Final- Lymphatic, Immune, Digestive, Urinary, and Reproductive Systems system Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 components of the lymphatic system?

A

1) lymphatic vessels
2) lymphoid tissues
3) lymphoid organs
4) immune system

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2
Q

What are the lymphoid vessels in order from smallest to largest?

test q

A

1) capillaries
2) collecting vessels
3) trunks (regional)
3A) jugular
3B) subclavian
3C) broncho-mediastinal
3D) lumbar (R/L)
3E) intestinal
4) ducts (right lymphatic and left thoracic duct)

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3
Q

Cisterna chyli (“bowl of juice”) is at the same level of L2, and receives lymph fluid from….

test q

A

Lumbar and intestinal trunks

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4
Q

What does the right lymphatic duct drain?

Exam question

A

Lymph from the right half of head, right side of thorax, and right arm into the right subclavian vein

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5
Q

What does the left thoracic duct drain?

Exam q

A

Lymph from everything besides R half of head, R side of thorax, and R arm into the L subclavian vein

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6
Q

What is another name for lymphoid tissues?

A

Lymphoid nodules (follicles)

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7
Q

_____________________ are encapsulated bundles of lymphatic cells with lamina propria (CT) layer of mucous membranes

A

Lymphoid tissues

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8
Q

Where are lymphoid tissues found (think tracts and tissues)?

A

GI, respiratory, reproductive, and urinary tracts, and peyer’s patches of the SI

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9
Q

What are the lymphatic organs?

A

-BM
-lymph nodes
-thymus
-spleen
-liver
-tonsils

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10
Q

Within BM, there is hematopoietic stem cells (blood cell precursors) that produce _____________ which mature into B and T lymphocytes

test q

A

Lymphoblasts

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11
Q

What serves as lymph filters and activates the immune system to remove and destroy pathogens/debris?

test q

A

Lymph nodes

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12
Q

What are the 4 parts of a lymph node structurally?

test q

A

1) cortex
2) medulla
3) afferent lymph vessels
4) efferent lymph vessels

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13
Q

What portion of the lymph node is the outer portion that contains WBCs, dendritic cells, and B cells predominantly?

test q

A

Cortex

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14
Q

What portion of the lymph node is the inner portion that contains large lymph capillaries?

test q

A

Medulla

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15
Q

What vessel within the lymph node takes lymph fluid to the lymph node?

test q

A

Afferent lymph vessels

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16
Q

What vessel within the lymph node takes lymph fluid away from lymph nodes?

test q

A

Efferent lymph vessels

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17
Q

Which lymphoid organ is located deep to the manubrium of the sternum?

test q

A

Thymus

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18
Q

Which lymphoid organ is bilobed and undergoes involution with age (gets smaller and replaces by fat)?

test q

A

Thymus

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19
Q

Which lymphoid organ has thymocytes (immature T lymphocytes) that migrate here from BM?

test q

A

Thymus

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20
Q

Which lymphoid organ secretes thymic hormones to stimulate maturation of thymocytes to mature T cells (T lymphocytes)?

test q

A

Thymus

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21
Q

Where is the site of lymphatic proliferation?

test q

A

Spleen

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22
Q

Which lymphoid organ has immune surveillance and response?

test q

A

Spleen

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23
Q

Which lymphoid organ extracts aged RBCs and platelets to break them down?

Test q

A

Spleen

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24
Q

What are the immune functions of the liver?

test q

A

Remove pathogens and toxins entering the body via the GI tract (taken to liver by the portal system)

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25
Q

Which lymphoid organ is the major producer of anti-microbial proteins (complement proteins) for immune system responses?

test q

A

Liver

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26
Q

Which lymphoid organ is in the pharynx behind the nasal and oral cavities, and has crypts that trap microbes (pathogenic microorganisms)?

test q

A

Tonsils

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27
Q

What are the 4 paired tonsils?

test q

A

1) pharyngeal (also called adenoid, found behind nasopharynx)
2) tubal (near opening of Eustachian (auditory) tube in nasopharynx)
3) palatine (below soft palate)
4) lingual (behind tongue)

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28
Q

What is the difference between the lymphatic system and immune system?

A

Lymphatic system= consists of lymphatic vessels, tissues, and organs and the immune subsystem provides surveillance and defense against pathogens and foreign substances

Immune system= defense subsystem of lymphatic system comprised of chemicals, anti-microbial proteins and WBCs that protect against disease

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29
Q

What are the subsystems of the immune system?

A

Innate (nonspecific) and acquired (specific/adaptive)

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30
Q

What is the first line of defense of the innate (nonspecific) immune system?

test q

A

surface barriers (skin and mucous membranes)

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31
Q

What is the 2nd line of defense of the innate (nonspecific) immune system?

test q

A

internal defenses (chemicals, anti-microbial proteins, and cells)

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32
Q

Which immune system recognizes and responds to pathogens in a generic way and may cause fever and inflammation?

A

innate immune system

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33
Q

Which immune system has no memory or long term immunity?

A

innate immune system

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34
Q

What is the 3rd line of defense?

test q

A

adaptive/acquired/specific immune system
-proteins (cytokines and complement proteins) and cells
-humoral (antibody-mediated immunity w/ B cells
-cellular (cell mediated) immunity with T cells
-recognize and respond to pathogens
-has memory and long term immunity (recognize subsequent infections)
-exists for years to life

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35
Q

B cells are also known as B lymphocytes and are a part of humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity. What do B cells produce and where are they derived from?

test q

A

B cells produce antibodies (Y shaped proteins that bind to microbes thereby disabling or killing them)

B cells are derived from lymphoblast cells in BM and mature there

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36
Q

T cells are also known as T lymphocytes and are a part of cell mediated immunity. What do they do and where are they derived from?

test q

A

T cells directly bind to microbes and perferate the cell membrane and injects enzymes to destroy them

T cells are derived from lymphoblast cells in BM, and migrate to mature in the thymus gland

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37
Q

What are the 4 layers of the digestive tract?

test q

A

1) serosa or adventita (outer layer of serous membrane/CT)
2)) muscularis externa
3) submucosa (CT containing blood lymph, and nerve fibers)
4) mucosa

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38
Q

How many layers is the muscularis externa?

test q

A

2 layers of smooth muscle (outer layer is longitudinal and the inner layer is circular)

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39
Q

The submucosa is a CT containing what?

test q

A

blood, lymph, and nerve fibers

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40
Q

What is the innermost epithelial lining of the digestive system?

test q

A

mucosa

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41
Q

What layer of the digestive system secretes mucus, absorbs nutrients, and protects against infection with lymphoid follicles?

test q

A

mucosa

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42
Q

The esophageal sphincter is made up of a smooth muscle ring that is voluntary or involuntary? Where is it located and what does it do?

test q

A

involuntary

located between the diaphragm, where esophagus meets the stomach

prevents reflux of stomach contents

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43
Q

What are the 4 parts of the stomach?

A

1) cardia
2) fundus
3) body
3) pylorus

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44
Q

What is the mucosa of the stomach called?

A

Gastric mucosa (mucous membrane)

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45
Q

What organ/region has folds/rugae, gastric pits, and glands, and is made up of simple columnar epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae?

A

Mucosa of the stomach

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46
Q

What is another name for rugae?

A

Gastric folds

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47
Q

What are rugae and what does it allow?

A

Longitudinal wrinkles in gastric mucosa that allows for expansion of stomach

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48
Q

What are gastric pits? What do they contain?

test q

A

Indentations in the gastric mucosa that contains entrances to 3-5 gastric glands and is lined with surface mucous cells

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49
Q

Where are gastric glands (cells) found and what do they secrete?

test q

A

Found in gastric pits (lamina propria) and open into bases of gastric pits

Secretes HCl, digestive enzymes, and gastric hormones

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50
Q

What are the 3 parts of the small intestine?

test q

A

-duodenum
-jejunum
-ileum

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51
Q

What part of the small intestine surrounds the head of the pancreas?

Exam q

A

Duodenum

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52
Q

What part of the small intestine does most of the chemical digestion?

Test q

A

Duodenum

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53
Q

What is the shortest section of the small intestine (8 feet)?

test q

A

Jejunum

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54
Q

What section of the small intestine does the most absorption?

Test q

A

Jejunum

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55
Q

What section of the small intestine is the longest (12 feet)?

test q

A

Ileum

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56
Q

What section of the small intestine joins the large intestine at the ileocecal valve?

test q

A

Ileum

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57
Q

What is found within the mucosa of the small intestine?

A

-pilcae circulares
-villi
-mucosal cells (enterocytes)
-microvilli (brush border)
-crypts of Lieberkuhn

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58
Q

What are plicae circulares? Where is it found and what does it do?

test q

A

Circular folds (valvulae conniventes/valves of Kerkring) of the mucosa of small intestine

Mostly found in lower duodenum and jejunum

Increases SA for absorption

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59
Q

What are villi and what do they allow for?

test q

A

Finger like extensions of mucosa on surface of plicae and further increase SA for absorption

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60
Q

What are mucosal cells? Where are they found and what do they do?

A

Also called enterocytes

Found on the surface of villi and line the lumen of SI

Absorb nutrients

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61
Q

What are microvilli (“brush border”) of the SI and what does it do?

test q

A

Tiny projections of plasma membrane of mucosal cells and increases SA of plasma membrane

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62
Q

What are crypts of Lieberkuhn?

test q

A

Vaults or pits between villi, lined by intestinal glands/cells

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63
Q

What are the 4 subdivisions of the large intestine?

test q

A

1) cecum
2) colon
3) rectum (in pelvis)
4) anus (in pelvis)

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64
Q

What are the features of the large intestine?

test q

A

-epiploic appendages (small fat filled appendages of visceral peritoneum)
-taeniae coli (muscularis externa reduced to 3 bands/ribbons)
-haustra (pocket like sacs, giving segmented appearance)
-Plicae semilunares (half moon shaped folds of colon walls formed by contraction)

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65
Q

What are epiploic appendages?

test q

A

Small fat filled appendages of visceral peritoneum in the large intestine

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66
Q

What are taeniae coli?

test q

A

Muscularis externa reduced to 3 bands/ribbons in the large intestine

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67
Q

What are haustra?

test q

A

Pocket like sacs giving segmental appearance in the large intestine

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68
Q

What are plicae semilunares?

test q

A

Half moon shaped folds of colon walls formed by contraction of the large intestine

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69
Q

What is the first part of the large intestine and is a blind pouch?

test q

A

Cecum

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70
Q

What quadrant is the cecum of the large intestine found in?

test q

A

RLQ

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71
Q

The appendix arises from the….

test q

A

Posteriomedial aspect of the cecum

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72
Q

The appendix is inferior to the….

test q

A

Ileocecal junction

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73
Q

What are the 4 parts of the colon?

test q

A

1) ascending colon
2) transverse colon
3) descending colon
4) sigmoid colon

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74
Q

What are the 2 flexures of the colon (large intestine)?

test q

A

-R colic flexure/hepatic flexure
-L colic flexure/splenic flexure

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75
Q

Where is the R colic flexure/hepatic flexure located?

test q

A

RUQ below liver, sharp bend between the ascending and transverse colon

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76
Q

Where is the L colic flexure/splenic flexure located?

test q

A

LUQ below spleen, sharp bend between transverse and descending colon

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77
Q

What are the accessory organs of the duodenum?

Exam question

A

Liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

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78
Q

Which accessory organ of the duodenum has the largest gland?

test q

A

The liver

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79
Q

Which accessory organ of the duodenum is in the RUQ, produces bile, receives nutrients from the GI tract except long chain fatty acids and cholesterol, and detoxifies blood?

test q

A

The liver

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80
Q

Who produces bile?

test q

A

Liver

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81
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the liver?

A

1) right
2) left
3) quadrate
4) caudal lobe

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82
Q

What is known as the port of the liver?

A

Porta hepatis

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83
Q

________________ is a deep fissure in the inferior surface of the liver and between the quadrate and caudate lobes

A

Porta hepatis

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84
Q

All blood vessels (except hepatic veins), nerves, and hepatic ducts (R and L) enter or leave the liver through here

A

Porta hepatis

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85
Q

What is the structural unit of the liver (hexagon shaped)?

A

Lobule (liver acinus)

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86
Q

What is composed of hepatocytes (liver cells) that produce bile (breaks down fats)?

A

Lobule (liver acinus)

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87
Q

What is the storage sac for bile?

test q

A

Gallbladder

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88
Q

What are the 3 parts of the gallbladder?

A

Fundus (head), body, and neck

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89
Q

What shape is the pancreas?

test q

A

Tadpole shaped

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90
Q

The pancreas is located primarily behind the….

test q

A

Stomach

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91
Q

The head of the pancreas is encircled by the…

test q

A

Duodenum

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92
Q

The tail of the pancreas abuts the…

test q

A

spleen

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93
Q

Does the pancreas have endocrine or exocrine functions? Or both

A

Both

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94
Q

What are the 4 exocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

1) carbohydrates (pancreatic amylase)
2) fats (pancreatic lipase)
3) proteins (pancreatic proteases- trypsin and chymotrypsin)
4) nucleic acids (pancreatic nucleases)

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95
Q

What are the endocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

Islets of langerhans (produce hormones) which consist of different cell types- alpha, beta, and delta cells

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96
Q

What are alpha cells? What do they do?

test q

A

Glucagon
-increase blood sugar (glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis)

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97
Q

What are beta cells and what do they do?

test q

A

Insulin
-decrease blood sugar (enhance membrane transport of glucose into cells to glycogenesis, protein synthesis, and fat synthesis)

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98
Q

What are delta cells and what do they do?

test q

A

Somatostatin
-decrease GH secretion and all other hormones from the pancreas

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99
Q

In the hepatopancreatic duct system, the bile duct carries bile produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder and unites with the pancreatic duct which carries digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas and empties these substances into the _______________ for chemical digestion

test q

A

duodenum

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100
Q

What is the hepato-pancreatic duct system?

test q

A

-bile from the liver and gallbladder mix with enzymes from the pancreas
-enter descending part of the duodenum
-reason that most chemical digestion occurs in the duodenum

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101
Q

The kidneys are surrounded by CT and fat and protected posteriorly by back muscles and….

A

Floating ribs 11 and 12

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102
Q

What type of CT is in the capsule of the kidneys?

test q

A

Irregular dense CT

103
Q

What part of the kidney is directly adhered to the surface of the kidney?

test q

A

Capsule

104
Q

What part of the kidney supports the kidney mass?

test q

A

Capsule

105
Q

What part of the kidney protects from injury?

test q

A

Capsule

106
Q

What part of the kidney is on the ventral cleft on the medial concave surface?

test q

A

Hilum

107
Q

What part of the kidney leads into the renal sinus (internal spaces)?

test q

A

Hilum

108
Q

What part of the kidney is the portal for nerves, renal blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?

test q

A

Hilum

109
Q

What are the 2 parts of the kidney externally?

test q

A

Capsule and hilum

110
Q

What are the 4 parts of the kidney internally?

test q

A

-cortex
-medulla
-renal sinus
-pelvis

111
Q

Columns and pyramids are found where within the kidney?

test q

A

Medulla

112
Q

Papilla, minor calyx, and major calyx is found where within the kidney?

test q

A

Renal sinus

113
Q

What is the superficial (outer) region of the kidney?

test q

A

Cortex

114
Q

Where in the kidney is the location of renal corpuscles of nephrons?

test q

A

Cortex

115
Q

What color is the kidney cortex?

A

Reddish brown

116
Q

Where is the location of nephron collecting ducts, loops of Henle, and peritubular capillaries?

test q

A

Renal pyramids of the medulla of the kidneys

117
Q

__________________ are inward extensions of cortical tissue and separate pyramids

A

Renal columns

118
Q

Renal pyramids are triangular regions in the medulla of the kidneys. What do the pyramids consist of?

Test q

A

Collecting ducts (which receive urine from nephrons), loop of henle of nephron and peritubular blood vessels

119
Q

What is the large cavity within the kidneys?

A

Renal sinus

120
Q

What is the urine flow of the nephron?

test q

A

bowman’s capsule > PCT > loop of Henle > DCT

121
Q

The DCT empties into the….

test q

A

collecting duct

122
Q

Reabsorption by collecting ducts is controlled by which hormones?

Test q

A

aldosterone and ADH (vasopressin)

123
Q

What is the function of ADH and aldosterone?

A

water and sodium reabsorption in kidneys

124
Q

What are the 4 parts of the renal tubules of the nephrons (kidney)?

A

1) proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
2) loop of henle (descending and ascending)
3) distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
4) collecting tubule

125
Q

Renal tubules empty into the….

A

Collecting ducts

126
Q

Are collecting ducts considered a part of the nephron of the kidney?

A

NO

127
Q

Collecting ducts recieves urine from multiple nephrons. Electrolyte and fluid balance in collecting ducts is regulated by _____________ and __________________

A

Aldosterone, vasopressin (anti diuretic hormone)

128
Q

What are the 3 processes of urine formation?

test q

A

1) glomerular filtration
2) reabsorption
3) secretion

129
Q

Is glomerular filtration of urine formation passive or active filtration?

A

Passive filtration

130
Q

Where does glomerulus filtration occur?

Test q

A

Glomerulus (ball of capillaries) to the Bowman’s capsule

131
Q

Water and solutes (ions like sodium) are pushed from glomerular capillaries in which process of urine formation?

A

Glomerular filtration

132
Q

Where does reabsorption of urine formation occur?

Test q

A

Renal tubule to peritubular capillaries

133
Q

Water, ions (Na+, Cl-, K+, HCO3- ions) and nutrients (glucose, amino acids, and vitamins) are absorbed into the peritubular capillaries in which process of urine formation?

A

Reabsorption

134
Q

Where does secretion of urine formation occur?

Test q

A

Peritubular capillaries to nephron tubules

135
Q

H+, K+, NH4+, creatinine, and organic acids are eliminated from the body during which process of urine formation?

A

Secretion

136
Q

What is the flow of urine (of kidney)?

Test q

A

Nephron > collecting duct > papillary duct > minor calyx > major calyx > renal pelvis > ureter > bladder > urethra

137
Q

The juxtaglomerular complex, or apparatus (JGC) regulates nephron function. How?

Test q

A

1) macula densa (in the wall of DCT nearest to the renal corpuscle, regulates sodium ion concentration)
2) juxtaglomerular (granular) cells (between DCT and glomerulus, secretes renin, renin increases BP)
3) extraglomerular mesangial cells (increases renin secretion from juxtaglomerular cells)

138
Q

What does macula densa regulate?

A

Sodium ion concentration

139
Q

Where are juxtaglomerular (granular) cells found?

A

Between the DCT and glomerulus

140
Q

What do juxtaglomerular cells do?

A

Secrete renin

141
Q

Does renin increase or decrease BP?

A

Increase

142
Q

What do extraglomerular mesangial cells do?

A

Increase renin secretion from juxtaglomerular cells

143
Q

What shape are the ovaries?

A

Small almond shaped

144
Q

What are the 2 parts of the ovaries?

A

Cortex (outer portion) and medulla (inner portion)

145
Q

Where are ovaries located?

A

Near the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity

146
Q

Where are oocytes (gametes/eggs) developed?

A

Ovaries

147
Q

Are the ovaries an exocrine or endocrine gland?

A

Endocrine gland

148
Q

What do ovaries secrete?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

149
Q

What are the 2 main parts of the cortex of the ovary?

test q

A

1) ovarian follicles (follicle (oocyte), corpus luteum, corpus albicans)
2) stroma (CT)

150
Q

What is found within the medulla of the ovaries?

test q

A

Blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels

151
Q

The ovarian follicle has 2 components:
1) an aggregation of cells that surrounds one immature egg
2) oocyte (immature ovum, or egg cell) produced in ovary as a result of female ________________

A

Gametogenesis

152
Q

What is the female duct system called?

A

Uterine tubes

153
Q

Do the uterine tubes have contact with the ovaries?

A

No, or very little contact

154
Q

What are the 4 parts of the uterine tubes?

test q

A

1) infundibulum
2) ampulla
3) isthmus
4) uterine

155
Q

What part of the uterine tubes opens to the peritoneum?

A

Infundibulum

156
Q

What part of the uterine tubes has fimbriae (finger like projections) and abdominal ostium?

test q

A

Infundibulum

157
Q

What part of the uterine tubes is the widest and longest part, and where fertilization usually occurs?

A

Ampulla

158
Q

What part of the uterine tubes is the intramural segment?

A

Uterine

159
Q

What is known as the womb?

test q

A

The uterus (hollow muscular organ when not pregnant)

160
Q

What shape is the uterus?

A

Pear shape

161
Q

Is the uterus found in the true or false pelvis?

test q

A

True pelvis when not pregnant (nongravid)

162
Q

Where is embryo and fetal development?

test q

A

Uterus

163
Q

What female reproductive organ is anteverted and anteflexed?

test q

A

Uterus

164
Q

The uterus lies against and over the…..

A

Urinary bladder

165
Q

What are the 2 main parts of the uterus?

test q

A

Body and cervix

166
Q

What is the superior rounded part of the body of the uterus?

A

fundus

167
Q

What is the constricted part separating the body of the uterus from the cervix?

A

isthmus

168
Q

What is a continuation of the uterine cavity?

A

cervical canal

169
Q

What is the recess between the intravaginal part of the cervix and the vagina?

A

fornix

170
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterus wall (from outside in)?

A

1) perimetrium (outer, visceral peritoneum)
2) myometrium (middle, smooth muscle)
3) endometrium (inner, epithelial)

171
Q

The endometrium is actively involved in the uterine cycle and consists of 2 layers. What are they?

A

stratum basalis and stratum functionalis

172
Q

The endometrium is actively involved in the uterine cycle and consists of 2 layers: stratum basalis and stratum functionalis. Which layer is shed and replaced each cycle?

A

stratum functionalis

173
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is a musculomembranous tube?

A

vagina

174
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is continuous with the cervical canal?

A

vagina

175
Q

What part of the female reproductive system collapses towards the midline?

A

vagina

176
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is distensible?

A

vagina

177
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is the outlet for menstrual fluid?

A

vagina

178
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is the inferior part of the birth canal?

A

vagina

179
Q

What part of the female reproductive system is involved in sexual intercourse?

A

vagina

180
Q

What is the vaulted peripheral recess where the vaginal cervix meets vagina called?

test q

A

vaginal fornix

181
Q

What is the arch or vault between the cervix and vaginal wall called?

test q

A

vaginal fornix

182
Q

What are the epithelial folds of the vagina called?

A

vaginal rugae

183
Q

What is the opening to the exterior of the vagina called?

A

vaginal orifice

184
Q

What is the mucus membrane partially covered by vaginal orifice called?

A

hymen

185
Q

What is another name for vestibule of vulva?

A

vestibule of vagina

186
Q

What is the cleft between the labia minora called?

test q

A

vestibule of vulva

187
Q

What is posterior to the clitoris?

test q

A

vestibule of vulva

188
Q

What is a part of the vaginal orifice and external urethral orifice?

test q

A

vestibule of vulva

189
Q

What part of the female reproductive system has openings of ducts of greater (Bartholin’s) and lesser (Skene’s) vestibular glands?

test q

A

vestibule of vulva

190
Q

What is the ovarian cycle?

A

-monthly series of ovarian events
-occurs monthly from puberty to menopause
-development of follicle and egg maturation
-ovulation
-formation of corpus luteum

191
Q

What are the 2 phases of the ovarian cycle?

test q

A

1) follicular phase (days 1-14, stages of follicle growth, estrogen levels increase)

2) luteal phase (days 15-28, formation of corpus luteum, progesterone levels increase)

192
Q

What day does ovulation usually occur?

test q

A

day 14 (egg released from ovary)

193
Q

What is the function of progesterone?

A

to maintain uterine lining (menstrual cycle) and pregnancy

194
Q

Where are estrogen and progesterone produced?

A

in the membrana granulosa cells of the ovarian follicle

195
Q

What is the function of estrogen?

A

-female sex drive
-menstrual cycle
-increase bone density
-increase fat
-nurture/receptivity

196
Q

What is the uterine cycle?

A

-monthly series of uterine events
-occurs monthly from puberty to menopause
-accompanies ovarian cycle
-measured from 1st day of bleeding

197
Q

What are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle?

test q

A

1) menstrual phase (days 1-5, shedding of endometrial (functionalis layer) lining)

2) proliferative phase (days 6-14, replacement of endometrial lining (functionalis layer))

3) secretory phase (days 15-28, endometrium is prepared for embryo implantation)

198
Q

What phases of the uterine cycle are superimposed over the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

menstrual and proliferative phase

199
Q

What phase of the uterine cycle is superimposed over the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

secretory phase

200
Q

What is known as the male gonads?

A

testes

201
Q

What are the paired ovoid reproductive glands of the male reproductive system?

A

testes

202
Q

What part of the male reproductive system produces sperm and primarily testosterone?

A

testes

203
Q

What part of the male reproductive system is suspended in the scrotum by the spermatic cord?

A

testes

204
Q

What part of the male reproductive system usually has the left side hang lower than the right side?

A

testes

205
Q

What is the tunica vaginalis?

A

external/outer serous membrane in the male reproductive system

206
Q

What is the tunica albuginea?

A

external/inner fibrous capsule

207
Q

In the internal duct system of the lobules, there is seminiferous tubules. What happens in here?

test q

A

site of sperm production (1-4/lobule)

208
Q

In the internal duct system of the lobules, there is tubules rectus. What does the tubule rectus do?

test q

A

carry sperm from the seminiferous tubules in lobules to the rete testis in the mediastinum testis

209
Q

In the mediastinum (hilum) testis there is the rete testis. What is the rete testis? What does it do?

test q

A

network of interconnected tubules

modifies luminal fluid and mixes with sperm

210
Q

In the mediastinum (hilum) testis there is the efferent ductules. What do the efferent ductules do?

test q

A

carry sperm from the rete testis to epididymis (outside of testicle)

211
Q

What are the 4 parts of the external duct system of the testes?

test q

A

1) epididymis
2) ductus/ vas deferens
3) ejaculatory duct
4) urethra

212
Q

Ductus (vas) deferens unites with the seminal vesicle to the _________________

A

ejaculatory duct

213
Q

Where is the site of sperm storage and maturation?

test q

A

epididymis

214
Q

What are the 3 parts of the epididymis?

test q

A

-head (coiled end of efferent ductules)
-body (convoluted duct of epididymis)
-tail (connects the epididymis to the ductus deferens)

215
Q

What is the ductus/vas deferens?

test q

A

spermatic cord/inguinal canal that loops over the bladder between the ureters

216
Q

What is the ampulla of the ductus/vas deferens?

test q

A

expanded terminus behind the bladder

217
Q

What is the ejaculatory duct?

test q

A

formed by the union of excretory duct of seminal vesicle and vas deferens

218
Q

What are the 3 parts of the urethra?

test q

A

1) prostatic (prostate)
2) membranous (urogenital diaphragm)
3) spongy (corpus spongiosum of penis)

219
Q

What are the 3 accessory glands of the external duct system?

test q

A

1) seminal vesicle (seminal fluid)
2) prostate gland (prostatic fluid)
3) bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands (bulbourethral (Cowper’s) fluid)

220
Q

What is the male reproductive organ?

A

penis

221
Q

What part of the male reproductive system has 3 cylindrical bodies of erectile tissue?

A

penis

222
Q

What part of the male reproductive system conveys the urethra?

A

penis

223
Q

What part of the male reproductive system is the outlet for urine and semen?

A

penis

224
Q

What are the 3 parts of the penis?

test q

A

1) root
2) body
3) glands

225
Q

What part of the penis is the “attached part” and located in the superficial perineal pouch?

A

root of penis

226
Q

What part of the penis consists of erectile tissue (crura and bulb)?

A

root of penis

227
Q

What part of the penis has ischiocavernosus and bulbospingiosus muscles?

A

root of penis

228
Q

What part of the penis is known as the “free pendulous part” and has 3 cylindrical bodies of erectile tissue (2 corpora cavernosa and 1 corpus spongiosum)?

test q

A

body of penis

229
Q

What part of the penis is conically expanded at the distal portion of the corpus spongiosum?

A

glans of penis

230
Q

What is the corona of the glans (of the penis)?

A

projection beyond the margin of corpora cavernosa

231
Q

What is the neck of the glans (of the penis)?

A

constriction separating it from body

232
Q

What is the external urethral orifice at the tip of penis called?

A

glans of penis

233
Q

What is the double layered retractable fold that protects the glans of penis and is removed during circumcisions called?

A

prepuce or foreskin of penis

234
Q

What organs are in the upper right quadrant?

Test q

A

liver, gallbladder, and R kidney

235
Q

What organs are in the lower right quadrant?

Test q

A

cecum, ilioceceal valve, appendix, and R ovary

236
Q

What organs are in the upper left quadrant?

Test q

A

spleen and left kidney

237
Q

What organs are in the lower left quadrant?

Test q

A

sigmoid colon and left ovary

238
Q

How many bones are there in total for the vertebrae? How is it divided?

test q

A

26 vertebrae

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx

239
Q

What are the 4 events/phases of muscle cell contraction (in order)?

test q!

A

1) initiation
2) muscle cell action potential
3) excitation contraction coupling
4) relaxation

240
Q

What are some examples of small molecule neurotransmitters?

Test q

A

-ACh
-dopamine
-Epi
-NE
-serotonin

241
Q

What is the function of dopamine?

Test q

A

motor and cognitive motivation

242
Q

What is the function of Epi?

Test q

A

attention

243
Q

What is the function of serotonin?

Test q

A

arousal, emotions, mood, and sexual urges

244
Q

What is the fight or flight division of NS?

A

Sympathetic NS

245
Q

What is the rest and digest division of NS?

A

Parasympathetic NS

246
Q

What are the efferent divisions of the ANS?

Test q

A

sympathetic (fight of flight, thoracolumbar outflow) and parasympathetic (rest and digest, craniosacral outflow)

247
Q

What are the 2 major hormone classifications?

Test q

A

1) amino acid based
2) steroid based

KNOW CHART

248
Q

What is the function of testosterone?

test q

A

-male sex drive
-increase muscle mass and bone density
-decrease fat
-aggression and sex drive

249
Q

Where are the great vessels of the heart found?

A

superior mediastinum

250
Q

What arteries are a part of the aortic arch?

test q

A

1) brachiocephalic trunk (BCT, only on right side of aortic arch)
2) left common carotid artery (CCA)
3) left subclavian artery (SC)

251
Q

What 2 arteries make up the brachiocephalic trunk?

Test q

A

right common carotid artery (CCA) and right subclavian artery (SC)

252
Q

What veins are found in the superior mediastinum?

Test q

A

-R and L brachiocephalic veins (BCV)
-superior vena cava (SVC)
-R and L internal jugular vein (IJV)
-R and L subclavian vein (SCV)

253
Q

What takes deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated from the R ventricle (pulmonary trunk)?

Test q

A

pulmonary arteries

254
Q

What takes oxygenated blood from the lungs to the L atrium?

test q

A

pulmonary veins