Exam 1 (part 2) Flashcards
What are the 6 functions of the skeletal system?
1) support
2) protection
3) movement
4) mineral homeostasis (stores calcium and phosphate)
5) hematopoiesis (blood cell formation fo WBCs, RBCs, and platelets)
6) triglyceride storage in yellow bone marrow
What is the skeletal system composed of?
-connective tissue
-cartilage
-bones
-joints
What tissue surrounds cartilage and bones like a sleeve, except where articular cartilage occurs?
CT
What is perichondrium?
outside surface of cartilage (proper dense irregular CT)
What is periosteum?
outside surface of spongy bone and compact bone
What is endosteum?
inside surface of compact bone (borders cavity)
What tissue is nourished by blood supply and is able to lay down more cartilage or bone as needed?
CT
Which tissue is in charge of attachment for tendons and ligaments?
CT
Is there blood vessels or nerves within cartilage?
NO
What are chondrocytes?
cells that produce cartilage matrix (chondrin)
Chondrin is a firm but elastic _____________ made by chondrocytes
protein matrix
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
test q
1) hyaline cartilage (slippery and smooth)
2) fibrocartilage
3) elastic cartilage
What is the most abundant type of cartilage?
test q
hyaline
Where is hyaline cartilage found?
1) synovial joints (articular surfaces)
2) costal cartilage (rib attachment to sternum)
3) respiratory tract (cartilage rings of the trachea and bronchi)
4) nasal cartilage (lateral, septal, and alar)
Which cartilage type is flexible and found in only 3 locations?
elastic (external ear, eustachian tube, and epiglottis (covers the larynx))
Which cartilage works best with pressure and stress?
fibrocartilage
Where is fibrocartilage found?
test q
-menisci of knees
-IVD
-pubic symphysis
bones are classified by what?
texture and shape
What are the texture classifications of bone?
compact or spongy bone (spongy bone is also known as trabecular or cancellous)
What are the 4 shape classifications of bone?
1) flat
2) irregular
3) long
4) short
All bones have a superficial thin layer of compact bone around a central mass of spongy bone, except where the latter is replaced by a ______________________ and only a thin layer is present (like in long bones). Endosteum lies between the thin layer of spongy bone and medullary cavity
medullary (marrow) cavity
What are the characteristics of compact bone?
test q
dense, smooth, and homogenous
What are the characteristics of spongy bone/trabecular/cancellous bone?
test q
holey, rough, irregular
Compact bones are composed of repeating structural units called ___________, or Haversian systems
test q
osteons
What is the structural unit of compact bone?
test q
osteons (Haversian system)
Do spongy bones contain osteons?
no!!!
Spongy bone is composed of trabeculae, inside of which lamellae are arranged in an irregular pattern. The spaces between the trabeculae are filled with….
blood cells (red marrow) or fat (yellow marrow)
What are examples of flat bones?
exam q
-skull
-sternum
-ribs
-pelvis
What are some examples of irregular bones?
exam q
-vertebrae
-sphenoid
-ethmoid
What are some examples of long bones?
-humerus
-radius
-ulna
-femur
-tibia
-fibula
metacarpals
-phalanges
What are some examples of short bones?
carpals or tarsals
What is the epiphyses?
exam q
end of the long bone
What is the metaphysis?
exam q
region separating diaphysis and epiphysis
epiphyseal growth plate is here and its a line of hyaline cartilage that allows diaphysis to grow in length
the epiphyseal line is also here and its an remnant of the epiphyseal growth plate in adults
What is the diaphysis (shaft)?
exam q
long cylinder of compact bone, surrounding the medullary cavity (contains bone marrow)
What is articular cartilage?
exam q
hyaline cartilage over epiphyses of a joint
What are the 2 membranes found in long bones?
exam q
1) periosteum (covers external spongy and compact bone surface. Blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels present)
2) endosteum (lines the inside of the medullary cavity. Blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels present)
What is red bone marrow/hematopoietic tissue? Where is it found?
site of blood cell formation in the medullary cavity and spongy portion of long bones, and diploe of flat bones
What is yellow bone marrow and where is it found?
site of triglyceride (fat) storage and is found in the medullary cavity of adult long bones
Bone is what type of tissue?
CT
What are the 4 cells of CT?
exam q
1) osteogenic or osteoprogenitor cells (stem cells)
2) osteoblasts (form bone matrix)
3) osteocytes (mature osteoblasts that are surrounded by and maintain bone matrix)
4) osteoclasts (breakdown bone matrix)
What do osteoblasts do?
exam q
form bone matrix
What do osteoclasts do?
exam q
breakdown bone matrix
What makes up the ECM in CT?
ground substance (water, GAGs, glycoproteins) and fibers (fibrous or structural proteins)
What are the inorganic components of bone?
-ions (calcium, phosphate group, hydroxyl group, sodium, potassium, magnesium)
-mineral salts (calcium phosphate, calcium hydroxide, and calcium hydroxyapatite
What are the ions found in bone?
-calcium
-phosphate group
-hydroxyl group
-sodium
-potassium
-magnesium
What mineral salts are found in bone?
calcium phosphate, calcium hydroxide, calcium hydroxyapatite
What makes up 65% of bone?
calcium hydroxyapatite (one of the mineral salts)
What do mineral salts do?
give bone hardness
What do collagen fibers give bone?
resistance/resilience
What is prenatal ossification?
1) intramembranous ossification (bone formation directly from membranes like bones of skull or clavicle)
2) endochondral ossification (bone formation from cartilage (all other bones))
What is intramembranous ossification?
bone formation directly from membranes like bones of the skull or clavicle
What is endochondral ossification
bone formation from cartilage (all other bones besides skull and clavicle)
What is post-natal ossification?
test q
1) length (growth of epiphyseal plate cartilage followed by ossification)
2) width (growth of bone bordering periosteum and endosteum)
All bones are derived from where?
mesenchyme (embryonic CT-mesoderm)
What hormones regulate bone growth/increase bone formation?
test q!!!!!!!
-growth hormone (GH)
-calcitonin
-testosterone
-estrogen
What are the 2 divisions of the skeletal system?
Test q
axial and appendicular
What bones are included in the axial skeleton?
test q
-skull (cranial bones, facial bones)
-hyoid bone
-auditory (ear) ossicles
-vertebral column (26 vertebrae, 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx)
-thorax (sternum, ribs)
What bones are included in the appendicular skeleton?
test q
-pectoral or shoulder girdle (clavicle, scapula)
-upper limbs
-pelvic or hip girdle (ilium, ischium, and pubic bones)
-lower limbs
What bone markings are found on the occiput?
test q
occipital condyles and foramen magnum
What bone markings are found on the temporal bone?
test q
-zygomatic process/arch
-external auditory meatus
-styloid process
-mastoid process
What bone markings are found on the sphenoid bone?
test q
-sella turcica
-greater and lesser wings
-superior orbital fissure
What bone markings are found on the ethmoid bone?
test q
-crista gali
-cribriform plate
-superior and middle conchae
What bone markings are found on the maxillary bone?
test q
inferior orbital fissure between the greater wing of sphenoid bone and the infraorbital foramen
What bone markings are found on the mandible?
test q
ramus
-condyle
-TMJ
-coronoid process
What is the largest and only freely moveable facial bone?
test q
the mandible
What bone markings are found on C1/atlas?
test q
-lateral masses
-anterior and posterior arches and tubercles
What bone markings are found on C2/axis?
test q
dens (odontoid process)
What bone markings are generally found on the vertebrae?
test q
-central canal
-pedicles
-transverse process
-transverse foramen
-lamina
-spinous processes
-facets (superior and inferior)
-intervertebral foramen
What bone markings are found on the clavicle (collar bones)?
test q
conoid tubercle and trapezoid line are attachments for coracoclavicular ligament
What bone markings are found on the scapulae?
test q
-spine
-acromion process
-coracoid process
-glenoid cavity (articulation w/ humerus)
What bone markings are found on the humerus PROXIMALLY?
test q
-head
-anatomical neck
-greater and lesser tubercles
-inter-tubercular sulcus (aka bicipital groove)
What bone markings are found on the humerus DISTALLY?
test q
-medial and lateral epicondyles
-olecranon fossa
What bone markings are found on the ulna?
test q
-olecranon process (elbow)
-trochlear notch
What bone markings are found on the radius?
test q
-radial tuberosity (biceps tendon insertion)
What bone markings are found on the ilium?
test q
-anterior and posterior superior iliac spines
-greater sciatic notch
What bone markings are found on the ischium?
test q
-lesser sciatic notch
-ischial tuberosities
What bone markings are found on the pubis?
test q
-pubic symphysis
-obturator foramen
What bone markings are found on the femur?
test question
-head
-neck
-greater and lesser trochanters
-gluteal tuberosity
-medial and lateral epicondyles
-medial and lateral condyles
What is the largest and strongest bone in the body?
test q
femur
What bone markings are found on the tibia?
test q
-medial and lateral condyles
-tibial tuberosity (proximal)
-medial malleolus (distal)
What bone markings are found on the fibula proximally?
test q
the head
What bone markings are found on the fibula distally?
test q
lateral malleolus
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
1) skeletal (voluntary, striated)
2) cardiac
3) smooth (visceral)
What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle?
test q
-attached to skeleton
-long and cylindrical
-multinucleated cells
-striated (banded) appearance
-voluntary
What are the characteristics of cardiac muscle?
-branching cells, intercalated discs, functional syncytium
-uninucleate, or binucleate
-striated appearance
-involuntary
What are the characteristics of smooth muscle?
-found on the walls of blood vessels and hollow organs
-spindle shaped
-uninucleated
-non-striated
-involuntary
What are the 7 functions of skeletal muscle?
1) movement of bones and joints through space
2) exert forces on external objects
3) stabilize joints
4) posture
5) facial expression
6) body language
7) heat generation
What are the 5 organizational parts of skeletal muscle?
test q
1) filaments (protein molecules like actin, myosin, and titin)
2) fibril (cylindrical organelles)
3) fiber/muscle cells
4) fascicle
5) muscle
What are the 3 filaments found in skeletal muscle?
test q
-actin (thin)
-myosin (thick)
-titin (elastic)
Fibrils are cylindrical organelles that are a bundle of _____________ arranged into sarcomeres. Sarcomeres are repeating contractile units of fibril and they occupy most of the sarcoplasm of a muscle cell
filaments
Fibers/muscle cells are a bundle of…..
fibrils
A fascicle are a bundle of…
fibers
A muscle is a bundle of….
fascicles
What is F actin?
protein polymer strand
Actin filaments are thin filaments that have active sites for binding with the heads of ___________ filaments
myosin
What is tropomyosin?
protein chain that covers active binding sites
What is troponin?
spherical protein that holds tropomyosin in place
Are myosin filaments thin or thick?
thick
Titin filaments are elastic and anchor ________ to _______ and springs back after stretch
myosin, Z disc
__________ are cylindrical bundles of filaments formed by specialized organelles.
Myofibrils
________________ are repeating contractile unit (segment of filaments) that make up fibril
Sarcomeres
Striations are dark and light bands formed by arrangement of filaments in….
sarcomere
What are the prefixes for muscle?
myo-
mys-
sarco-
Sliding filament theory of muscle cell contraction:
During muscular contraction, the actin (thin) filaments slide over the myosin (thick) filaments so that they overlap to a greater degree. _________ and __________ spaces are reduced. When muscle fibers are stimulated by the NS, the heads of the myosin filaments latch to myosin binding sites on actin filaments. These cross-bridge attachments are repeatedly broken and reformed propelling the actin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere. The event occurs simultaneously in all sarcomeres throughout the fiber (muscle cell) causing it to shorten
H zone, I band
What are the 4 events/phases of muscle cell contraction (in order)?
test q!
1) initiation
2) muscle cell action potential
3) excitation contraction coupling
4) relaxation
What is initiation of muscle cell contraction?
transmission of impulses from axon terminal of a motor neuron to a muscle fiber
What is a muscle cell action potential?
propagation of an action potential on the muscle cell membrane (sarcolemma)
Excitation-contraction coupling is where electrical current enters ____________ and cause the release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium binds to ____________ changing its shape which moves tropomyosin off of actin binding sites. Myosin heads attach to exposed actin binding sites and pull actin filaments medially.
T-tubules, troponin
What is relaxation of muscle cell contraction?
calcium pump removes calcium ions from fluid of fibril after contraction, causing relaxation
What are the 2 sources of energy for muscle contraction?
1) phosphocreatine (removal of phosphate group to release energy)
2) glucose metabolism (breakdown of glucose to release energy)
What is phosphocreatine?
removal of phosphate group to release energy (for muscle contraction)
What are the 2 options for glucose metabolism for muscle contraction?
1) glycolytic metabolism (incomplete breakdown of glucose to lactic acid (anaerobic- insufficient oxygen))
2) oxidative metabolism (complete breakdown of glucose to acetyl coa (aerobic- sufficient oxygen present))
What are the 3 ways to classify muscle cells/fibers?
test q
1) color (white= glycolytic, red=oxidative)
2) metabolic pathway (anaerobic= glycolytic, aerobic= oxidative)
3) speed of contraction (fast= glycolytic, slow= oxidative)
What are the color classifications for muscle cells/fibers?
test q
-white (glycolytic)
-red (oxidative)
What are the metabolic pathway classifications for muscle cells/fibers?
test q
-anaerobic (glycolytic)
-aerobic (oxidative)
What are the speed of contraction classifications for muscle cells/fibers?
test q
-fast (glycolytic)
-slow (oxidative)
Myoglobin is a red iron-containing protein pigment in muscle cells to which oxygen binds and is stored. Muscle cells that engage in aerobic (oxidative) metabolism have myoglobin. The more myoglobin, the _________ the muscle cell
redder
What muscles would be red, use aerobic (oxidative) metabolism, and are slow in contraction?
postural muscles, or muscles used for long distance running
What muscles would be pink, use aerobic (oxidative) metabolism, and have intermediate fast contraction?
muscles used for endurance exercise
What muscles would be white, use anaerobic (glycolytic) metabolism, and have fast contraction?
muscles used for power lifting or sprinting
What is a motor unit?
test q!!!!
1 motor neuron + all of the muscle fibers/cells it innervates
Define twitch
test q
contraction of 1 motor unit from a single action potential
What are the types of motor units?
1) small (few muscle fibers per neuron)
2) large (many muscle fibers per neuron)
fibers of a particular motor unit can be either ___________ or ____________
oxidative, glycolytic
What is recruitment of muscle contraction?
the greater the strength of a contraction of a muscle that is required, the greater the number of motor units activated
The 2 variables of muscle contraction is force and length. What are the type of force contractions?
test q
1) tension (force exerted by muscle on object)
2) load (force exerted by object on muscle)
The 2 variables of muscle contraction is force and length. What are the types of length contractions?
test q
1) isometric (length does not change, tension does)
2) isotonic (tension does not change, length does)
Isotonic can be either:
-concentric (muscle length decreases)
-eccentric (muscle length increases)
What does isometric length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
length does not change, tension does
What does isotonic length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
tension does not change, length does
can be either:
-concentric (muscle length decreases)
-eccentric (muscle length increases)
What does concentric, isotonic length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
muscle length decreases (tension does not change)
What does eccentric, isotonic length mean in terms of muscle contraction?
test q
muscle length increases (tension does not change)
What is the origin of attachment mean?
less movable point of attachment of muscle to bone
What is the the insertion of attachment mean?
more moveable point of attachment of muscle to bone
What does the action of a movement refer to?
main movement of when a muscle contracts, insertion moves toward the origin
What does the reverse action of movement refer to?
origin and insertion switch roles
What are the functional classifications of muscles?
-prime mover
-antagonist
-synergist
What is a primer mover?
muscle primarily responsible for a specific movement or action
What is an antagonist?
muscle that opposes or reverses the action of a prime mover
What is a synergist?
aid the action of prime mover by:
-contributing to same movement OR
-reducing undesirable movement as prime mover contracts
What is the naming criteria for skeletal muscles?
-location (temporalis)
-shape (deltoid, trapezius)
-direction of fibers (rectus, transverse, oblique muscles)
-number of origins (biceps, triceps, quadriceps)
-location of attachments- origin and insertion (SCM)
-action (flexor, extensor, adductor, abductor
What is the regional organization of muscles?
-head and neck
-back
-thorax
-axilla
-upper extremity
-pelvis
-lower extremity
What are the origins of the upper trapezius?
test q
-EOP
-SNL of occiput
-ligamentum nuchae (C1-C7)
What is the insertion point of the upper trapezius?
test q
clavicle (lateral 1/3)
What is the action of the upper trapezius?
test q
elevate shoulder
What are the origins of the middle trapezius?
test q
C7-T6 SPs
What is the insertion point of the middle trapezius?
test q
scapula (spine and acromion process)
What is the action of the middle trapezius?
test q
retraction (adduction) of scapulae
What are the origins of the inferior trapezius?
test q
T7-T12 SPs
What is the insertion point of the inferior trapezius?
test q
scapula (tubercle on the base of the spine)
What is the action of the inferior trapezius?
test q
depress the scapula
What are the origins of the pectoralis major?
test q
-clavicle (medial 1/2)
-sternum
-upper 6 ribs
What is the insertion point of the pectoralis major?
test q
lateral lip of inter-tubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
What are the actions of the pectoralis major?
test q
-adduct and medially rotate arm
-the clavicular head flexes the arm
-the sternocostal head depresses the arm/shoulder
What is the action of the clavicular head of the pectoralis major?
test q
flex the arm
What is the action of the sternocostal head of the pectoralis major?
test q
depresses the arm/shoulder
What are the origins of the deltoid?
test q
-clavicle (lateral 1/3)
-acromion
-scapula (spine)
What is the insertion point of the deltoid?
test q
humerus (deltoid tuberosity)
What are the actions of the deltoid?
test q
abduct, flex, extend, and rotate arm
What are the origins of the latissimus dorsi?
test q
-SPs of T6-sacrum
-iliac crest
-ribs 9-12
-scapula (inferior angle)
What is the insertion point of the latissimus dorsi?
test q
(floor of) inter-tubercular (bicipital) groove of the humerus
What are the actions of the latissimus dorsi?
test q
extend, adduct, and medially rotate humerus
What is the origin of the long head of the biceps brachii
test q
supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
What is the origin of the short head of the biceps brachii?
test q
coracoid process of the scapula
What is the insertion point of the biceps brachii?
test q
radial tuberosity
What are the actions of the biceps brachii?
test q
supination and flexion of the forearm
What is the origin of the lateral head of the triceps?
test q
humerus (superior to the radial groove)
note: the medial head origin is inferior to the radial groove of the humerus
What is the origin of the long head of the triceps?
test q
infra-glenoid tubercle of the scapula
What is the origin of the medial head (deep to the long head) of the triceps?
test q
humerus (inferior to radial groove)
note: the lateral head is superior to the radial groove of the humerus
What is the insertion point of the triceps?
test q
olecranon process of the ulna
What is the action of the triceps?
test q
extend the forearm
What is the origin of the rectus abdominis?
test q
the pubic crest
What are the insertion points of the rectus abdominis?
test q
-xyphoid process (sternum)
-costal cartilages 5-7
What is the action of the rectus abdominis?
test q
flexion of the trunk
What are the 4 parts of the quadriceps femoris?
1) rectus femoris
2) vastus lateralis
3) intermedius
4) medialis
what is the origin of the rectus femoris (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
ASIS
What is the origin of the vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
femur
What are the insertion points of the vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
patella (tibial tuberosity)
What is the action of the vastus lateralis, intermedius, and medialis (part of the quadriceps femoris)?
test q
extend the leg
What are the 3 parts of the hamstrings?
1) biceps femoris
2) semitendinosus
3) semimembranosus
What is the origin of the short head of the biceps femoris (part of hamstrings)?
test q
linea aspera
What is the origin of the long head of the biceps femoris (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
ischial tuberosity
What is the insertion point of the biceps femoris (part of the hamstring)?
test q
head of the fibula
What are the actions of the biceps femoris (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
-flex knee
-laterally rotate leg
-extend thigh (long head only)
What is the origin of the semitendinosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
ischial tuberosity
note: the origin for the semimembranosus is ALSO ischial tuberosity
What is the origin of the semimembranosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
ischial tuberosity
note: the origin for the semitendinosus is ALSO ischial tuberosity
What is the insertion point of the semimembranosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
upper tibia
What are the actions of the semimembranosus (part of the hamstrings)?
test q
-flex knee
-extend thigh
-medially rotate leg
What are the origins of the gastrocnemius?
test q
lateral and medial condyles of the femur
What is the insertion point of the gastrocnemius?
test q
calcaneal tuberosity via the Achilles tendon
What is the action of the gastrocnemius?
test q
plantar flexion of the foot
