” and “ DFE” refers to:
“Diagnostic Pharmaceutical Agent” and “Dilated Fundus Exam”
The 8 Step method to turn a phone call into a patient includes all of the following except:
provide eye exam fees immediately when asked
A condition common after age forty, in which a gradual lessening of the eye’s power of accommodation causes difficulty in seeing near objects is called:
Presbyopia
A condition in which one eye deviates upwards all the time is called:
Hypertropia
Landolt C’s can be used to test:
Distance visual acuity of patients who do not speak English
For what is keratometry used?
Contact lens fittings
The standard testing distance for near visual acuities is:
16 inches / 40cm
In terms of infection control, universal precautions apply to:
blood
What does the patient wear to measure stereopsis?
3D polarized glasses
Which question observes the FOLDAR approach to asking follow – up questions?
Where is the headache located?
Which would cause erroneous results with automated refractors?
Improper patient alignment
Which statement about contrast sensitivity testing is true?
The patient should be visually – corrected for the test distance
Which test is used for colour vision screening?
Ishihara
When testing visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/30 line but makes 2 errors. How do you record this finding?
20/30
Stereoacuity is measured in:
seconds of arc
Which statement about handwashing is true?
Wash before and after every patient contact
Colour vision testing is done:
Monocularly to detect acquired defects
Sterility of diagnostic drops is compromised when:
The bottle tip is touched
Non – Contact Tonometry (NCT) measurements:
Require the removal of contact lenses first
Systolic blood pressure is:
The pressure of the blood as a result of contractions of the ventricles
Which of the following would be considered abnormal IOP measurements:
OD: 22 mm Hg OS: 23 mm Hg.
A test used to measure contrast sensitivity is:
Pelli Robson chart
ishihara test plates are used to detect:
red-green colour vision anomalies
In terms of infection control, universal precautions apply to all of the following, except:
tears
The standard testing distance for near visual acuities is:
16 inches/40cm
When testing the left eye for distance visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/30 line but makes 2 errors. How do you record this finding?
OS: 20/30-2
Diastolic blood pressure is:
the pressure of the ventricles at rest
A test used to measure depth perception is:
stereofly
To disinfect a semi-critical item it is appropriate to use:
3% hydrogen peroxide
The most significant question to ask during case history is:
Cheif complaint
Keratometry is:
the measurement of the central anterior curvature of the cornea
The purpose of stereopsis testing is to:
quantify depth perception
With the automated refractor, instrument myopia may occur due to:
the patient’s awareness of near even though the target is set at optical infinity
Contrast Sensitivity:
refers to the ability of the visual system to discriminate between an object and its background
Lea Symbols can be used to:
check the visual acuity of children who do not know their alphabet
About where from our line of sight does our physiological blind spot exist?
15° temporally
In visual field analysis, the term “threshold” refers to:
The brightness level where a stimulus can be seen 50% of the time
In relation to automated visual field testing, false positives are:
The rate at which a patient will respond to a stimulus that is not present
An advantage of the Optomap over a retinal cameras is:
Penetrates opacities
For which visual field is the superior retina responsible?
Inferior
Pachymetry is useful for all of the following situations, except:
Cataracts
Frequency Doubling Technology (FDT):
Utilizes a series of low spatial frequency gratings which flicker at a specific rate for the test stimulus
The Hill of Vision
Decreases in size and width with age
Tangent screen field testing:
Gives the sensitivity of the central 30 degrees & maps the blind spot
What number of fingers should NOT be shown during confrontation visual fields?
three
Rods:
Are responsible for our perception of movement and light
Which of the following is NOT a factor to obtain accurate fundus photos?
visual aqcuity
Frequency Doubling Technology (FDT):
Comprises a test field of 17 – 19 sectors to be measured
Corneal topography measures:
The curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea
Corneal topography is useful in all of the following conditions, except:
glaucoma
Which of the following statements is correct?
Rods are found in greatest proportion in the peripheral retina
The average corneal thickness is approximately:
540 µm
In perimetry, the level where a stimulus can be seen 50% of the time refers to:
threshold
A Scotoma is
an area of non-seeing in the visual field
An ultra-wide field retinal imaging device is the
optomap
Fundus photography provides photo documentation of the:
optic nerve
A pachymeter is used to:
measure corneal thickness
Tomographers have the ability to:
all of the above, (measure of the depth of the anterior chamber, differentiate the retinal layers,
measure the cup-to-disc-ratio)
The superior retina is responsible for our _________ visual field.
inferior
The assessment of corneal thickness is useful when:
all of the above (monitoring the progression of keratoconus, monitoring corneal edema,
determining a patients’ suitability for refractive surgery)
What percentage of false positives is considered poor reliability in a visual field test?
33%
When measuring confrontation visual fields:
the examiner and patient should be seated at the same height
An example of a tomographer is:
OCT
The normal visual field extends approximately:
90 degrees temporally, 60 degrees nasally and superiorly and 70 degrees inferiorly
A disadvantage of manual keratometry is that it:
only measures the central 3mm of the cornea
A reliable result for an automated visual field result depends upon:
alert patient
In relation to automated visual field testing, false positives are:
the rate at which a patient will respond to a stimulus that is not present
Corneal topography is the measurement of the:
curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea
Which of the following is problematic when taking retinal photos?
Droopy eye lids
The Inferior retina is responsible for our _________ visual field.
superior
If a patient is a glaucoma suspect, a _____________________ test should be performed.
Central Threshold
What is a symptom of Computer Vision Syndrome symptom?
diplopia
When secondary clouding occurs after cataract surgery:
YAG laser capsulotomy is performed
When using the Amsler Grid, the patient is instructed to:
cover one eye
A report letter differs from a referral letter in that:
Referral letters require follow – up action
Common symptoms of macular degeneration include all, except:
Peripheral vision loss
Which of the following drug classes is used to inhibit corneal sensation:
Anaesthetics
Treatment to control further vision loss with open angle glaucoma is achieved by:
Laser treatment in the anterior chamber
Secondary glaucoma is attributed to:
Some types of medication
What is a key factor in the likelihood of developing diabetic retinopathy?
Duration of diabetes
LASIK is considered advantageous over PRK because:
Of earlier refractive stability
Diabetic retinopathy manifests as:
exudates
A true ocular emergency requiring treatment within minutes is:
sudden vision loss
The most noticeable symptom of a retinal detachment is:
Appearance of a dark growing shadow
Acute glaucoma:
Is a build-up of eye pressure resulting from a blockage of fluid by the iris
Sjogren’s syndrome manifests which symptoms?
dry mouth and eyes
Dry AMD is best described as:
gradual vision loss associated with retinal pigment epithelium atrophy
The ability of the eye to focus at near involves:
Study Guide pg. 8
Examination of the pediatric patient is essential because there is a distinct connection between ______ and ________:
vision, learning
The statistics on vision problems in children reveal that 1 in _____ children are at risk of undiagnosed vision problems:
10
Common symptoms of dry eye include:
burning sensation
The presbyopic eye:
has decreased accommodative ability
The myopic eye:
focuses light at a point in front of the retina
Which of the following statements about cataract development is true?
The cloudiness does not spread from one eye to the other
Phacoemulsification is a surgical term associated with what procedure?
cataract surgery
Which of the following statements is true?
Dry macular degeneration results in gradual, moderate vision loss
The cup-to-disc ratio is a factor in what condition?
Glaucoma
Which is not a symptom of cataract development?
Decreased peripheral vision
Computer Vision Syndrome can be explained as:
eyestrain sometimes accompanied by musculoskeletal disorders
Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy involves:
new blood vessel growth on the retina, iris, or disk
A non- emergency, yet urgent ocular situation that should be seen sometime the same day is:
OA pg.386
Treatment of open-angle glaucoma may include:
trabeculoplasty
Which of the following drug classes is generally NOT prescribed to treat ocular disease?
Anesthetics
Treatment to control further vision loss with open angle glaucoma is achieved by:
drops, laser treatment, surgery
For the Rx +4.00 -1.00 x 180, what is written at 90 degrees on the power cross
3
A lens has a focal length of 3 meters. What is the power of the lens?
+0.33D
An occupational progressive lens:
is the lens of choice for primarily intermediate and near viewing
Principal meridians relate to:
cylinder lenses
When a lens has no power it is called:
plano
The image viewed through a prism is displaced:
toward the apex
The principal meridians are always:
90 degrees apar
The segment of a conventional flat-top bifocal is:
inset nasally
Transpose the following Rx: -3.50 +2.00 x 137.
-1.50 -2.00 x 047
Transpose this Rx: -1.00 -1.00x180:
-2.00 +1.00 x 090
Calculate the near power for this Rx: OD: -3.25 -0.25 x 180 add +2.00 OS: -3.50 -0.75 x 180 add +2.25
OD: -1.25 -0.25 x 180 OS: -1.25 -0.75 x 180
A presbyopic electrician who primarily installs ceiling fixtures might find ___________ lenses extremely helpful:
double segment bifoca
Which of the following statements about vertex distance is true?
A minus lens moved further from the face acts weaker
AR refers to a coating:
that increases light transmission and protects the lens
A good reason for using aspheric lens design would be:
for optically correcting aberrations in high Rx’
Calculate the spherical equivalent of -3.00 -1.00 x 025.
-3.5
The properties of Trivex™ include:
excellent optics, excellent impact resistance
An atoric lens design could be described as:
being able to increase the area of peripheral vision
When a lens has a single point focus, it is a:
spherical lens
The distance portion of a lens is +1.75. The near add power of the Rx is +1.25. What is the near power through the segment portion?
3
A plus lens could be described as:
thicker in the center
The acronym MASCOT is used as a reminder of the lens options to consider; which of the following is NOT included:
Cosmetic
Each colour has a specific wavelength & is measured in?
Nanometers
Damage to scratch resistant coating is more likely to occur from:
Excessive heat
Index of refraction is determined by the formula?
Speed of light in air/speed of light in the lens material
An advantage of using photochromic glass over plastic lenses is:
Function never wears out
Determine the intermediate power of the following 50% trifocal: + 2.00 – 1.00 x 180 add + 2.50
+ 3.25 – 1.00 x 180
Polarized ophthalmic lenses:
Are not recommended for pilots
A disadvantage of straight top bifocals vs. PALs (Progressive Addition Lenses) is that:
They are limited in their ability to provide clear vision at intermediate distances
The lens material with the lowest abbe value is?
Polycarbonate
The image viewed through a prism is displaced:
Toward the apex
The principal meridians are always:
90° apart
“With the rule astigmatism” would be described as?
the steepest meridian lies at 090 degree
Most photochromic lenses change colour with reaction to the amount of?
Ultraviolet light
To accurately measure an unknown PAL the first step is to:
identify the lens and re-mark the lens reference points using the manufacturer’s centration chart
In lensometry, the near addition of a flat top bifocal is found by:
taking the difference between the distance and near power readings
When using the manual lensometer to spot a spherocylinder lens for edging, the power wheel and the axis wheel are ___________ before placing the lens in the lensometer.
turned to the sphere power and axis of the prescription
The distance reference point of a progressive addition lens is located:
within the manufacturer’s distance arc or circle
When using a manual lensometer, the cylindrical component of the recorded prescription is determined by:
the power difference between the sphere reading and the cylinder readings
The benefit of using the manufacturers centration chart for PAL’s is:
opportunity to assess if the lens choice is appropriate for the frame selected
Using a manual lensometer to read a lens in minus cylinder power, the power wheel is first turned to:
high plus
The MRP is also referred to as:
prism reference point
Using the Rx provided below, what number would you read on the power wheel of a manual lensometer when the sphere target lines for the flat-top segment are in focus? OD: -3.25 -2.00 x 010 add +2.00
-1.25
How do you properly measure the near PDs in a ST/FT bifocal pair of glasses?
The inside edge of one segment to the outside edge of the other
If the prescription for a lens is +6.00 -4.00 x 050, what number would you read on the power wheel of a manual lensometer when the sphere target lines are in focus?
6
A __________ is used to measure the center thickness of a lens.
Lens caliper
To accurately remark an unknown PAL, you will need:
Progressive Lens Identifier book, corresponding centration chart, marking pen
After the first lens has been centered, measured and spotted on a lensometer, the second lens must not be:
adjusted up or down with the lens table
The typical removable markings on a PAL when it is returned from the lab include:
fitting cross
When prescribed prism is base up and base out, the target in the manual lensometer:
will not fall on the 90 or 180 degree line
When sphere and cylinder lines focus at the same time, and the lines cross at the center of the reticle, you are viewing:
a sphere lens without prism
Vertical prism is detected with the manual lensometer when:
both lenses don’t center equally at the same table height
A __________ is used to measure the base curve of a lens.
Lens clock
When reading a lens with a manual lensometer, you observe that the sphere and cylinder lines are in focus at the same time. What does this indicate?
Sphere lens
A patient has a PD of 65. The frame measurements are as follows: A = 53, B = 49, DBL = 18. How much will each lens need to be decentered?
3mm
The benefit of using the manufacturers centration chart for PALs is:
Opportunity to assess if the lens choice is appropriate for the frame selected
When using a manual lensometer, if cylinder is present in the lens:
the difference in power between the sphere lines and the cylinder lines is the amount of cylinder in the Rx.
Given a frame PD of 64, a patient PD of 60, and an ED of 62, what is the minimum blank size required?
70
Which of the following lenses do not meet safety standards?
Glass lenses
Which measurement is NOT considered in acceptable tolerance standards?
Lens size (‘A’ measurement)
In a Freeform PAL lens design, the prescription has been modified:
To a compensated Rx based on specific lens measurements provided
On a Progressive Addition Lens (PAL), what is engraved on the lens below the reference mark on the temporal side of the lens?
The addition power
The palpebral fissure is:
the almond-shaped opening between the upper and lower eyelids
Contact lens solutions that are grouped as “surfactants” are used to:
assist with removing debris from the lens during the cleaning process
Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis most commonly occurs when:
contact lenses are not adequately cleaned with a surfactant
Hydrogen peroxide:
is an effective disinfectant but must be neutralized before placement on the eye
What is the first step in a contact lens tutorial?
Washing your hands
After inspecting a GP lens, and prior to inserting it:
a drop of wetting solution is placed in the lens
Compared to soft contact lenses worn on a monthly basis, the advantages of GP lenses include:
decreased lens deposits
An advantage of using monovision to compensate for presbyopia is:
easier to fit than multifocal contact lenses
Orthokeratology lenses are:
specially designed GP lenses worn while sleeping to re-shape the cornea
All of the following are uses of tinted contact lenses, except:
provide protection to scratched corneas
Which structure is not a component of the lacrimal drainage system?
Cilia
Before a new contact lens patient departs the office, they should receive:
a wearing schedule and instructions
Which of the following is not a method for cleaning and disinfecting a contact lens case?
Soak the case in disinfecting solution and rinse it with tap water
Corneal neovascularization occurs when:
there is inadequate oxygen supply to the cornea
In regard to successful contact lens wear, the role of the pre-corneal fluid is to:
provide a rinsing system to remove debris from the cornea and contact lens
The normal blink rate is approximately:
10-15 times per minute
Wetting solutions are used with GP lenses to:
act as a mechanical buffer between the lens, cornea and eye lids
The thickest layer of the cornea is the:
Stroma
Blink inhibition can:
reduce the cleaning and wetting of the anterior surface of contact lenses
Where is the lateral canthus located?
At the temporal junction of the upper and lower eyelids
Soft contact lenses should be rubbed:
at the end of each day worn, with solution
When inserting a GP lens, it is placed:
Directly on the cornea
How to respond if a caller asks “How much are contact lenses?”
Are you a patient here?
Which pre – corneal fluid layer has these properties: convert the corneal epithelium from a hydrophobic to a hydrophilic surface?
Mucin
Which pre – corneal fluid layer has these properties: increases surface tension and slows evaporation?
Lipid
To determine if a soft contact lens is inverted:
Place it on the index finger and view the shape of the edge of the lens
A surfactant is sometimes called:
Daily cleaner
Which of the following statements is poor advice for a contact lens patient?
You may substitute cleaning solutions at your own discretion
A disadvantage of using monovision to compensate for presbyopia is:
Depth perception is compromised
Compared to GP lenses, the disadvantages of soft contact lenses include:
Vision may be less crisp
