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Canadian Certified Optometric Assistant > Final Quiz/Assingment questions > Flashcards

Final Quiz/Assingment questions Flashcards

1
Q

Astigmatism is defined as:

A

a refractive error in which light rays fail to come to a single focus on the retina

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2
Q

The mucous membrane that covers the globe adjacent to the cornea is the:

A

Conjunctiva

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Always discuss a patient’s clinical and financial records privately and behind closed doors

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4
Q

If a patient is taking a drop in their right eye three times a day, it may be abbreviated as:

A

OD gtt tid

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5
Q

The retinal receptors are primarily rods and cones. The rods:

A

are distributed in the periphery and aid with night vision

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6
Q

Projecting a professional image over the telephone involves:

A

avoiding using the word “no”

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7
Q

The tough white fibrous outer coating of the eye that provides supportive tissue from the optic nerve is the:

A

Sclera

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8
Q

The colored, circular muscle tissue located behind the cornea and immediately in front of the lens is called the:

A

Iris

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9
Q

What is the downside to text and email communication with patients?

A

You have to be extra careful with your wording because the patient cannot tell your tone of voice

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10
Q

A unit of measurement of strength or refractive power of lenses is called:

A

Diopter

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11
Q

The vitreous is

A

anchored to the retina

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12
Q

Children 18 years of age and younger should have their eyes examined at least:

A

at least once a year

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13
Q

What three demands must be met when booking patient appointments?

A

Patient needs, practice needs, convenience of the patient

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14
Q

The clinical abbreviations “prn” and “IOP” mean:

A

as needed, intraocular pressure

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15
Q

An Optometric Assistant:

A

assists the Optometrist in the delivery of eye health care

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16
Q

What is the correct abbreviation for “every 4 hours”?

A

q4h

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17
Q

An effective way to help the indecisive patient select an appointment time would be:

A

offer two appointment times to choose from

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18
Q

The 8 Step method to turn a phone call into a patient includes all of the following except:

A

provide eye exam fees immediately when asked

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19
Q

What is the term for double vision?

A

diplopia

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20
Q

What is a typical recall for an adult over 65 years of age?

A

once a year

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21
Q

Which structure is responsible for the refraction of the eye?

A

cornea

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22
Q

Which term means absence of the crystalline lens of the eye?

A

Aphakia

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23
Q

The uveal tract consists of the iris, ciliary body, and __________?

A

Choroid

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24
Q

Which of the following is an example of a pleasant phrase?

A

Thank you for your feedback

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25
Q

What does it mean to take the offensive with phone shoppers?

A

Gain control of the dialogue

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26
Q

At what point do the optic nerves become the optic tracts?

A

Optic chiasm

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27
Q

What is the abbreviation for “with correction”?

A

cc

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28
Q

Which structure produces aqueous humor?

A

ciliary body

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29
Q

When scheduling an appointment, an example of a positive question is:

A

What type of health insurance coverage do you have?”

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30
Q

What is a legal responsibility of an OA?

A

Keep patient information confidential

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31
Q

What can an optometrist NOT do?

A

operate

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32
Q

Which structure is responsible for night vision?

A

Rods

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33
Q

What is another term for slit lamp?

A

Biomicroscope

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34
Q

If a patient is taking a drop in their right eye before bed, it may be abbreviated as:

A

OD gtt hs

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35
Q

Amblyopia is defined as:

A

decreased visual acuity in one or both eyes, usually due to lack of sensory input during childhood.

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36
Q

An instrument for determining the refractive and binocular state of the eye is called a:

A

Phoropter

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37
Q

What three demands must be met when booking patient appointments?

A

Patient needs, practice needs, convenience of the patient

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38
Q

What part of the eye is known as the “window”?

A

Cornea

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39
Q

“DPA” and “ DFE” refers to:

A

“Diagnostic Pharmaceutical Agent” and “Dilated Fundus Exam”

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40
Q

The 8 Step method to turn a phone call into a patient includes all of the following except:

A

provide eye exam fees immediately when asked

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41
Q

A condition common after age forty, in which a gradual lessening of the eye’s power of accommodation causes difficulty in seeing near objects is called:

A

Presbyopia

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42
Q

A condition in which one eye deviates upwards all the time is called:

A

Hypertropia

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43
Q

Landolt C’s can be used to test:

A

Distance visual acuity of patients who do not speak English

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44
Q

For what is keratometry used?

A

Contact lens fittings

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45
Q

The standard testing distance for near visual acuities is:

A

16 inches / 40cm

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46
Q

In terms of infection control, universal precautions apply to:

A

blood

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47
Q

What does the patient wear to measure stereopsis?

A

3D polarized glasses

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48
Q

Which question observes the FOLDAR approach to asking follow – up questions?

A

Where is the headache located?

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49
Q

Which would cause erroneous results with automated refractors?

A

Improper patient alignment

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50
Q

Which statement about contrast sensitivity testing is true?

A

The patient should be visually – corrected for the test distance

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51
Q

Which test is used for colour vision screening?

A

Ishihara

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52
Q

When testing visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/30 line but makes 2 errors. How do you record this finding?

A

20/30

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53
Q

Stereoacuity is measured in:

A

seconds of arc

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54
Q

Which statement about handwashing is true?

A

Wash before and after every patient contact

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55
Q

Colour vision testing is done:

A

Monocularly to detect acquired defects

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56
Q

Sterility of diagnostic drops is compromised when:

A

The bottle tip is touched

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57
Q

Non – Contact Tonometry (NCT) measurements:

A

Require the removal of contact lenses first

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58
Q

Systolic blood pressure is:

A

The pressure of the blood as a result of contractions of the ventricles

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59
Q

Which of the following would be considered abnormal IOP measurements:

A

OD: 22 mm Hg OS: 23 mm Hg.

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60
Q

A test used to measure contrast sensitivity is:

A

Pelli Robson chart

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61
Q

ishihara test plates are used to detect:

A

red-green colour vision anomalies

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62
Q

In terms of infection control, universal precautions apply to all of the following, except:

A

tears

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63
Q

The standard testing distance for near visual acuities is:

A

16 inches/40cm

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64
Q

When testing the left eye for distance visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/30 line but makes 2 errors. How do you record this finding?

A

OS: 20/30-2

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65
Q

Diastolic blood pressure is:

A

the pressure of the ventricles at rest

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66
Q

A test used to measure depth perception is:

A

stereofly

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67
Q

To disinfect a semi-critical item it is appropriate to use:

A

3% hydrogen peroxide

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68
Q

The most significant question to ask during case history is:

A

Cheif complaint

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69
Q

Keratometry is:

A

the measurement of the central anterior curvature of the cornea

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70
Q

The purpose of stereopsis testing is to:

A

quantify depth perception

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71
Q

With the automated refractor, instrument myopia may occur due to:

A

the patient’s awareness of near even though the target is set at optical infinity

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72
Q

Contrast Sensitivity:

A

refers to the ability of the visual system to discriminate between an object and its background

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73
Q

Lea Symbols can be used to:

A

check the visual acuity of children who do not know their alphabet

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74
Q

About where from our line of sight does our physiological blind spot exist?

A

15° temporally

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75
Q

In visual field analysis, the term “threshold” refers to:

A

The brightness level where a stimulus can be seen 50% of the time

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76
Q

In relation to automated visual field testing, false positives are:

A

The rate at which a patient will respond to a stimulus that is not present

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77
Q

An advantage of the Optomap over a retinal cameras is:

A

Penetrates opacities

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78
Q

For which visual field is the superior retina responsible?

A

Inferior

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79
Q

Pachymetry is useful for all of the following situations, except:

A

Cataracts

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80
Q

Frequency Doubling Technology (FDT):

A

Utilizes a series of low spatial frequency gratings which flicker at a specific rate for the test stimulus

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81
Q

The Hill of Vision

A

Decreases in size and width with age

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82
Q

Tangent screen field testing:

A

Gives the sensitivity of the central 30 degrees & maps the blind spot

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83
Q

What number of fingers should NOT be shown during confrontation visual fields?

A

three

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84
Q

Rods:

A

Are responsible for our perception of movement and light

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85
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor to obtain accurate fundus photos?

A

visual aqcuity

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86
Q

Frequency Doubling Technology (FDT):

A

Comprises a test field of 17 – 19 sectors to be measured

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87
Q

Corneal topography measures:

A

The curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea

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88
Q

Corneal topography is useful in all of the following conditions, except:

A

glaucoma

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89
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

Rods are found in greatest proportion in the peripheral retina

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90
Q

The average corneal thickness is approximately:

A

540 µm

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91
Q

In perimetry, the level where a stimulus can be seen 50% of the time refers to:

A

threshold

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92
Q

A Scotoma is

A

an area of non-seeing in the visual field

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93
Q

An ultra-wide field retinal imaging device is the

A

optomap

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94
Q

Fundus photography provides photo documentation of the:

A

optic nerve

95
Q

A pachymeter is used to:

A

measure corneal thickness

96
Q

Tomographers have the ability to:

A

all of the above, (measure of the depth of the anterior chamber, differentiate the retinal layers,
measure the cup-to-disc-ratio)

97
Q

The superior retina is responsible for our _________ visual field.

A

inferior

98
Q

The assessment of corneal thickness is useful when:

A

all of the above (monitoring the progression of keratoconus, monitoring corneal edema,
determining a patients’ suitability for refractive surgery)

99
Q

What percentage of false positives is considered poor reliability in a visual field test?

A

33%

100
Q

When measuring confrontation visual fields:

A

the examiner and patient should be seated at the same height

101
Q

An example of a tomographer is:

A

OCT

102
Q

The normal visual field extends approximately:

A

90 degrees temporally, 60 degrees nasally and superiorly and 70 degrees inferiorly

103
Q

A disadvantage of manual keratometry is that it:

A

only measures the central 3mm of the cornea

104
Q

A reliable result for an automated visual field result depends upon:

A

alert patient

105
Q

In relation to automated visual field testing, false positives are:

A

the rate at which a patient will respond to a stimulus that is not present

106
Q

Corneal topography is the measurement of the:

A

curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea

107
Q

Which of the following is problematic when taking retinal photos?

A

Droopy eye lids

108
Q

The Inferior retina is responsible for our _________ visual field.

A

superior

109
Q

If a patient is a glaucoma suspect, a _____________________ test should be performed.

A

Central Threshold

110
Q

What is a symptom of Computer Vision Syndrome symptom?

A

diplopia

111
Q

When secondary clouding occurs after cataract surgery:

A

YAG laser capsulotomy is performed

112
Q

When using the Amsler Grid, the patient is instructed to:

A

cover one eye

113
Q

A report letter differs from a referral letter in that:

A

Referral letters require follow – up action

114
Q

Common symptoms of macular degeneration include all, except:

A

Peripheral vision loss

115
Q

Which of the following drug classes is used to inhibit corneal sensation:

A

Anaesthetics

116
Q

Treatment to control further vision loss with open angle glaucoma is achieved by:

A

Laser treatment in the anterior chamber

117
Q

Secondary glaucoma is attributed to:

A

Some types of medication

118
Q

What is a key factor in the likelihood of developing diabetic retinopathy?

A

Duration of diabetes

119
Q

LASIK is considered advantageous over PRK because:

A

Of earlier refractive stability

120
Q

Diabetic retinopathy manifests as:

A

exudates

121
Q

A true ocular emergency requiring treatment within minutes is:

A

sudden vision loss

122
Q

The most noticeable symptom of a retinal detachment is:

A

Appearance of a dark growing shadow

123
Q

Acute glaucoma:

A

Is a build-up of eye pressure resulting from a blockage of fluid by the iris

124
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome manifests which symptoms?

A

dry mouth and eyes

125
Q

Dry AMD is best described as:

A

gradual vision loss associated with retinal pigment epithelium atrophy

126
Q

The ability of the eye to focus at near involves:

A

Study Guide pg. 8

127
Q

Examination of the pediatric patient is essential because there is a distinct connection between ______ and ________:

A

vision, learning

128
Q

The statistics on vision problems in children reveal that 1 in _____ children are at risk of undiagnosed vision problems:

A

10

129
Q

Common symptoms of dry eye include:

A

burning sensation

130
Q

The presbyopic eye:

A

has decreased accommodative ability

131
Q

The myopic eye:

A

focuses light at a point in front of the retina

132
Q

Which of the following statements about cataract development is true?

A

The cloudiness does not spread from one eye to the other

133
Q

Phacoemulsification is a surgical term associated with what procedure?

A

cataract surgery

134
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Dry macular degeneration results in gradual, moderate vision loss

135
Q

The cup-to-disc ratio is a factor in what condition?

A

Glaucoma

136
Q

Which is not a symptom of cataract development?

A

Decreased peripheral vision

137
Q

Computer Vision Syndrome can be explained as:

A

eyestrain sometimes accompanied by musculoskeletal disorders

138
Q

Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy involves:

A

new blood vessel growth on the retina, iris, or disk

139
Q

A non- emergency, yet urgent ocular situation that should be seen sometime the same day is:

A

OA pg.386

140
Q

Treatment of open-angle glaucoma may include:

A

trabeculoplasty

141
Q

Which of the following drug classes is generally NOT prescribed to treat ocular disease?

A

Anesthetics

142
Q

Treatment to control further vision loss with open angle glaucoma is achieved by:

A

drops, laser treatment, surgery

143
Q

For the Rx +4.00 -1.00 x 180, what is written at 90 degrees on the power cross

A

3

144
Q

A lens has a focal length of 3 meters. What is the power of the lens?

A

+0.33D

145
Q

An occupational progressive lens:

A

is the lens of choice for primarily intermediate and near viewing

146
Q

Principal meridians relate to:

A

cylinder lenses

147
Q

When a lens has no power it is called:

A

plano

148
Q

The image viewed through a prism is displaced:

A

toward the apex

149
Q

The principal meridians are always:

A

90 degrees apar

150
Q

The segment of a conventional flat-top bifocal is:

A

inset nasally

151
Q

Transpose the following Rx: -3.50 +2.00 x 137.

A

-1.50 -2.00 x 047

152
Q

Transpose this Rx: -1.00 -1.00x180:

A

-2.00 +1.00 x 090

153
Q

Calculate the near power for this Rx: OD: -3.25 -0.25 x 180 add +2.00 OS: -3.50 -0.75 x 180 add +2.25

A

OD: -1.25 -0.25 x 180 OS: -1.25 -0.75 x 180

154
Q

A presbyopic electrician who primarily installs ceiling fixtures might find ___________ lenses extremely helpful:

A

double segment bifoca

155
Q

Which of the following statements about vertex distance is true?

A

A minus lens moved further from the face acts weaker

156
Q

AR refers to a coating:

A

that increases light transmission and protects the lens

157
Q

A good reason for using aspheric lens design would be:

A

for optically correcting aberrations in high Rx’

158
Q

Calculate the spherical equivalent of -3.00 -1.00 x 025.

A

-3.5

159
Q

The properties of Trivex™ include:

A

excellent optics, excellent impact resistance

160
Q

An atoric lens design could be described as:

A

being able to increase the area of peripheral vision

161
Q

When a lens has a single point focus, it is a:

A

spherical lens

162
Q

The distance portion of a lens is +1.75. The near add power of the Rx is +1.25. What is the near power through the segment portion?

A

3

163
Q

A plus lens could be described as:

A

thicker in the center

164
Q

The acronym MASCOT is used as a reminder of the lens options to consider; which of the following is NOT included:

A

Cosmetic

165
Q

Each colour has a specific wavelength & is measured in?

A

Nanometers

166
Q

Damage to scratch resistant coating is more likely to occur from:

A

Excessive heat

167
Q

Index of refraction is determined by the formula?

A

Speed of light in air/speed of light in the lens material

168
Q

An advantage of using photochromic glass over plastic lenses is:

A

Function never wears out

169
Q

Determine the intermediate power of the following 50% trifocal: + 2.00 – 1.00 x 180 add + 2.50

A

+ 3.25 – 1.00 x 180

170
Q

Polarized ophthalmic lenses:

A

Are not recommended for pilots

171
Q

A disadvantage of straight top bifocals vs. PALs (Progressive Addition Lenses) is that:

A

They are limited in their ability to provide clear vision at intermediate distances

172
Q

The lens material with the lowest abbe value is?

A

Polycarbonate

173
Q

The image viewed through a prism is displaced:

A

Toward the apex

174
Q

The principal meridians are always:

A

90° apart

175
Q

“With the rule astigmatism” would be described as?

A

the steepest meridian lies at 090 degree

176
Q

Most photochromic lenses change colour with reaction to the amount of?

A

Ultraviolet light

177
Q

To accurately measure an unknown PAL the first step is to:

A

identify the lens and re-mark the lens reference points using the manufacturer’s centration chart

178
Q

In lensometry, the near addition of a flat top bifocal is found by:

A

taking the difference between the distance and near power readings

179
Q

When using the manual lensometer to spot a spherocylinder lens for edging, the power wheel and the axis wheel are ___________ before placing the lens in the lensometer.

A

turned to the sphere power and axis of the prescription

180
Q

The distance reference point of a progressive addition lens is located:

A

within the manufacturer’s distance arc or circle

181
Q

When using a manual lensometer, the cylindrical component of the recorded prescription is determined by:

A

the power difference between the sphere reading and the cylinder readings

182
Q

The benefit of using the manufacturers centration chart for PAL’s is:

A

opportunity to assess if the lens choice is appropriate for the frame selected

183
Q

Using a manual lensometer to read a lens in minus cylinder power, the power wheel is first turned to:

A

high plus

184
Q

The MRP is also referred to as:

A

prism reference point

185
Q

Using the Rx provided below, what number would you read on the power wheel of a manual lensometer when the sphere target lines for the flat-top segment are in focus? OD: -3.25 -2.00 x 010 add +2.00

A

-1.25

186
Q

How do you properly measure the near PDs in a ST/FT bifocal pair of glasses?

A

The inside edge of one segment to the outside edge of the other

187
Q

If the prescription for a lens is +6.00 -4.00 x 050, what number would you read on the power wheel of a manual lensometer when the sphere target lines are in focus?

A

6

188
Q

A __________ is used to measure the center thickness of a lens.

A

Lens caliper

189
Q

To accurately remark an unknown PAL, you will need:

A

Progressive Lens Identifier book, corresponding centration chart, marking pen

190
Q

After the first lens has been centered, measured and spotted on a lensometer, the second lens must not be:

A

adjusted up or down with the lens table

191
Q

The typical removable markings on a PAL when it is returned from the lab include:

A

fitting cross

192
Q

When prescribed prism is base up and base out, the target in the manual lensometer:

A

will not fall on the 90 or 180 degree line

193
Q

When sphere and cylinder lines focus at the same time, and the lines cross at the center of the reticle, you are viewing:

A

a sphere lens without prism

194
Q

Vertical prism is detected with the manual lensometer when:

A

both lenses don’t center equally at the same table height

195
Q

A __________ is used to measure the base curve of a lens.

A

Lens clock

196
Q

When reading a lens with a manual lensometer, you observe that the sphere and cylinder lines are in focus at the same time. What does this indicate?

A

Sphere lens

197
Q

A patient has a PD of 65. The frame measurements are as follows: A = 53, B = 49, DBL = 18. How much will each lens need to be decentered?

A

3mm

198
Q

The benefit of using the manufacturers centration chart for PALs is:

A

Opportunity to assess if the lens choice is appropriate for the frame selected

199
Q

When using a manual lensometer, if cylinder is present in the lens:

A

the difference in power between the sphere lines and the cylinder lines is the amount of cylinder in the Rx.

200
Q

Given a frame PD of 64, a patient PD of 60, and an ED of 62, what is the minimum blank size required?

A

70

201
Q

Which of the following lenses do not meet safety standards?

A

Glass lenses

202
Q

Which measurement is NOT considered in acceptable tolerance standards?

A

Lens size (‘A’ measurement)

203
Q

In a Freeform PAL lens design, the prescription has been modified:

A

To a compensated Rx based on specific lens measurements provided

204
Q

On a Progressive Addition Lens (PAL), what is engraved on the lens below the reference mark on the temporal side of the lens?

A

The addition power

205
Q

The palpebral fissure is:

A

the almond-shaped opening between the upper and lower eyelids

206
Q

Contact lens solutions that are grouped as “surfactants” are used to:

A

assist with removing debris from the lens during the cleaning process

207
Q

Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis most commonly occurs when:

A

contact lenses are not adequately cleaned with a surfactant

208
Q

Hydrogen peroxide:

A

is an effective disinfectant but must be neutralized before placement on the eye

209
Q

What is the first step in a contact lens tutorial?

A

Washing your hands

210
Q

After inspecting a GP lens, and prior to inserting it:

A

a drop of wetting solution is placed in the lens

211
Q

Compared to soft contact lenses worn on a monthly basis, the advantages of GP lenses include:

A

decreased lens deposits

212
Q

An advantage of using monovision to compensate for presbyopia is:

A

easier to fit than multifocal contact lenses

213
Q

Orthokeratology lenses are:

A

specially designed GP lenses worn while sleeping to re-shape the cornea

214
Q

All of the following are uses of tinted contact lenses, except:

A

provide protection to scratched corneas

215
Q

Which structure is not a component of the lacrimal drainage system?

A

Cilia

216
Q

Before a new contact lens patient departs the office, they should receive:

A

a wearing schedule and instructions

217
Q

Which of the following is not a method for cleaning and disinfecting a contact lens case?

A

Soak the case in disinfecting solution and rinse it with tap water

218
Q

Corneal neovascularization occurs when:

A

there is inadequate oxygen supply to the cornea

219
Q

In regard to successful contact lens wear, the role of the pre-corneal fluid is to:

A

provide a rinsing system to remove debris from the cornea and contact lens

220
Q

The normal blink rate is approximately:

A

10-15 times per minute

221
Q

Wetting solutions are used with GP lenses to:

A

act as a mechanical buffer between the lens, cornea and eye lids

222
Q

The thickest layer of the cornea is the:

A

Stroma

223
Q

Blink inhibition can:

A

reduce the cleaning and wetting of the anterior surface of contact lenses

224
Q

Where is the lateral canthus located?

A

At the temporal junction of the upper and lower eyelids

225
Q

Soft contact lenses should be rubbed:

A

at the end of each day worn, with solution

226
Q

When inserting a GP lens, it is placed:

A

Directly on the cornea

227
Q

How to respond if a caller asks “How much are contact lenses?”

A

Are you a patient here?

228
Q

Which pre – corneal fluid layer has these properties: convert the corneal epithelium from a hydrophobic to a hydrophilic surface?

A

Mucin

229
Q

Which pre – corneal fluid layer has these properties: increases surface tension and slows evaporation?

A

Lipid

230
Q

To determine if a soft contact lens is inverted:

A

Place it on the index finger and view the shape of the edge of the lens

231
Q

A surfactant is sometimes called:

A

Daily cleaner

232
Q

Which of the following statements is poor advice for a contact lens patient?

A

You may substitute cleaning solutions at your own discretion

233
Q

A disadvantage of using monovision to compensate for presbyopia is:

A

Depth perception is compromised

234
Q

Compared to GP lenses, the disadvantages of soft contact lenses include:

A

Vision may be less crisp

Canadian Certified Optometric Assistant (9 decks)

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