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23 Oral Diagnosis > Final Practice > Flashcards

Final Practice Flashcards

First part is the same as midterm

1
Q

if patient shoes up with sores, what must you do

A

report to clinic supervisor and dismiss patient

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2
Q

what are findings determined from examination

A

signs

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3
Q

what is a precise term used to describe a deviation from normal, derived from examination findings thru deductive reasoning

A

diagnosis

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4
Q

information gathering/patient interview must be what? why?

A

systematic and consistent. do it the same way every time so you won’t miss anything

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5
Q

what is the best way to avoid medical emergencies

A

patient history

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6
Q

trasillumination is best for what caries

A

class III

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7
Q

what diagnosis has high certainty

A

definitive

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8
Q

T/F: when doing clinical exam, you should tell the patient what you are doing before you do it and have assistant present

A

TRUE

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9
Q

T/F: the dentist owes the patient that degree of skill, care, and judgement possesed by a resonable dentist

A

true

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10
Q

are patients POOR judges of clinical excellence

A

yes

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11
Q

should you ever give patient original charts

A

never! give them copies

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12
Q

what is the failure to do what a reasonable persona would do

A

negligence

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13
Q

what is the right of competent adults to make decision

A

consents

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14
Q

age of consent in NE

A

19

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15
Q

what are exceptions to not getting consent

A

life threatening emergeny and treatment that patent has previously consented to

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16
Q

what is the primary resource for determining the patient fitness for tx

A

medical history

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17
Q

why should you ask if patient if theyre on birth control

A

because antibiotics decreaseses its effectiveness

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18
Q

swollen ankles on patient means what

A

congestive heart failure and arrythmias

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19
Q

do not treat patient with systemic disease if BP is what

A

> 159/95

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20
Q

defer elective tx if bp is what

A

> /= 170/104

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21
Q

defer emergency tx if bp is what

A

> /= 180/110

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22
Q

what BP should get immediate MD consult

A

> 210/120

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23
Q

do you need to premedicate for suture removal

A

no

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24
Q

if patient is allergic to penicillin (amoxicillin) what do dyou give them

A

erhythromycin

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25
Q

how much amox? when

A

500 mg, ammox, 4 tabs, 1 hour before ppt

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26
Q

how much clinda? when

A

150 mg clindamycin, 4 tabs, 1 hour before appt

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27
Q

question about IV

A

do same amounts as antibiotic questions?

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28
Q

what is the rule of twos

A

supplemental steroid dosage for patients who have taken 20 mg cortisone or more or equibalent dose another steroid for 2 or more weeks in the last two years. may cause adrenal insufficiency which may cause patient inability to tolerate stressful situations

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29
Q

what is ADA 2 and 4

A

2 = pregnant
4 = severe systemic disease constant threat to life

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30
Q

___% of sqamous cell carcinoma found where

A

80% on lateral boder of tongue

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31
Q

T/F: decision to order radiographs based on pt hx, clinical exam, past/current path

A

true

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32
Q

order radiographs when

A

ater clinical exam

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33
Q

what are considerations in prescribing radioraphs

A

risk of exposure, cost, yield

34
Q

if patient swallows and swelling moves, what is wrong

A

tyroid

35
Q

use ___ with radiographas

A

clinical judgement

36
Q

what is most indicative of ordering radiographs

A

caries experience

37
Q

what provides more detailed image and less anatomical coverage

A

FMX

38
Q

what xray for interproximal caries

A

BW

39
Q

if an xray is shown without the apex of tooth for PA can you use it for diagnose?

A

no, PA must capture apex of tooth

40
Q

if xray is shown of BW with lots of overlap, can you use it to diagnose

A

no

41
Q

occlusal radiographs are indicated for what

A
  1. supernumerary teeth
  2. salivary stones
  3. dental development pre-eruption
  4. boney expansion
42
Q

what is most important funciton of fluoride

A

precipitation of calcium and phosphate

43
Q

is quality or frequency of sugar intake most important

A

frequency

44
Q

is remineralization faster or slower than demin

A

SLOWER

45
Q

all carioues lesions start as what spot

A

white spot

46
Q

if there is a dark spot with a halo around it, what do you have to do?

A

there is caries in dentin so need to restore with restoration

47
Q

know the radiograph classifications

A

E0-2, D1-3

48
Q

white spot lesion on dry tooth is __ way thru enamel

A

<1/2

49
Q

white spot lesion on wet tooth is __ way thru enamel

A

> 1/2

50
Q

if patient has multiple severe caries that can’t be treated in one visit, what can you use

A

SDF

51
Q

is SDF single use?

A

no! reapplied 2x a year

one month follow-up to check for lesion hardness. if soft, reapply following protocol.
in six month, reapply if lesion remains asymptomatic

52
Q

how often does insurance pay for different xrays

A

BW - 1x year
Pano/FMX - 1x every 5 years
PA - any time

53
Q

how often to take BW of patients with risk of caries (both child/adolescent and adults)

A

child - 6-12 months
adolescent - 6-12 months
adult - 6-18 months

54
Q

how often to take BW of patients with no caries or not at risk (child, adolescent, and adult)

A

child - 12-24 months
adolescent - 18-36 months
adult - 24-36 months

55
Q

Sign and symptoms are noted in order to arrive at diagnosis. You must be ___ and ___ at gathering that information

A

systemic and consistent

56
Q

best way to avoid emergencies is thru taking/reviewing is how

A

thorough health history

57
Q

what are the classifications of diagnoses

A
  1. definitive - high certainty
  2. differential - various possibilities
  3. tentative - uncertain, but treatment may still be immediately necessary
58
Q

you accept the patient when you accept what

A

their healthy history

59
Q

informed consent does not apply to what

A
  1. life threatening conditions
  2. routine procedures the patient has accepted in the past
60
Q

what phase is RCT in

A

phase 3 - disease control

61
Q

what are phases of tx plan

A
  1. systemic
  2. acute
  3. disease control
  4. definitive
  5. maintenance
62
Q

what are indications for prophylaxis (MUST KNOW ALL)

A
  1. Prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic material for valve repair
  2. Previous Infective Endocarditis (IE)
  3. Congenital Heart Disease (CHD)
  4. Unrepaired cyanotic CHD, including palliative shunts and conduits
  5. Completely repaired congenital heart defect with prosthetic material or device (For first 6 months after procedure)
  6. Cardiac transplantation recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy
  7. Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation?
  8. Innocent heart murmur? No
  9. Rheumatoid infection?
63
Q

when is prophylaxis not needed

A
  1. Restorative dentistry with or without retraction cord
  2. Local anesthetic injections
  3. Intracanal endodontic treatment, posts, and build-ups
  4. Rubber dam placement
  5. Suture removal
  6. Placement of removable prosthetic/orthodontic appliances
  7. Impressions
  8. Fluoride treatments
  9. Radiographs
  10. Orthodontic appliance adjustment
64
Q

what do prescribe if patient allergic to penicillin/amox

A

clindamycin 150 mg, 4 tabs 1 hour prior to appt so 600 mg total dose

65
Q

what ASA:

patient normal and healthy

A

ASA 1

66
Q

what ASA

Patient with mild systemic disease (controlled hypertension or diabetes without systemic
complications, or ASA 1 plus pregnancy, tobacco use, systemic medications, or extreme
fear/apprehension)

A

ASA 2

67
Q

what ASA

Moderate to severe systemic disease that does not limit patient physical activities (stable angina or
diabetes with systemic complications). May require medical consult prior to extensive or invasive
dental treatment. (or ASA 2 plus severe fear/apprehension)

A

ASA 3

68
Q

what ASA

Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Dental treatment only in hospital setting.

A

ASA 4

69
Q

what ASA

Moribund patient not expected to survive without immediate medical intervention.

A

ASA 5

70
Q

what ASA

organ donor

A

ASA 6

71
Q

what ASA is special need patient

A

3 or 4

72
Q

primary cause of oral cancer

A

tobacco

73
Q

you should never biopsy what type of lesion? then you should do what

A

never biosy red - refer it out

74
Q

how many Gys in chemotherapy

A

5500 Gys

75
Q

prognoses are based on what staging

A

TNM - tumor, nodes, metasatsis

76
Q

what are the tumor classifications

A

T1S = Carcinoma in Situ
T1 = 2 cm or less diameter
T2 = 2-4 cm
T3 = greater than 4 cm

77
Q

what are the nodular classification

A

NO = no nodes
N1 = ipsilateral palpable node
N2 = contralateral/bilateral palpable node
N3 = Palpable, large, fixed nodes

78
Q

what is the acute care exam

A

SOAP

Subjective: chief complaint
Objective: clinical assessment
Assessment diagnoses
Procedure: the plan

78
Q

what are the metastatic classifications

A

MO = no metastasis
M1 = clinical or radiographic metastasis present

79
Q

can you use regular mouth wash to manage high caries risk?

A

NO it won’t work - use CHX

80
Q

what are methods to manage high caries risk

A

xylitol gum and more fluoride, CHX

81
Q

what type of diagnoses if patient left a voicemail message

A

tentative diagnoses

23 Oral Diagnosis (13 decks)

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