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AIS > Final Multiple Choice Questions > Flashcards

Final Multiple Choice Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Which phase of the systems development life cycle would indicate  a feasible analysis?
A. Analysis phase
B. planning phase
C. design phase
D. implementation phase
A

B. Planning Phase

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2
Q 
The IFAC suggested 10 core principles of effective information technology planning. Which of the following is not one of those 10 core principles?
A. achievability
B. reassessment
C. accountability
D. justifiable cost
A

D. justifiable cost

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3
Q

Projects are considered challenged if they are:
A. late, over budget, or do not have the required features and functions
B. canceled prior to completion
C. delivered, but never used
D. completed early

A

A. late, over budget, or do not have the required features

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4
Q 
The triple constraint of project management does not include the constraint of 
A. Technical issues
B. Time
C. Cost
D. Scope
A

A. technical issues

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5
Q 
The PERT and Gantt charts primarily address the triple constraint of
A. technical issues
B. time
C. cost
D. scope
A

B. Time

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6
Q

The 100% rule suggests that before PERT chart is done, a project manager must:
A. make sure 100 % of the project is funded
B. make sure the project team is devoted, solely, or 100% , to this project
C. make sure 100% of the project tasks are defined
D. make sure that each person on the project team got 100% of their project management final exam

A

C. make sure 100% of the project tasks are defined

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7
Q

The critical path in a PERT chart represents:
A. sequence of tasks
B. the most important tasks of the whole project
C. the longest path of tasks needed for the project completion
D. the tasks that must be completed without errors

A

C. the longest path of tasks needed for the project completion

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8
Q 
The technology acceptance model does not address:
A. perceived usefulness
B. perceived system quality
C. perceived ease of use
D. intention of use
A

D. perceived system quality

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9
Q

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act’s 404 reports require management and auditors to report on:
A. the financial condition of the firm
B. the quality of the project management planning
C. the academic background and experience of the company’s accounting leadership
D. the effectiveness of the internal controls of the company’s accounting information system

A

D. the effectiveness of the internal controls of the company’s accounting information system

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10
Q

In chapter 15, projects are defined as
A. a series of tasks performed in a defined sequence
B. turning raw talent into an NFL quality quarterback
C. turning blueprints from an architect into a completed building
D. merging two databases into one

A

A. a series of tasks performed in a defined sequence

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11
Q 
Which of the following is a question that companies should answer when preparing the business case for an IT investment?
A. how much will it cost?
B. what are the risks?
C. what are the alternatives?
D. how will success be measures?
E. all of the above
A

E

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12
Q 
What is the first step in the economic justification process?
A. identify potential solutions
B. assess the value proposition
C. assess business requirements
D. estimate costs
E. all of the above
A

D. assess business requirements

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13
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a complementary change necessary to allow an IT initiative to achieve its goals?
A. outsource the IT initiative
B. retrain employees
C. redefine job descriptions
D. provide incentives for employees to make the change successfully
E. none of the above

A

A. outsource the IT initiative

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14
Q

Which of the following is not an example of benefits of an IT investment?
A. increased revenues from access to new markets
B. decreased costs from automating manual tasks
C. Facilitating employee work-from-home arrangements
D. allowing compliance with new federal regulations
E. reducing the number of inventory count errors

A

C. facilitate employee work-from-home arrangements

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15
Q

Which of the following can be used to quantify benefits on an IT investment?
A. gathering expert opinions
B. benchmarking against competitor performance
C. comparing against the probability of future benefits if investment is foregone
D. conducting simulations
E. all of the above

A

E.

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16
Q

Which of the following are examples of direct costs of acquiring and implementing an IT investment?
A. hiring consultants to assess system requirements
B. personnel costs of the project team
C. training costs of employees who will use the system
D. cost of new computer hardware necessary to run the system
E. all of the above

A

E

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17
Q

Which of the following are not examples of operating costs for an IT investment?
A. costs of routine hardware replacements over time
B. cost of contract for help desk account
C. costs of disposal of electronics at end of life
D. costs of software license renewals
E. all of the above

A

E

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18
Q 
Which of the following is not a category of IT initiative risk?
A. alignment
B. technological
C. financial measurement 
D. solution
E. all of the above
A

C. financial measurment

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19
Q 
If an IT project costs $150,000 and returns net cash flows of $100,000 per year, what is the payback period?
A. 1 year
B. 1.5 years
C. 2 years
D. 2.5 years
E. none of the above
A

B. 1.5 years

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20
Q 
If an IT project costs $150,000 and returns net cash flows of $100,000 per year, what is the accounting rate of return?
A. 33%
B. 50%
C. 67%
D. 75%
E. none of the above
A

C. 67%

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21
Q 
Which of the following is not a balanced score perspective?
A. learning and growth
B. customer
C. business process
D. financial
E. all of the above
A

E

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22
Q 
Which of the following is not a type of business process in the balanced scorecard framework?
A. operations management
B. customer management
C. innovation
D. regulatory and social
E. all of the above
A

E.

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23
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a strategy map?
A. A graphical description of expected cause-and-effect linkages among balanced scorecard perspectives
B. a list of the company’s mission, vision, and values
C. a representation of the company’s strategic priorities
D. both A and B
E. Both A and C

A

D. both A and B

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24
Q

Which of the following does not describe a step in the balanced scorecard management process?
A. formulate the strategy
B. translate the strategy into strategic objectives
C. link objectives to operations
D. monitor performance and provide feedback
E. all of the above

A

E

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25
Q

Which of the following do not describe characteristics of enterprise IT?
A. enhance individual worker productivity
B.automate transaction processing
C. integrate processes
D. provide general customer service
E. monitor performance and support decision making

A

A. enhance individual work productivity

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26
Q 
Which of the following would be an example of network IT?
A. spreadsheets
B. e-mail
C. ERP systems
D. CRM systems
E. none of the above
A

B. e-mail

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27
Q 
Which of the following is an example of function IT?
A. spreadsheets
B. e-mail
C. ERP systems
D. CRM systems
E. none of the above
A

A. spreadsheets

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28
Q 
Which of the following is not a role of IT in the balanced scorecard management process?
A. strategy development support
B. long-term budget forecasting
C. transaction processing
D. reporting 
E. all of the above
A

E.

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29
Q

A local are network (LAN) is best described as:
A. computer system that connects computers of all sizes, workstations, terminals and other devices within a limited proximity
B. system that allows computer users to meet and share ideas and information
C. electronic library
D. method to offer specialized software, hardware and data-handling techniques

A

A.

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30
Q 
Which of the following network components is set up to serve as a security measure that prevents unauthorized traffic between different segments of the network?
A. switch
B. router
C. firewall
D. virtual local are networks (VLAN)
A

C. firewall

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31
Q 
Unauthorized alteration of records in a database system would impair which of the following components of the CIA tripod?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. authorization
A

B. integrity

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32
Q

Which of the following is not a task performed by an operating system?
A. translate high-level languages to machine-level language
B. manage job scheduling and multiprogramming
C. support applications and facilitate their access to specified resources
D. provide controlled access to data and processes data

A

D. provide controlled access to data and processes data

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33
Q

Managers at a consumer products company purchased personal computer software from only recognized vendors and prohibited employees from installing non-authorized software on their personal computers by enforcing new end-user computing policy. To minimize the likelihood of computer viruses infecting any of its systems, the company should also:
A. restore infected systems with authorized versions
B. recompile infected programs from source code backups
C. institute program change control procedures
D. test all new software on a stand-alone personal computer

A

D. test all new software on a stand-alone personal computer

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34
Q 
Unauthorized alteration of records in a database system can be prevented by employing:
A. key verification
B. computer matching
C. regular review of audit trails
D. database access controls
A

D. database access controls

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35
Q

An organization is planning to replace its wired networks with wireless networks. Which of the following approaches provides the most secured wireless network?
A. implement wired equivalent privacy (WEP) protocol
B. allow access control to only authorized media access control (MAC) addresses
C. disable the network interface card (NIC)
D. implement wi-fi protected access (WPA2)

A

D. implement wi-fi protected access

36
Q 
The vice president of human resources has requested an audit to identify payroll over-payments for the previous year.  Which would be the best audit technique to use in this situation?
A. test data
B. generalized audit software
C. integrated test facility
D. embedded audit module
A

B. generalized audit software

37
Q

Which of the following statements about CAATs is not correct?
A. parallel simulation attempts to simulate or reproduce the firm’s actual processing results
B. the test data technique uses a set of hypothetical transactions to examine the programmed checks and program logic in programs
C. the integrated test facility is a programmed module or segment that is inserted into an application program to monitor and collect data based on daily transactions
D. the embedded audit module may require the auditor to have a good working knowledge of computer programming and a solid understanding of IT risks that may exist in a system

A

C.

38
Q 
Which of the following audit techniques should an IS auditor use to detect duplicate invoice records within an invoice master?
A. test data
B. generalized audit software
C. integrated test facility
D. embedded audit module
A

B. generalized audit software

39
Q 
Which of the following is not an activity within the sales and collection process?
A. selling products and services
B. billing customers
C. managing inventory
D. recording payments from customers
E. all of the above
A

E

40
Q 
The sales and collection process is the point of contact between the firm and which set of external business partners?
A. investors
B. customers
C. employees
D. vendors
E. all of the above
A

B. customers

41
Q

Which of the following sales and collection process activities can result in the creation of an account receivable?
A. receiving a sale order from a customer
B. shipping ordered products to the customer
C. billing the customer
D. recording payment from the customer
E. none of the above

A

B. shipping ordered products to the customer

42
Q 
Which of the following describes message flows between pools?
A. orchestrations
B. sequence flows
C. choreography
D. intermediate events
E. none of the above
A

C. choreography

43
Q

Which of the following statements is/are not true?
A. each pool must have a start event
B. sequence flows are shown by arrows with a solid line
C. message flows are shown by arrows with a solid line
D. each pool must have more than one swimlane
E. both C and D are correct

A

E. both C and D

44
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of a subprocess in BPMN?
A. reducing complexity
B. presenting higher-level process descriptions
C. creating alternative activities
D. developing a reusable model
E. all of the above

A

E

45
Q

What is the purpose of an intermediate error event?
A. indicates a change in flow due to a process exception
B. indicates the end of a process
C. indicates the start of a collapsed subprocess
D. describes the activities that will occur when there is not an error
E. none of the above

A

A. indicated a change in flow due to a process exception

46
Q

Which of the following is an example of a business rule implementing access controls?
A. the warehouse containing inventory must be locked when the inventory manager is not present
B. user’s recording collections cannot modify sales records
C. the computer system shall generate an audit trail
D. internal auditors shall be used
E. both A and B

A

E. both A and B

47
Q 
Which of the following is not part of the REA framework?
A. agents
B. type images
C. resources
D. events
E. all of the above
A

E

48
Q

How do you implement a one-to-many relationship in a relational database?
A. post a foreign key
B. create a new table
C. combine two fields to create a primary keys
D. create an association
E. none of the above

A

A. post a foreign key

49
Q

Another name for data warehousing is data mining.
A) True
B) False

A

B. false

50
Q

Data warehousing refers to the short-term storage of large amounts of data for an entire enterprise.
A) True
B) False

A

B. false

51
Q

An operating system handles input and output to and from attached hardware devices, such as hard disks, printers, and dial-up ports and sends messages to each application or interactive user about the status of operation and any errors that may have occurred.
A) True
B) False

A

A. true

52
Q

Which of the following is not a function of generalized audit software?
A) To aid in the random selection of transactions for substantive testing.
B) To run in parallel with the client’s application software and compare the output.
C) To test the mathematical accuracy by footing and cross-foot items in the accounting system.
D) To keep an independent log of access to computer application software.

A

D.

53
Q 
Which of the following is not a computer-assisted audit technique?
	A)	Test data
	B)	Tagging and lagging
	C)	Integrated test facility
	D)	Parallel simulation
A

B

54
Q

When would “auditing around the computer” be appropriate?
A) When significant controls over the computer system are adequate.
B) When significant controls over the computer system are not required.
C) It is never appropriate to audit around the computer.

A

B

55
Q

A virtual private network (VPN) sends encrypted messages though public Internet service providers.
A) True
B) False

A

A

56
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_ is a type of network equipment that directs information or data to transmit over the Internet.
	A)	Server
	B)	Router
	C)	Firewall
	D)	Switch
A

B

57
Q 
A \_\_\_\_ is a network with security and controlled access for a private group but built on top of a public network.
	A)	Wide area network.
	B)	Virtual organization.
	C)	Middleware network.
	D)	Virtual private network.
A

D

58
Q

Common IT techniques that are needed to implement continuous auditing include:
A) Database management systems
B) Computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs)
C) Data warehouses
D) All of the above

A

D

59
Q 
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a balanced scorecard?
	A)	Mission statement
	B)	Performance measurement framework
	C)	Strategy map
	D)	Budgeting document
A

B

60
Q 
The balanced scorecard framework describes firm performance from how many different perspectives?
	A)	4
	B)	3
	C)	2
	D)	1
A

A

61
Q 
Which of the following is the name of the perspective that describes the firm's objectives for improvements in tangible and intangible infrastructure?
	A)	Financial
	B)	Customer
	C)	Business Process
	D)	Learning and growth
A

D

62
Q 
In their book, Strategy Maps, Kaplan and Norton describe four types of business processes: Three of which are customer management processes, innovation processes, regulatory and social processes. Which of the following is the 4th?
	A)	Human capital
	B)	Operations management
	C)	Value proposition
	D)	Customer satisfaction
A

B

63
Q 
Which of the following is a measure of process performance in addition to cost, quality, and throughput measures of performance?
	A)	Customer satisfaction
	B)	Asset turnover
	C)	Time
	D)	Waste
A

C

64
Q 
Which of the following is a one page representation of the firm's strategic priorities and the cause and effect linkages among those strategic priorities?
	A)	Balanced scorecard
	B)	Strategy map
	C)	Executive dashboard
	D)	Critical success factors
A

B

65
Q

Which of the following describes a feature of Enterprise IT?
A) Integrates processes
B) Improves personal productivity
C) Allows organization employees to communicate with one another
D) Facilitates interactions

A

A

66
Q 
Which of the following is the step in the balanced scorecard management process where the company examines its competitive environment and identifies competitive advantages?
	A)	Monitoring
	B)	Translate
	C)	Link
	D)	Formulate
A

D

67
Q 
Which of the following is the step in the balanced scorecard management process where the company evaluates the effectiveness of its strategy?
	A)	Monitoring
	B)	Adapt
	C)	Formulate
	D)	Link
A

B

68
Q 
Which of the following describes the attributes of the firm's products, such as price, quality, and selection, as well as the firm's relationship with its customers and its brand image?
	A)	Customer satisfaction
	B)	Customer management
	C)	Innovation
	D)	Value proposition
A

D

69
Q 
Which of the following is the first step in creating a business case for IT initiatives?
	A)	Assessing the business requirements
	B)	Determining the benefits
	C)	Determining the costs
	D)	Preparing the value proposition
A

A

70
Q

When evaluating the business case for IT initiatives, which of the following should also be considered to assure that benefits are achieved?
A) IT costs
B) IT operations
C) Complementary business process changes
D) None of the above

A

C

71
Q 
The benefits from an IT initiative must be measurable in which of the following terms?
	A)	Cost
	B)	Financial
	C)	Business process performance
	D)	Information capital
A

B

72
Q 
Which of the following is an indirect cost of an IT initiative?
	A)	Acquisition cost
	B)	Installation cost
	C)	User downtime
	D)	Maintenance cost
A

C

73
Q 
There are several different kinds of risk entailed in an IT initiative. Which of the following is the risk that an IT project will not be completed on time and within budget?
	A)	Financial risk
	B)	Change risk
	C)	Technological risk
	D)	Project risk
A

D

74
Q 
Which of the following is the term for the point where the total value of benefits equals total costs?
	A)	Breakeven
	B)	Payback
	C)	Net present value
	D)	Return
A

A

75
Q 
Which of the following is the term for the discount rate that makes a project's net present value equal to zero?
	A)	Payback
	B)	Breakeven
	C)	Internal rate of return
	D)	Present value
A

C

76
Q

Which of the following is a weakness of the Net Present Value metric when used to evaluate projects?
A) Fails to consider the size of the project
B) Larger projects tend to have larger net present values
C) Ignores the time value of money
D) Fails to consider risk

A

B

77
Q 
Which phase of the systems development life cycle would include changes, corrections, additions and upgrades to ensure the system continues to meet its intended business requirements?
	A)	Analysis phase
	B)	Maintenance phase
	C)	Design Phase
	D)	Implementation Phase
A

B

78
Q 
The IFAC suggested ten core principles of effective information technology planning. Which of these are not one of those ten core principles?
	A)	Achievability
	B)	Reassessment
	C)	Commitment
	D)	Feasibility
A

D

79
Q

Projects are considered challenged if they are:
A) Cancelled by the project sponsor prior to completion due to technical issues.
B) Delivered, but never adopted by the users.
C) Late, over budget or do not have the required features and functions.
D) Completed early.

A

C

80
Q 
The triple constraint of project management does not include the constraint of:
	A)	Quality
	B)	Time
	C)	Cost
	D)	Scope
A

A

81
Q 
The PERT and Gantt charts primarily address the triple constraint of:
	A)	Technical issues
	B)	Time
	C)	Cost
	D)	Quality
A

B

82
Q

The 100% rule suggests that before a PERT chart is done, a project manager must:
A) Make sure 100% of the project is sponsored.
B) Make sure that each person on the project team got 100% on their project management final exam.
C) Make sure the project team is devoted solely, or 100%, to this project, and not to other competing projects.
D) Make sure 100% of the project tasks are defined in advance

A

D

83
Q

The critical path in a PERT chart represents:
A) The critical task of sequencing activities.
B) The most important tasks of the whole project.
C) The longest path of tasks needed for project completion.
D) The least important tasks of the whole project.

A

C

84
Q 
The Technology Acceptance Model addresses:
	A)	Perceived Usefulness
	B)	Perceived Systems Quality
	C)	Perceived System Value
	D)	The Value of Piloted Systems
A

A

85
Q 
Which phase of the systems development life cycle that summarizes the business needs with a high-level view of the intended project?
	A)	Analysis phase
	B)	Planning phase
	C)	Design Phase
	D)	Implementation Phase
A

B

86
Q

A project manager is generally defined as:
A) A senior executive that will sponsor, or pay for, the project.
B) A senior executive in the company who takes responsibility for the success of the project.
C) The CEO of the company that likes technology.
D) The lead member of the project team that is responsible for the project.

A

D

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