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Final neurobiology Flashcards

1
Q

lays down myelin around some axons

A

oligodendrocytes

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2
Q

Specialized macrocyte cells in the brain that remove myelin and cellular debris

A

microglial cells

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3
Q

maintain an appropriate chemical environment

A

astrocytes

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4
Q

nerve cell bodies that reside in the PNS

A

ganglia

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5
Q

bundles of peripheral axons

A

nerves

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6
Q

local accumulations of neurons that have roughly similar connections and functions

A

nuclei

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7
Q

sheet like arrays of nerve cells

A

cortex

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8
Q

gathering of CNS axons

A

tracts

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9
Q

tracts that cross the midline of the brain

A

commissures

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10
Q

what his the resting (membrane) potential and what is the ionic basis underlying it

A

The resting membrane potential is largely determined by the K+ selective permeability and K+ concentration gradient

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11
Q

Below is the Nernst equation for the electrochemical equilibrium of a permeant ion. Eion is the equilibrium potential (measured in units of mV) generated by the permeant ion across the membrane at electrochemical equilibrium; [ion]out and [ion ]in are permeant ion’s concentration outside and inside the cell. z is the electrical charge of the permeant ion (2 for Ca2+). Log10 = 1, Log100 = 2, Log1000 = 3, Log1/10 = -1, Log1/100 = -2, and Log1/1000 = -3. If a neuron has 10 mM Ca2+ inside the cell and 10000 mM Ca2+ outside the cell, the equilibrium potential of Ca2+ for this neuron would be? Eion = 58/Z log ion out/ion in

A

+87 mV

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12
Q

A neuron’s resting potential is -65 mV and the threshold potential is -40 mV. The equilibrium potential for Na+ (ENa) of this neuron is +70 mV. You use a voltage clamp method to inject positive currents into a neuron at the resting potential to depolarize the membrane potential by 40 mV. The membrane potential for the neuron is now clamped at?

A

specific value -65 mV + 40 mV = -25 mV.

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13
Q
  1. A transient increase in Na+ conductance causes Na+ to enter the neuron and quickly depolarizes the membrane potential (PNa+↑).
  2. Depolarization slowly activates the voltage‐dependent K+ conductance, causing K+ to leave the cell and repolarizing the membrane potential (PNa+↓ & PK+↑↑).
  3. Undershoot: the K+ conductance becomes temporarily higher than it is resting, (hyperpolarization, PK+↑↑). Hyperpolarization causes the voltage‐dependent K+ conductance to turn off, and the membrane potential returns to the resting potential (PK+↑).
  4. Refractory period: following an action potential, the axon becomes refractory to further excitation for a brief period.
A

reconstruction of action potential

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14
Q

Which protein molecule generates sodium and potassium ion concentration gradients across neuronal membranes?

A

Sodium-Potassium ATPase Pump

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15
Q
  1. An action potential depolarizes the presynaptic axonal terminal.
  2. Depolarization leads to the opening of voltage‐gated calcium channels.
  3. The influx of Ca2+ allows synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
  4. Neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft via exocytosis.
  5. The neurotransmitters bind to receptors in the postsynaptic membrane, causing channels to open or close.
  6. Neurotransmitter‐induced postsynaptic current increases or decreases the probability that the postsynaptic cells will fire an action potential (the excitability).
A

sequence of events involved in chemical synaptic transmission

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16
Q

If the reversal potential is more ______ than the threshold potential then it is excitation

A

positive

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17
Q

if reversal is more negative than threshold potential then it is _____

A

inhibitory

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18
Q

-45 mV – (-65 mV) = 20 mV
EPSPs + IPSPs need to be greater or equal to 20 mV. 10mV – 4mV – 3mV + 15 mV = 18 mV

A

18 mV < 20 mV, so the neuron would not fire an action potential

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19
Q

Enzymatic degradation (3)

A

Acetylcholine, Substance P, and Opioid Peptides

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20
Q

Uptake through transporters (4)

A

Glutamate, GABA, Dopamine, and Serotonin

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21
Q

ionotropic NT

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
AMPA
NMDA
P2X receptors

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22
Q

Metabotropic NT

A

-Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
-dopamine receptor
-α-adrenergic receptors
-β-adrenergic receptors

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23
Q

ii. Peptide transmitters are made as propeptide precursors and packed in large dense-core vesicles
iii. Propeptides can give rise to more than one species of active neuropeptides.
iv. Peptide transmitters typically elicit complex postsynaptic responses

A

Understand synthesis and processing of peptide transmitters and they are packed in which types of vesicles?

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24
Q

The mechanism for short-term synaptic depression

A

Depletion of the presynaptic vesicle

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25
Q

what is the common btw LTP and LTP

A

both remove or internalize AMPARs from the surface

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26
Q

Differences between LTD:

A

Cerebellar:
1. uses kinases
2. coincidence detector: activation of mGluR + VCa2+ synapses

Hippocampal:
1. uses phosphates
2. coincidence detector: NMDAR

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27
Q

How do receptor potentials encode the intensity of stimuli?

A

Receptor potential is grade so their amplitude will be correlated with their intensity (increase in amplitude with increasing intensity of the stimulus)

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28
Q

Senses mediated by dorsal root ganglion neurons

A

Touch, proprioception, nociception, and thermoception (heat or cold)

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29
Q

sense points

A

Merkel cells

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30
Q

sense skin motion

A

messiner corpuscles

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31
Q

sense vibration

A

pacinian corpuscles

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32
Q

cutaneous stretching

A

Ruffini corpuscles

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33
Q

the primary somatosensory cortex has _____ _____ that does not reflect

A

disproportional somatotopy

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34
Q

The neurons in the Primary SSC will cluster together to form _____ _____ _____

A

functional distinct columns

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35
Q

lesions to which area will cause the most severe deficit in primary somatic sensory cortex

A

3B

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36
Q

C fibers convey what type of pain, 1st or second

A

second

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37
Q

injury to one side then the patient will lose tactile sensation and proprioception on that same side but will lose nociception on the opposite side of the injury.

A

Dissociated Sensory loss

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38
Q

convey a sharp pain first

A

A epsilon

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39
Q

-mediates tactile sensation and proprioception
-is the axon bundle of the dorsal root ganglia neuron running in the spinal cord

A

dorsal column

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40
Q

-mediates nociception - pain
-axon bundle of dorsal horn neurons in the spinal cord

A

anterolateral column

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41
Q

1) Photoreceptors absorb a photon of light and change 11-cis retinal to all-trans isomer.
2) Conformational change of rhodopsin leads to activation of transducin (Gt)
3) Transducin activates a phosphodiesterase that hydrolyzes cGMP
4) Lowering of cGMP concentration in the outer segment
5) cGMP-gated channel closure and hyperpolarization of the cell

A

The sequence of events of phototransduction

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42
Q

low acuity + scoptic vision

A

rod

43
Q

-specialized for acuity
-phototopic vision

A

cone

44
Q

The spatial arrangement of different sounds and different frequencies are processed in different regions of the auditory system

A

tonotopy

45
Q

what is the mechanoelectrical transduction: the process by which hair cells convert mechanical energy from sound waves to electrical signals

what its the sequence for mechanical transduction

A
  1. displace of the hair
  2. opening (MET) channel
  3. K+ influx generates a graded receptor potentiation to depolarize the hair cell (HAIR CELLS DO NOT FIRE ACTION POTENTIALS)
  4. depolarizing + opening of VGIC Ca2+ and transmitters release
46
Q

liner acceleration

A

otolith

47
Q

rotational acceleration

A

semicircular canal

48
Q

The olfactory system does require a thalamic relay from the receptor neurons to the pyriform cortex True or false

A

False it does NOT require thalamic relay

49
Q

i. Odorant receptor proteins are encoded by the odorant receptor gene family
ii. Each of the olfactory receptor neurons expresses only one of the two copies of the odorant receptor genes
iii. Most mammalian olfactory receptor neurons express only one odorant receptor gene) **
iv. Odorant receptor proteins are G‐protein‐coupled receptors
v. Odorant receptor proteins are found at the highest concentration in the olfactory cilia of the olfactory receptor neurons

A

odorant receptor proteins

50
Q

1) Alpha subunit of Golf dissociates upon odorant binding to receptors
2) Activation of adenyl cyclase III (ACIII)
3) An increase in cAMP opens cAMP‐gated channels that permit entry of Na+ and Ca2+
4) Depolarization is further amplified by Calcium‐activated Cl‐ channels
5) Action potential are generated via voltage‐gated sodium channels

A

The Sequence of events of odor transduction

51
Q

TRPM5 channel is involved in sensory transductions for

A

sweet, bitter, and umami tastes

52
Q

Sensory Epithelia for Visual

A

retina

53
Q

Sensory Epithelia for Auditory

A

Organ of Corti

54
Q

Sensory Epithelia for Otolith organs (Utricle and Saccule)

A

Macula

55
Q

Sensory Epithelia for semicircular canals

A

crista

56
Q

Reflex movement is the movement that does or doesn’t involve Cortical upper motor neurons.

A

DOESNT

57
Q

Cell types involved in reflex movements

A

Cells involved in reflex movements are sensory neurons, lower motor neurons, interneurons, brainstem upper motor neurons

58
Q

-gradual increases in muscle tension (or force) results from the progressive recruitment of motor units in a fixed order (S → FR → FF), according to their size.
–Low threshold S motor units are recruited first, then FR motor units, and finally, at the highest levels of activity, the FF motor units

A

Size principle

59
Q

maintain muscle length at a desired level

A

muscle stretch reflex

60
Q

maintain muscle tension (force) at a desired level

A

Autogenic Inhibition Reflex

61
Q

without sensory feedback or descending UMN inputs

A

Central Pattern Generator

62
Q

generates a feedback response to stabilize posture after existing unanticipated postural instability

A

Vestibulo-Spinal Reflex

63
Q

generates a feedforward response to stabilize posture to anticipated postural instability.

A

Reticular Formation

64
Q

control the orientating head and eye movement

A

Superior Colliculus

65
Q

encode intentions for movements in central personal space

A

UMNs Primary Motor Cortex

66
Q

encode intentions for movements that are oriented toward extra personal space (beyond arm’s length)

A

UMNs Premotor Cortex

67
Q

initiate feedforward voluntary adjustments that stabilize posture to anticipated postural instability

A

UMNs Reticular Formation

68
Q

The corticospinal tract is the axons of the UMNs in the motor cortex, which descend through the ____ white matter and terminate in _______ spinal cord

A

lateral; contralateral

69
Q

A subset of UMNs in the premotor cortex fire when an animal observes and performs a particular movement

A

What are mirror motor neurons

70
Q

What are the four major parts of the basal ganglia

A

i. The corpus striatum
ii. The globus pallidus
iii. The substantia nigra
iv. The subthalamic nucleus

71
Q

HYPOKINETIC (difficulty in expression of movement) movement disorder CAUSED by the loss of the dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra pars compacta

A

parkinson’s disease

72
Q

Loss of _____ input → increased indirect pathway and diminished direct pathway → more tonic inhibition of thalamus → decreased excitation of motor cortex UMNs → reduced voluntary movement.

A

dopaminergic

73
Q

Medium spiny neurons that project to the external globus pallidus degenerate

A

Huntington’s disease

74
Q

Cortical inhibitory loop is formed by _____ _____ cells that provide the only output from the cerebellar cortex

A

GABAergic Purkinje

75
Q

formed by deep cerebellar nuclei neurons

A

Deep excitatory loop

76
Q

Parallel fiber pathway conveys the main inputs and functions to _____ ____

A

correct motor errors for ongoing movements

77
Q

Climbing fiber pathway convey the modulatory input and functions to encode

A

motor learning and memory

78
Q

the folding process of ectoderm to develop the neural tube

A

Neurulation

79
Q

the single‐layered blastula is reorganized into a multilayered structure known as the gastrula

A

Gastrulation

80
Q

Prosencephalon

A

cerebral cortex, hippocampus, basal ganglia, thalamus and hypothalamus

81
Q

midbrain tegmentum, superior colliculi

A

Mesencephalon

82
Q

cerebellum, pons, and medulla

A

Rhombencephalon

83
Q

dorsalizing signals to regulate specification of the neural tube and differentiation of dorsal part

A

BMP

84
Q

secreted from notochord to block BMP signaling for neural induction

A

Noggin and Chordin

85
Q

ventralizing

A

Sonic Hedgehog

86
Q

neuronal differentiation during neurogenesis by regulating neural stem cell decisions to generate either additional stem cells or postmitotic neurons

A

Delta/Notch

87
Q

What are the two major functions of radial glial cells in the developing CNS?

A
  • Acting as migratory guides
  • They are neuronal progenitor (stem) cells in the developing cortex
88
Q

regulate neuronal polarization

A

Par

89
Q

axon guidance chemoattractant

A

Netrin

90
Q

non-diffusible axon guidance molecules and constitutes cell-cell recognition codes

A

Eph/ephrin

91
Q
  1. Neurite outgrowth or retraction
  2. Synapse stabilization or elimination for activity‐dependent plasticity
  3. Cell survival or death
A

Neurotrophins

92
Q

Neurotrophins receptors

A
  1. Tyrosine kinase (Trk) receptors
  2. P75 receptor
93
Q
  • Explain the cellular basis of the experience-dependent modification of neural circuits
  • Suggests that synaptic contacts between co-activated pre- and postsynaptic neurons will be strengthened and strengthening of synaptic connections
  • Strengthening of synaptic connections can be reflected in sprouting of new branches
  • Uncorrelated activities between pre- and postsynaptic neurons result in loss of synaptic connections
A

Hebb’s postulate

94
Q

The temporal window when experience and the resulting neural activity have a maximal effect on the circuit connectivity and the acquisition or skilled execution of a particular behavior

A

critical period

95
Q

key players of activity-dependent plasticity during the critical period?

A

Neurotransmitter receptor (NMDA receptor), CREB transcription factor, kinase, intracellular Ca2+, and neurotrophins

96
Q

distinct anatomical and functional arrangement of neurons within the primary visual cortex of the brain.

A

Ocular dominance column

97
Q

the column for the deprived eye becomes narrower, while the column for the intact eye becomes wider

A

monocular deprivation

98
Q

early deficiencies of sensory experience (4)

A

ADHD, Autism, Amblyopia, and Schizophrenia

99
Q

What is the underlying reason for improved functional recovery after mammalian CNS damage

A

Reorganization of intact undamaged circuits rather than the regrowth or replacement of damaged neurons

100
Q

Describe the sequence of events during peripheral nerve regeneration

A
  1. The distal portion of the injured axon degenerates.
  2. Macrophage phagocytoses myelin and axonal debris.
  3. Schwann cells proliferate and secrete molecules to guide and stimulate regeneration.
  4. Injured neurons transform the proximal segment of the injured axon into a growth cone, express growth-related genes, and increase protein trafficking.
  5. Axon regrows to the target.
100
Q

the process that all three types of glial cells (astrocytes, oligodendroglia, and microglia) are activated by proliferation and hypertrophy in response to the CNS injury

A

Reactive Gliosis

101
Q

formed by astrocytes prevents axon growth + physical barrier that inhibits axon growth

A

glial scar

102
Q

What are the factors that inhibit the regrowth of CNS axons after injury

A

a) glial scar
b) Chemorepellents
c) Extracellular matrix components
d) Myelin‐associated inhibitors

103
Q

What are the two neurogenic areas in the adult mammalian brain?

A

Subventricular Zone (SVZ) and Subgranular Zone (SGZ)

neurobio (7 decks)

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