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AIS > Final Questions > Flashcards

Final Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Best describes the purpose of a BPMN collapsed sub-process?

A

Contain a series of activities that are hidden from view

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2
Q

Access Control

A

limit to who can use and change records in the system (example: passwords control who can use an application)

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3
Q

Accounts Receivable

A

monies owed by customers for prior sales of goods or services. In data modeling context, AR are calculated as each customer’s sales less corresponding cash receipts

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4
Q

Agents

A

the people or organizations who participate in business events such as customers and salespeople

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5
Q

Application controls

A

ensure data integrity and an audit trail (for example: new invoices are assigned sequential numbers)

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6
Q

Cash

A

organization’s monies in bank or related accounts. the instances of the class are individual accounts. considered a resource

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7
Q

cash receipts

A

record receipts of cash from external agents (customers) and the corresponding deposit of those receipts into cash accounts. Considered an event

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8
Q

Choreography

A

the interaction (message flows) between two participants (modeled as pools) in a process modeled using BPMN

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9
Q

Collaboration

A

A BPMN model showing two participant pools and the interactions between then within a process

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10
Q

Customer

A

the external agent in the sales and collections process

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11
Q

error event

A

an intermediate event in a BPMN model showing processing for exceptions to the normal process flow

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12
Q

Events

A

classes that model the organization’s transactions, usually affecting the organization’s resources such as sales and cash receipts

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13
Q

Many-to-many relationship

A

exists when instances of one class (sales) are related to many instances of another class (inventory) and vice versa. these relationships are implemented in Access and relational databases by adding a linking table to convert the many-to-many relationship into two one-to-many relationships

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14
Q

one-to-many relationships

A

exists when instances of one class are related to multiple instances of another class (example: a customer can participate in many sales but each sale involves only one customer)

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15
Q

Orchestration

A

In BPMN, the sequence of activities within one pool

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16
Q

Product

A

class representing the organization’s goods held for sales, that is, the organization’s inventory. considered a resource

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17
Q

Quote

A

description of the products and/or services to be provided to a customer if ordered

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18
Q

REA

A

resource-event-agent framework for modeling business processes, originally developed by William McCarthy

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19
Q

Sales

A

Events documenting the transfer of goods or services to customer and the corresponding recognition of revenue for the organization

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20
Q

Sales order

A

event documenting commitments by customers to purchase products. the sales order event precedes the economic event (sale)

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21
Q

Subprocess

A

represent a series of process steps that are hidden from view in BPMN. the sue of subprocesses in modeling helps reduce complexity

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22
Q

type image

A

class that represents management information (such as categorizations, policies, and guidelines) to help manage a business process. Type image often allows process information to be summarized by category

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23
Q

Access point

A

logically connects stations to a firm’s network

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24
Q

Audit around the computer (or black-box approach)

A

auditors test the reliability of computer generated information by first calculating expected results from the transactions entered into the system. Then, auditors compare these calculations to the processing or output results

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25
Q

Audit through the computer (or white box approach)

A

requires auditors to understand the internal logic of the system/ application being tested

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26
Q

computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs)

A

essential tools for auditors to conduct an audit in accordance with heightened auditing standards

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27
Q

continuous audit

A

preforming audit-related activities on a continuous basis

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28
Q

data governance

A

the convergence of data quality, data management, data policies, business process management and risk management surrounding the handling of data in a firm

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29
Q

Data mining

A

a process of using sophisticated statistical techniques to extract and analyze data from large databases to discern patterns and trends that were not previously known

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30
Q

Data warehouse

A

a collection of information gathered from an assortment of external and operations (internal) databases to facilitate reporting from decision making and business analysis

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31
Q

Database

A

A shared collection of logically related data for various uses

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32
Q

Database system

A

a term typically used to encapsulate the constructs of a data model, database management system (DBMS) and database

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33
Q

embedded audit module

A

a programmed audit module that is added to the system under review

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34
Q

Firewall

A

a security system comprised of hardware and software that is built using routers, servers and a variety of software

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35
Q

generalized audit software (GAS)

A

frequently used to perform substantive tests and sued for testing of controls through transactional data analysis

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36
Q

hub

A

contains multiple ports

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37
Q

integrated test facility (ITF)

A

an automated technique that enables test data to be continually evaluated during the normal operation of a system

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38
Q

local area network (LAN)

A

a group of computers, printers, and other devices connected to the same network that covers limited geographical range such as a home, small office or a campus building

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39
Q

MAC (media access control) address

A

a designated address that is connected to each device via the network and only sees trafic

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40
Q

operating system (OS)

A

performs the tasks that enable a computer to operate; comprised of system utilities and programs

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41
Q

operational database

A

often includes data for the current fiscal year

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42
Q

parallel simulation

A

attempts to simulate the firm’s key features or processes

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43
Q

remote access

A

connection to a data-processing system from a remote location (through a virtual private network)

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44
Q

Router

A

software-based intelligent device that chooses the most efficient communications path through a network to the required destination

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45
Q

Station

A

a wireless endpoint device equipped with a wireless network interface card

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46
Q

Switch

A

an intelligent device that provides a path for each pair of connections on the switch by storing address information in its switching tables

47
Q

Test data technique

A

uses a set of input data to validate system integrity

48
Q

virtual private network (VPN)

A

securely connects a firm’s WANs by sending/receiving encrypted packets via virtual connections over the public Internet to distant offices, salespeople and business partners

49
Q

Wide are network (WAN)

A

links different sites together; transmits information across geographically dispersed LANs; and covers a broad geographic area such as a city, region, nation or an international link

50
Q

Wireless network

A

comprised of two fundamental architectural components: access points and stations

51
Q

Another name for data warehousing is data mining.

 a. True
 b. False
A

False

52
Q

Data warehousing refers to the short-term storage of large amounts of data for an entire enterprise.

 a. True
 b. False
A

False

53
Q

An operating system handles input and output to and from attached hardware devices, such as hard disks, printers, and dial-up ports and sends messages to each application or interactive user about the status of operation and any errors that may have occurred.

 a. True
 b. False
A

True

54
Q

Which of the following is not a function of generalized audit software?

 a. To aid in the random selection of transactions for substantive testing.
 b. To run in parallel with the client's application software and compare the output.
 c. To test the mathematical accuracy by footing and cross-foot items in the accounting system.
 d. To keep an independent log of access to computer application software.
A

D

55
Q

Which of the following is not a computer-assisted audit technique?

 a. Test data
 b. Tagging and lagging
 c. Integrated test facility
 d. Parallel simulation
A

B. Tagging and Lagging

56
Q

When would “auditing around the computer” be appropriate?

 a. When significant controls over the computer system are adequate.
 b. When significant controls over the computer system are not required.
 c. It is never appropriate to audit around the computer.
A

B

57
Q

: A virtual private network (VPN) sends encrypted messages though public Internet service providers.

 a. True
 b. False
A

True

58
Q

A _____ is a type of network equipment that directs information or data to transmit over the Internet.

 a. Server
 b. Router
 c. Firewall
 d. Switch
A

B. Router

59
Q

A ____ is a network with security and controlled access for a private group but built on top of a public network.

 a. Wide area network.
 b. Virtual organization.
 c. Middleware network.
 d. Virtual private network.
A

d. Virtual private network.

60
Q

Common IT techniques that are needed to implement continuous auditing include:

 a. Database management systems
 b. Computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs)
 c. Data warehouses
 d. All of the above
A

All of the above

61
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a balanced scorecard?

 a. Mission statement
 b. Performance measurement framework
 c. Strategy map
 d. Budgeting document
A

b. Performance measurement framework

62
Q

balanced scorecard framework

A

provides an integrating framework that describes organizational performance relative to its strategic objectives across four perspectives: learning and growth, process, customer, and finance. Objectives for each perspective describe the strategy in a series of cause-and-effect relationships

63
Q

Balanced scorecard management process

A

the process by which companies plan, implement and monitor performance. It consists of five steps: formulate the strategy, translate the strategy, link the strategy to operations, monitor performance and adapt

64
Q

Customer perspective

A

the balanced scorecard perspective that describes the organization’s customer related objectives and corresponding customer measures; it views organization performance from the customers’ perspective

65
Q

enterprise IT (EIT)

A

a type of information technology that restructures interactions within an organization and with external partners, such as customer relationship management systems

66
Q

financial perspective

A

the balanced scorecard perspective that describes the organization’s financial objectives and corresponding financial measures of performance; it views organizational performance from the shareholders’ perspective

67
Q

function IT (FIT)

A

a type of information technology that performs/supports a single function, such as spreadsheet applications

68
Q

information capital

A

an intangible asset that reflects the readiness of the company’s technology to support strategic internal processes. it includes computing hardware, infrastructure, applications and employees’ abilities to use technology effectively

69
Q

key performance indicator

A

those measures that the organization feels best indicates the performance of a particular activity

70
Q

learning and growth perspective

A

the balanced scorecard perspective that describes the organizations’ objectives and corresponding measures related to improvements in tangible and intangible infrastructure, such as human, information, and organizational capital

71
Q

network IT (NIT)

A

a type of information technology that allows people to communicate with one another such as e-mail and instant messaging

72
Q

process perspective

A

the balanced scorecard perspective that describes the organizations’ internal, process-related, objectives and corresponding measures; it views organizational performance from an internal perspective

73
Q

strategy map

A

a one-page representation of the firm’s strategic priorities and the cause-and-effect linkages to those strategic priorities

74
Q

value proposition

A

represents the product and service characteristics, such as price, quality, selection and brand image that the firm attempts to deliver to customers to meet or exceed customers’ expectations and thereby result in customer retention and new customer acqusition

75
Q

accounting rate of return (ARR)

A

the average annual income from the IT initiative divided by the initial investment cost

76
Q

acquisition costs

A

all direct and indirect costs necessary to acquire and implement the IT initiative

77
Q

alignment risk

A

the risk that an IT initiative is not aligned with the strategy of the organization

78
Q

benefits

A

the positive consequences to the organization of an IT investment

79
Q

breakeven analysis

A

determines the breakeven point, where the total value of benefits is equals that of total costs

80
Q

business case

A

economic justification for an IT investment or other major project

81
Q

change risk

A

the risk that the organization will be unable to make the changes necessary to implement the IT initiative successfully

82
Q

economic justification process

A

the process by which an organization creates a business case for an IT investment or other major project

83
Q

financial risk

A

the risk that the IT investment will not deliver expected financial benefits

84
Q

internal rate of return (IRR)

A

the discount rate (return) that makes a project’s net present value equal to zero

85
Q

net present value (NPV)

A

the sum of the present value of all cash inflows minus the sum of the present value of all cash outflows related to an IT investment or other capital investment

86
Q

operation cost

A

the recurring cost necessary to operate, maintain and administer an IT initiative

87
Q

payback period

A

the amount of time necessary to recoup a project’s initial investment

88
Q

project risk

A

the risk that the project will not be completed on time or within budget

89
Q

relevant costs

A

those costs that will change as a result of an IT initiative or other major project

90
Q

solution risk

A

the risk that the proposed solution will not generate expected benefits

91
Q

technological risk

A

the risk that the technology will not perform as expected to deliver the planned benefits

92
Q

value proposition

A

summarizes the costs and benefits of a preferred alternative IT investment, describing (1) the relevant time frames that the costs will by incurred and benefits realized, (2) the corresponding discount rates to apply future cash flows and (3) the sensitivity of the results to assumptions

93
Q

100% rule

A

a rule operation percent planning of all tasks, including all of the internal, external and interim tasks

94
Q

15-15 rule

A

a rule suggesting that if a project is more than 15% over budget or 15% off the planned schedule, it will likely never recoup the time or cost necessary to be considered successful. at this point a decision needs to be made on if or how to proceed from that point on

95
Q

analysis phase

A

the phase of the SDLC involves a complete, detailed analysis of the systems needs of the end user as well as a proposed solution

96
Q

critical path

A

the longest path for a project and represents the minimum amount of time needed for the completion of the project when sufficient resources are allocated

97
Q

design phase

A

the phase of the SDLC that involves describing in detail the desired features of the system that were uncovered in the analysis phase

98
Q

Gantt chart

A

a graphical representation of the project schedule that maps the tasks to a project calendar

99
Q

implementation phase

A

the phase of SDLC that involves development, testing and implementation of the new proposed system

100
Q

maintenance phase

A

the final phase of the SDLC that includes making changes, corrections, additions and upgrades (generally smaller in scope) to ensure the system continues to meet the business requirements that have been set out for it

101
Q

perceived ease of use

A

the extent to which a person perceives that the use of a particular system will be relatively free from effort

102
Q

perceived usefulness

A

the extent to which users believe the system will help them perform their job better

103
Q

planning phase

A

the phase of SDLC that summarizes the business needs with a high-level view of the intended project

104
Q

Program Evaluation Review Technology (PERT)

A

a project management tool used to help identify all tasks needed to complete a project. it is also helpful in determining task dependencies

105
Q

project

A

a series of tasks that are generally performed in a defined sequence to produce a predefined output

106
Q

project management

A

the process of carrying out the system development life cycle to achieve an intended outcome

107
Q

project manager

A

the lead member of the project team who is responsible for the project

108
Q

project sponsor

A

generally a senior executive in the company who takes responsibility for the success of the project

109
Q

scope creep

A

the change in a project’s scope after the project work has started

110
Q

systems analyst

A

person responsible for both determining the information needs of the business and designing a system to meet those needs

111
Q

systems development life cycle (SDLC)

A

the process of creating or modifying information systems to meet the needs of its users. it serves as the foundation for all processes people use to develop such systems

112
Q

technology acceptance model (TAM)

A

a model that predicts when users will adopt a new system to the extent they believe the system will help them perform their job better

113
Q

triple constaint

A

three factors that constrain information technology and other projects: cost, scope and time. also known as Dempster’s triangle

114
Q

work breakdown structure (WBS)

A

the process of identifying all tasks needed to complete a project

AIS (3 decks)

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