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Human Anatomy & Physiology > Exam 2- Nervous, Endocrine, Cardio, Respiratory Systems > Flashcards

Exam 2- Nervous, Endocrine, Cardio, Respiratory Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the NS?

A

1) sensory input
2) integration
3) motor output

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2
Q

What does the CNS consist of?

test q

A

Brain and spinal cord

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3
Q

What does the PNS consist of?

test q

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves

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4
Q

What is a part of the autonomic NS?

test q

A

Sympathetic (fight/flight) and parasympathetic (rest/digest)

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5
Q

What are the cells of the nervous system?

A

-glia or neuralgia
-neurons

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6
Q

What is the function of neuroglia

A

Provide metabolic support and mechanical scaffolding of neurons

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7
Q

What are the 3 ways to organize the NS?

A

Structure, function, and direction of flow

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8
Q

What are the structural classifications of NS?

Test q

A

CNS and PNS

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9
Q

What are the functional classifications of NS?

Test q

A

Somatic and autonomic NS

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10
Q

What are the direction of flow classifications for the NS?

Test q

A

Afferent and efferent

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11
Q

What types of neuroglia are found in the CNS?

Test q

A

1) oligodendrocytes
2) astrocytes
3) microglia
4) ependymal cells

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12
Q

What is the fight or flight division of NS?

A

Sympathetic NS

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13
Q

What is the rest and digest division of NS?

A

Parasympathetic NS

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14
Q

What are oligodendrocytes? What is the function of oligodendrocytes?

Test q

A

Type of neuroglia in CNS

Produce the myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the CNS

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15
Q

What are astrocytes? What are the functions?

Test q

A

A type of neuroglia in CNS

-maintain BBB
-attached to brain capillaries
-biochemical support for CNS tissue regulation of blood flow and movement of substances to/from blood to nervous tissue

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16
Q

What are microglia? What is the function?

Test q

A

A type of neuroglia in the CNS

resident macrophage cells of CNS (main form of active immune defense)

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17
Q

What are ependymal cells? What are the functions?

Test q

A

A type of neuroglia in the CNS

-lines ventricular system of the brain and spinal cord
-produces CSF

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18
Q

What are the neuroglia of the PNS?

Test q

A

Schwann cells and satellite cells

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19
Q

What are Schwann cells? What do they do?

Test q

A

-neuroglia of the PNS
-also called neurolemmocytes
-produce myelin sheath around nerve fibers in the PNS

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20
Q

What are satellite cells? What do they do?

Test q

A

-neuroglia of the PNS
-cover the surface of nerve cell bodies in the PNS
-regulate neuron environment

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21
Q

What are the functions of myelin sheath?

A

-increase speed of electrochemical impulse transmission
-insulate and protect axon or nerve fiber

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22
Q

What is the neurilemma?

A

Outer layer of neuroglia cell cytoplasm surrounding an axon

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23
Q

What is the node of ranvier?

A

-gaps in the myelin sheath between adjacent glial cells
-axon is exposed to ECF (sodium influx)

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24
Q

What are the 4 neuronal zones?

A

1) Input zone
2) summation zone
3) conduction zone
4) output zone

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25
Q

What is a part of the input zone?

A

Dendrites and cell bodies

Dendrites process/carries impulses to the soma

Cell body/soma contains the nucleus

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26
Q

What is a part of the summation zone of the neuron?

A

Axon hillock (adds EPSPs and IPSPs)

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27
Q

What is a part of the conduction zone of the neuron?

A

Axon and collateral axons

Axons process/carries impulses away from the soma

Collateral axons are the side branches of axons

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28
Q

What is a part of the output zone of the neuron?

A

Telodendria and axon terminals

Telodendria are the distal branches of the main axon

Axon terminals, also called synaptic terminals or terminal buttons are expanded tips of the telodendria

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29
Q

What are the two ways to classify neurons?

A

Structural (number of processes from the soma) and functional (direction impulse relative to CNS)

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30
Q

What is the structural classification of neurons?

A

Number of processes from the soma

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31
Q

What is the functional classification of neurons?

A

Direction impulse relative to CNS

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32
Q

What are the 3 types of neurons under the structural classification?

A

1) pseudo-unipolar (1 process that divides like a “T”)
2) bipolar (2 processes (1axon + 1 dendrite))
3) multipolar (2+ processes (1 axon+ 2+ dendrites))

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33
Q

What does a pseudo-unipolar neuron look like?

A

1 process that divides like a T

ex: DRG

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34
Q

Is a pseudo-unipolar neuron a sensory or motor neuron?

A

sensory neuron

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35
Q

What does a bipolar neuron look like?

A

2 processes (1 axon + 1 dendrite)

ex: found in the retina and olfactory mucosa

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36
Q

Is a bipolar neuron a sensory or motor neuron?

A

sensory neuron

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37
Q

Which structural neuron is the rarest type?

A

bipolar neuron

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38
Q

What does a multipolar neuron look like?

A

more than 2 processes (1 axon and 2+ dendrites)

ex: found in the nervous system

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39
Q

What are the functional classifications of a neuron?

A

-afferent (sensory)
-interneurons (association)
-efferent (motor)

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40
Q

Are afferent neurons sensory or motor neurons?

test q

A

sensory neurons

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41
Q

Are efferent neurons sensory or motor neurons?

test q

A

motor neurons

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42
Q

Which neurons send impulses toward the CNS?

Test q

A

afferent (sensory) neurons

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43
Q

Which neurons are usually pseudo-unipolar?

A

afferent (sensory) neurons

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44
Q

Which neurons have the cell bodies located in the ganglia outside of the CNS?

A

afferent (sensory) neurons

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45
Q

Which neurons are known as the association neurons?

A

interneurons

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46
Q

Which neurons connect the sensory and motor neurons?

A

interneurons

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47
Q

Which neurons are usually multipolar and located inside of the CNS reflex arc?

A

interneurons

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48
Q

Which neurons are motor neurons and send impulses away from the CNS?

test q

A

efferent neurons

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49
Q

Which neurons are usually multipolar and the cell bodies are located inside the CNS?

A

efferent neurons

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50
Q

define upper motor neuron (UMN)

A

neuron that starts in the motor cortex of the brain and terminates within the medulla or within the spinal cord

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51
Q

define lower motor neuron (LMN)

A

nerve cell that goes from the spinal cord to a muscle

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52
Q

What is an electromotive force?

A

difference in potential that tends to give rise to an electric current

it exists by virtues of separation of opposite charges

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53
Q

What are membrane potentials?

A

a cell membrane potential is the electromotive force that exits across the plasma membrane

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54
Q

What are the 3 types of membrane potentials?

Test q

A

-resting membrane potential
-local (graded) potential
-action potential

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55
Q

What is a resting membrane potential?

Test q

A

electromotive force that exists across the plasma membrane when a cell is at rest

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56
Q

What is a local/graded potential?

Test q

A

a slight shift away from resting membrane potential in a specific/local region of the cell membrane

Note: there are 2 types: EPSP and IPSP

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57
Q

What are the 2 types of local/graded potentials?

Test q

A

1) EPSP (excitatory post synaptic potential, the inside of the cell membrane comes closer to threshold potential (less negative or more positive))
2) IPSP (inhibitory post synaptic potential, inside of the cell membrane moves further from the threshold potential (more negative))

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58
Q

What is a threshold potential?

Test q

A

summation of graded/local potentials that reaches a certain critical magnitude at the axon hillock to generate an action potential

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59
Q

What is an action potential?

Test q

A

change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the cell membrane (at this point, axonal depolarization is self-generating and non-decremental)

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60
Q

What are the 5 phases of an action potential?

Test q

A

1) resting phase (all Na+ and K+ voltage gated channels are closed)
2) depolarization phase (threshold potential reached, Na+ voltage gated channels open)
3) repolarization phase (Na+ voltage gated channels close, and K+ voltage gated channels open)
4) Hyperpolarization phase (brief delay of K+ voltage gated channels close)
5) return to rest (all Na+ and K+ channels are closed, Na+/K+ pump restores resting membrane potential)

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61
Q

What is a synapse?

A

a junction/minute gap across which a nerve impulse passes from an axon terminal to a neuron, muscle cell, or gland cell

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62
Q

What are the 2 classifications of synapses?

A

structural and functional classes

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63
Q

What are the structural classifications of synapses?

Test q

A

-neuronal (between neurons)
-neuromuscular (between neuron and muscle)
-neuroglandular (between neuron and gland)

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64
Q

What are the 2 functional classes of synapses?

Test q

A

electrical and chemical

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65
Q

What are the 3 components of all synapses?

Test q

A

-presynaptic neuron (axon terminal/synaptic knob)
-synapse (synaptic cleft)
-postsynaptic cell (plasma membrane)

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66
Q

What are the 3 major events of chemical/neurotransmitters synaptic transmission?

Test q

A

1) presynaptic event
2) synaptic event
3) post synaptic event

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67
Q

What are the presynaptic events of chemical/neurotransmitter synaptic transmission?

Test q

A

-AP arrives at the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron
-calcium voltage gated channels open in axon terminal plasma membrane and calcium enters
-cytoskeleton contracts to release neurotransmitter vesicles into synapse

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68
Q

What are the synaptic events of the chemical/neurotransmitter synaptic transmission?

Test q

A

neurotransmitter diffuses across interstitial fluid of the synaptic cleft

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69
Q

What are the postsynaptic events of the chemical/neurotransmitter synaptic transmission?

Test q

A

-neurotransmitter binds to protein receptors on postsynaptic plasma membrane
-open or close chemical ligand gated ion channels
-EPSP or IPSP created on postsynaptic plasma membrane

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70
Q

Neurotransmitter is a substance that is released from the axon terminal of a _____________ neuron upon excitation, and that travels across the synaptic cleft to change membrane potential (either excite or inhibit) of the target cell (nerve, muscle, organ, or other tissue)

Test q

A

presynaptic

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71
Q

What are some examples of small molecule neurotransmitters?

Test q

A

-ACh
-dopamine
-Epi
-NE
-serotonin
-GABA and glycine
-glutamate

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72
Q

Where is ACh found?

Test q

A

in the motor and parasympathetic pathway (at the synapse with the target organ)

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73
Q

What is the function of dopamine?

Test q

A

motor and cognitive motivation

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74
Q

What is the function of Epi?

Test q

A

attention

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75
Q

Where is NE found?

Test q

A

in the sympathetic pathway (at the synapse with the target organ)

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76
Q

What is the function of serotonin?

Test q

A

arousal, emotions, mood, and sexual urges

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77
Q

What is the difference between GABA and glycine in terms of location?

Test q

A

GABA is found in the brain, where as glycine is found within spinal column (both are small neurotransmitters)

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78
Q

What is the function of GABA and glycine?

Test q

A

inhibit CNS (brain for GABA, spinal cord for glycine)

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79
Q

Which neurotransmitter excites the CNS?

Test q

A

glutamate

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80
Q

What are the 2 large molecule neurotransmitters?

Test q

A

endorphins and enkephalins

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81
Q

What is an endorphin? How are enkephalins related?

Test q

A

endorphins= hormone secreted within the brain and nervous system that binds to the body’s opiate receptors, causing an analgesic/pain relieving effect

enkephalin= peptide, not hormone, but has the same pain relieving effect

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82
Q

What is an axon?

Test q

A

neuron fiber

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83
Q

What word describes a bundle of nerve fibers?

Test q

A

fascicle

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84
Q

What words describes a bundle of fascicles in PNS?

Test q

A

nerve

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85
Q

What surrounds a nerve fiber?

A

endometrium

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86
Q

What surrounds a fasiscle?

A

perineurium

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87
Q

What surrounds nerves?

A

epineurium

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88
Q

What nerves consist of both efferent and afferent neurons?

A

mixed neurons

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89
Q

What are the 3 types of nerves?

A

1) afferent (sensory, impulses toward CNS)
2) efferent (motor, impulses from CNS)
3) mixed nerves (both efferent and afferent)

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90
Q

What are fissures?

A

deep grooves

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91
Q

What are notches?

A

indentations

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92
Q

What are sulci?

A

shallow grooves

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93
Q

What are gyri?

A

elevations, folds, convolutions

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94
Q

precentral gyrus = ___________ cortex

A

motor

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95
Q

postcentral gyrus = ________________ cortex

A

somatosensory

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96
Q

What are the 5 structural lobes of the brain?

Test q

A

1) frontal
2) parietal
3) temporal
4) occipital
5) insular

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97
Q

Brain lobes are named after the cranial bones they connect with, besides the….

A

insular lobe

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98
Q

What is the prosencephalon?

test q

A

forebrain

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99
Q

What are the 2 parts of the prosencephalon (forebrain)?

test q

A

1) telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres, right and left)
2) diencephalon (inner brain)

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100
Q

What are the 3 parts of the diencephalon (inner brain)?

test q

A

1) epithalamus (pineal gland makes melatonin)
2) thalamus (gateway to the cerebral cortex, “switchboard”)
3) hypothalamus (pituitary gland)

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101
Q

What are the 2 parts of the brainstem?

Test q

A

1) mesencephalon (midbrain is in charge of visual, auditory, and motor)
2) rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

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102
Q

What are the functions of the mesencephalon (midbrain)?

Test q

A

visual, auditory, and motor

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103
Q

What are the 2 parts of the rhombencephalon (hindbrain)?

A

1) metencephalon (after brain)
2) myelencephalon (spinal brain/ medulla oblongata)

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104
Q

What are the 2 parts of the metencephalon?

A

1) pons
2) cerebellum

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105
Q

Who produces neurotransmitters?

A

pons

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106
Q

Who is in charge of coordination and balance?

A

cerebellum

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107
Q

What is the function of the myelencephalon/medulla oblongata?

A

its the cardio and respiratory center

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108
Q

What are meninges?

A

layers of connective tissue which surrounds and protects the CNS

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109
Q

What are the 2 layers of the dura matter?

A

1) periosteal (endosteal) layer
2) meningeal layer (subdural space is below here)

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110
Q

What space is below the arachnoid mater? Is it a true space or potential space?

test q

A

subarachnoid space, its a true space containing most CSF

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111
Q

Which meningeal layer is in direct contact with the brain and spinal cord?

A

pia mater

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112
Q

What are the bran cavities of the ventral system of the brain?

A

-lateral right and left
-3rd ventricle
4th ventricle

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113
Q

The ventricular system of the brain is filled with CSF originating from the ____________________, capillaries in ventricles

A

chorioid plexus

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114
Q

Where does CSF leave through to enter the subarachnoid space?

A

4th ventricle

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115
Q

CSF is returned to….

A

dural venous sinuses

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116
Q

What are dural venous sinuses?

A

endothelium lined venous channels between the endosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater

CSF is returned here

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117
Q

What is the circle of willis and where is it found?

A

pentagon shaped circle of arterial vessels on the ventral aspect of the brain in the area encircling the optic chiasm and pituitary gland

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118
Q

Who are the primary suppliers of oxygenated blood to the brain and contribute to the cerebral arterial circle/ circle of willis?

test q

A

internal carotid a. and vertebral aa.

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119
Q

The R and L vertebral arteries unite to form the ___________ artery, which is the terminal branch of the cerebral arterial circle/circle of willis

A

basilar

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120
Q

What is the epidural space?

A

space between the bony vertebrae and dura mater, filled w/ fat and has a network of veins

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121
Q

What does the central canal contain and how long is it?

A

contains CSF, runs the length of the spinal cord through the gray commissure

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122
Q

How many spinal cord segments are there?

A

31

8C, 12T, 5L, 5S, 1Cc

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123
Q

What is the cauda equinae?

A

spinal nerves emerging from inferior end of the spinal cord superior to conus medullaris and extending through to inferior end of spinal canal (L5-Cc1)

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124
Q

What is the conus medullaris and where is it found?

A

cone shaped terminus of the spinal cord at the level of L1 or L2 vertebrae (S1-Cc1)

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125
Q

What is the filum terminale?

A

fibrous extension of meninges from the conus medularis to the coccyx

126
Q

Gray matter is the interneuron of cell bodies and is H shaped. What is a part of gray matter?

A

-dorsal horn
-lateral horn (T1-L2 only)
-ventral horn
-gray commissure (transverse bar, connects R and L halves, central canal runs through here)

127
Q

Is white mater myelinated or unmyelinated axons?

A

myelinated axons

128
Q

What is white matter composed of?

A

myelinated axons
-funiculi, or white columns (ventral, dorsal, lateral)

129
Q

How many cranial nerve pairs are there?

A

12 pairs

130
Q

How many spinal nerve pairs are there?

A

31 pairs

131
Q

Where do the cranial nerves connect to?

A

undersurface of brain, mostly the brainstem

132
Q

Which cranial nerve extends into the abdomen?

A

CN X (vagus n.)

note: all other cranial nerves are only in the head and neck

133
Q

What are the 12 pairs of cranial nerves?

Test q

A

CN I= Olfactory | Oh
CN II= Optic | Oh
CN III= Oculomotor | Oh
CN IV= Trochlear | Tiny
CN V= Trigeminal | Tits
CN VI= Abducens | And
CN VII= Facial | Furry
CN VIII= Vestibulocochlear | Vaginas
CN IX= Glossopharyngeal | Give
CN X= Vagus | Victor
CN XI= Spinal accessories | A
CN XII= Hypoglossal | Hardon

134
Q

What is the function of CN I?

Test q

A

olfactory/smell

135
Q

What is the function of CN II?

Test q

A

optic/sight

136
Q

What is the function of CN III (oculomotor)?

Test q

A

all eye muscle movements except lateral rectus and superior oblique

(LR6SO4)3
LR6= lateral rectus is innervated w/ CN 6
SO4= superior oblique is innervated w/ CN 4

137
Q

What is the function of CN IV (trochlear)?

Test q

A

superior oblique eye muscle movement

138
Q

What is the function of CN V (trigeminal)?

Test q

A

sensory to face

3 divisions: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

139
Q

What is the function of CN VI (abducens)?

Test q

A

lateral rectus eye muscle movement

140
Q

What are the functions of CN VII (facial)?

Test q

A

muscle movement of facial expressions and taste anterior 2/3 of tongue

141
Q

What are the functions of CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)?

Test q

A

hearing and balance

142
Q

What is the function of CN IX (glossopharyngeal)?

Test q

A

taste posterior 1/3 of tongue

143
Q

What is the function of CN X (vagus)?

Test q

A

parasympathetic to visceral organs of the neck, thorax, and abdomen

144
Q

What are the functions of CN XI (accessory)?

Test q

A

SCM and trapezius muscle movement

145
Q

What is the function of CN XII (hypoglossal)?

Test q

A

muscle movement of tongue

146
Q

Where do spinal nerves course through?

A

intervertebral foramen (IVF)

147
Q

What are the 2 spinal nerve divisions?

test q

A

1) dorsal ramus
2) ventral ramus

148
Q

Is the dorsal ramus sensory or motor?

test q

A

sensory

149
Q

What does the dorsal ramus innervate?

A

intrinsic back muscles and sensory skin of the back

150
Q

Is the ventral ramus sensory or motor?

A

motor

151
Q

What does the ventral ramus form?

A

spinal nerve plexi or intercostal nerves

152
Q

Sympathetic rami are a part of the ventral ramus and go through the sympathetic chain ganglia. What rami are here?

A

gray and white rami

153
Q

Where is gray rami found?

A

at all vertebral levels

154
Q

Where is white rami found?

A

T1-L2 only (sympathetic outflow)

155
Q

Define spinal nerve plexi

Test q

A

an interlacing of fiber fascicles from adjacent spinal nerves to form a network

156
Q

What are the 2 parts of the cervical plexus?

Test q

A

1) ansa cervicalia (“handle of neck”, branches to the hyoid muscles in the neck)
2) phrenic nerve (goes to diaphragm)

157
Q

Name the nerves of the brachial plexus

test q

A

-musculocutaneous n.
-axillary n.
-radial n.
-median n.
-ulnar n.

(my aunty recognized my uncle)

158
Q

What are the 2 major nerves of the lumbar plexus?

test q

A

1) femoral n. (innervates muscles in anterior compartment of thigh/quads)
2) obturator n. (innervates muscles of medial compartment of thigh/adductors of thigh)

159
Q

What nerve innervates muscles in the anterior compartment of thigh/quads?

test q

A

femoral n.

160
Q

What nerve innervates muscles of the medial compartment of thigh/adductors of thigh?

test q

A

obturator n.

161
Q

What is the main nerve of the sacral plexus and what are its divisions?

test q

A

sciatic n. divides into tibial n. and common fibular n.

162
Q

What nerve is a part of the coccygeal plexus?

Test q

A

anococcygeal n.

163
Q

What is another name for the autonomic NS?

A

visceral NS

164
Q

What is a subdivision of the NS and is integrated in both the CNS and PNS and is involuntary?

A

ANS

165
Q

What are the efferent divisions of the ANS?

Test q

A

sympathetic (fight of flight, thoracolumbar outflow) and parasympathetic (rest and digest, craniosacral outflow)

166
Q

Which nervous system uses energy?

A

sympathetic NS (fight or flight)

167
Q

Which nervous system has short preganglionic fibers and long postganglionic fibers?

A

sympathetic NS

168
Q

Which nervous system conserves or replenishes energy?

A

parasympathetic NS (rest and digest)

169
Q

Which nervous system has long preganglionic fibers and short postganglionic fibers?

A

parasympathetic NS

170
Q

Which glands have ducts?

A

exocrine glands

171
Q

Which glands produce non-hormonal substances like sweat, oil, saliva, and enzymes, and route them to membrane surfaces?

A

exocrine glands

172
Q

Which glands are ductless?

A

endocrine glands

173
Q

Which glands produce hormones?

A

endocrine glands

174
Q

Which glands release secretions into the ECF and have extensive vascular and lymph drainage?

A

endocrine glands

175
Q

Which organs have both endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

liver and pancreas

176
Q

define hormone

A

chemical substance/messengers that are secreted by cells into the ECF and enter the blood stream, transported throughout the body, and regulate metabolic function of cells

177
Q

Where are non-tropic hormones found?

A

target cells, tissues, and organs

178
Q

Where are tropic hormones found?

A

in target endocrine glands

179
Q

Which hormone is both tropic causing liver, which has a secondary endocrine function, to secrete insulin like growth factor hormones, and non-tropic targeting non-endocrine cells, tissues, and organs?

A

growth hormone (GH)

180
Q

What is the primary controller and regulatory system of the body?

A

the nervous system (communication-electrical and chemical)

181
Q

What are the primary messenger molecules in the NS?

A

neurotransmitters

182
Q

How fast is the response to stop/start something in the NS?

A

quick

183
Q

Which system has targeted and specific effects?

A

nervous system

184
Q

What is the secondary controller and regulatory system of the body?

A

endocrine system (communication- chemical only)

note: NS communication also has electrical communication

185
Q

Who are the primary messenger molecules of the endocrine system?

A

hormones

186
Q

How fast is the response to stop/start something in the endocrine system?

A

slow

187
Q

Which system has widespread effects?

A

endocrine system

188
Q

What are the similarities between endocrine system and NS?

A

some chemicals are both neurotransmitters and hormones, for ex: NE and dopamine

189
Q

What are neurosecretory cells?

test q

A

neurons that synthesizes and secretes hormones

190
Q

What are neuroendocrine cells?

test q

A

endocrine cells that secretes hormones in response to neuron stimulation

191
Q

What are the 2 major hormone classifications?

Test q

A

1) amino acid based
2) steroid based

KNOW CHART

192
Q

What is the solubility of amino acid based hormones?

test q

A

all water soluble except thyroid hormone TH

193
Q

What are the 2 main types of amino acid based hormones?

A

1) monoamines
2) peptides

194
Q

What are monoamines and what are some examples?

A

made from 1 amino acid/fragments of an amino acid, and retains an amino group (NH2)
-nervous system hormones ex: dopamine, epi, NE, melatonin
-thyroid hormone (TH), only monoamine that is not water soluble

195
Q

What are peptide hormones and what are some examples?

A

made from a chain of amino acids
-pituitary hormones
-thyroid hormone calcitonin (tones your bones)

196
Q

What is the solubility of steroid hormones? What are steroids made from?

test q

A

fat soluble, made from cholesterol

197
Q

What are the 2 main types of steroid hormones?

A

1) sex steroids
2) corticosteroids

198
Q

What are some examples of sex steroids?

A

-estrogen (estradiol)
-progesterone
-androgen (testosterone)

199
Q

Where are corticosteroids produced and what are some examples of corticosteroids?

test q

A

produced by the adrenal cortex
-glucocorticoids (cortisol)
-mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
-gonadocorticoids (similar to sex steriods)

200
Q

The active form of vitamin D, ____________, is considered a steroid hormone in addition to being a fat soluble vitamin. As a steroid hormone is in involved with learning and memory

A

calcitriol

201
Q

What are the 8 major endocrine glands?

A

1) pituitary
2) pineal
3) thyroid
4) parathyroid
5) thymus
6) pancreas
7) adrenals
8) reproductive (ovaries and testes)

202
Q

What are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland?

A

anterior and posterior pituitary

203
Q

Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin is a somatic hormone that is made where?

Test q

A

anterior pituitary

204
Q

What does growth hormone (GH)/somatotropin do?

Test q

A

-increase muscle mass and bone density
-decrease fat
-visceral growth

205
Q

Who makes prolactin (PRL)?

Test q

A

anterior pituitary gland

206
Q

What is the function of prolactin (PRL)

Test q

A

breast development and milk production

207
Q

Who makes trophic hormones?

Test q

A

anterior pituitary

208
Q

What are some examples of trophic hormones?

Test q

A

-thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
-adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
-gonadotrophic hormones (FSH and LH)

209
Q

What does thyroid stimulating hormone do?

Test q

A

release thyroid hormone from thyroid gland

210
Q

What does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) do?

Test q

A

adrenal cortex hormone release

211
Q

What is the female function of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH, its a gonadotrophic hormone)? What is the male function?

Test q

A

female= follicle development

male= sperm production

212
Q

What is the female function of luteinizing hormone (LH, its a gonadotrophic hormone)? What is the male function?

Test q

A

female= increase estrogen

male= increases testosterone

213
Q

What 2 hormones are produced in the posterior pituitary?

Test q

A

1) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/ vasopressin
2) oxytocin

214
Q

What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/ vasopressin do?

Test q

A

causes water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys

215
Q

What does oxytocin do?

Test q

A

-uterine contraction in childbirth
-breast milk ejection (suckling infant)

216
Q

What hormone is produced in the pineal gland and what is its function?

Test q

A

melatonin
-relaxation and drowsiness
-promotes sleep

217
Q

What is the largest pure endocrine gland?

A

thyroid gland

218
Q

What hormones does the thyroid produce?

Test q

A

calcitonin and thyroid hormone (TH)

219
Q

What does calcitonin do?

test q

A

-decrease blood calcium
-increase bone density/tone

220
Q

What does thyroid hormone (TH) do?

Test q

A

increase metabolic rate of thyroid cells

221
Q

What hormone is produced in the parathyroid and what is its function?

Test q

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH)
-increase blood calcium (inactivates vitamin D, which increases calcium absorption in the small intestine)

222
Q

What hormone is produced in the thymus and what is its function?

Test q

A

thymus hormone
-maturation of T cells for immunity

223
Q

What hormones are produced in the pancreas?

Test q

A

glucagon and insulin

224
Q

What is the function of glucagon?

Test q

A

increase blood glucose

225
Q

What is the function of insulin?

Test q

A

decrease blood glucose

226
Q

What are the 2 parts of the adrenal gland/suprarenal glands?

Test q

A

cortex (3 layers) and adrenal medulla

227
Q

What hormones does the adrenal cortex produce?

Test q

A

adreno-cortical hormones
-mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
-glucocorticoids (cortisol)
-gonadocorticoids (sex steroids)

228
Q

What does aldosterone do?

Test q

A

sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys

229
Q

What does cortisol do?

test q

A

stress hormone
-increase glucose, blood fat, and BP
-decrease memory, immunity, and sex steroids

230
Q

What part of the adrenal gland has a sympathetic fight or flight response and increase bronchodilation, heart rate and blood pressure? What hormones are produced here?

test q

A

adrenal medulla
-epi (adrenaline)
-NE (noreadrenaline)

231
Q

What do the testes produce? What is its function?

Test q

A

testosterone
-male sex development
-aggression
-sex drive
-increase muscle mass, bone density
-decrease fat

232
Q

What do the ovaries produce? What are its functions?

Test q

A

estrogen
-female sex development
-menstrual cycle
-nurture/receptivity
-increase bone density and fat

progesterone
-menstrual cycle
-maintain pregnancy

233
Q

Where are the great vessels of the heart found?

A

superior mediastinum

234
Q

What arteries are a part of the aortic arch?

test q

A

1) brachiocephalic trunk (BCT, only on right side of aortic arch)
2) left common carotid artery (CCA)
3) left subclavian artery (SC)

235
Q

What 2 arteries make up the brachiocephalic trunk?

Test q

A

right common carotid artery (CCA) and right subclavian artery (SC)

236
Q

What veins are found in the superior mediastinum?

Test q

A

-R and L brachiocephalic veins (BCV)
-superior vena cava (SVC)
-R and L internal jugular vein (IJV)
-R and L subclavian vein (SCV)

237
Q

The superior mediastinum is located above the transverse thoracic plane lane. What angle is here?

A

sternal angle/ angle of louis (T4-T5)

238
Q

The fibrous pericardium is irregular dense fibrous CT sac continuous with adventitia of great vessels superiorly and central tendon of…

A

diaphragm inferiorly

239
Q

What is the serous pericardium?

A

serous membranes inside of the fibrous pericardium surrounding the heart
-parietal layer
-pericardial cavity containing pericardial fluid
-visceral layer (epicardium)

240
Q

What are the 3 cardiac surfaces?

Test q

A

1) sternocostal (anterior)
2) diaphragmatic (posterior/inferior)
3) pulmonary (R and L)

241
Q

Auricles (R and L) are also called atrial appendages. It is the ear-like conical muscular pouch that arises from each atrium. What is the function?

test q

A

to increase the capacity of the atrium and also increase the volume of blood that is able to contain

242
Q

The coronary (atrioventricular) sulcus is a shallow groove of the outer surface of the heart marking the division between the…

Test q

A

atria and the ventricles

243
Q

The coronary (atrioventricular) sulcus is a shallow groove of the outer surface of the heart marking the division between the atria and ventricles. The left coronary sulcus is marked by what?

A

the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery and coronary sinus

244
Q

The coronary (atrioventricular) sulcus is a shallow groove of the outer surface of the heart marking the division between the atria and ventricles. The right coronary sulcus is marked by what?

A

the location of the right coronary artery and small cardiac vein

245
Q

The inter-ventricular sulcus anterior and posterior grooves are on the surface of the heart that lie over the ______________________ and join at the ______

A

inter-ventricular septum, apex

246
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart wall?

Test q

A

1) epicardium (visceral layer of the serous pericardium, outer layer)
2) myocardium (cardiac muscle, middle layer)
3) endocardium (continuous with the tunica interna of the blood vessels, inner layer)

247
Q

What are the chambers of the heart?

A

R and L atria, R and L ventricles

248
Q

What chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?

A

right atrium

249
Q

What features does the R atrium have?

Test q

A

-auricle
-pectinate muscles
-fossa ovalis (oval depression in the interatrial septum)
-ostea (openings): SVC, IVC and coronary sulcus

250
Q

What chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood?

A

left atrium

251
Q

What features does the L atrium have?

Test q

A

-auricle
-pectinate muscles
-ostea (openings): 4 pulmonary veins (2R, 2L)

252
Q

What features do both the right and left ventricles have?

Test q

A

-trabeculae carneae muscles
-papillary muscles
-chordae tendonae (tendons)
-AV (atrioventricular) valves

253
Q

What are the 2 septums of the heart?

A

1) interatrial septum (between R and L atrium)
2) interventricular septum (between R and L ventricle)

254
Q

What are the valves of the heart?

Test q

A

1) atrioventricular (AV) valves
-R AV valve (tricuspid valve)
-L AV valve (bicuspid valve)

2) semilunar valves
-pulmonary semilunar
-aortic semilunar

255
Q

Where is the pulmonary semilunar valve found?

Test q

A

R ventricle to pulmonary trunk (lungs)

256
Q

Where is the aortic semilunar valve found?

Test q

A

L ventricle to trunk of aorta (entire body)

257
Q

What are the 2 cell heart types?

A

1) conductive (auto-rhythmic, or nodal) cells
2) contractile (cardiac muscle) cells

258
Q

Which heart cells are a part of the intrinsic conductive system?

A

conductive (auto-rhythmic, or nodal) cells

259
Q

Which heart cells are capable of generating and transmitting rhythmic action potentials?

A

conductive (auto-rhythmic, or nodal) cells

260
Q

What are the characteristics of contractile cardiac muscle cells?

A

-striated
-uni or binucleated
-intercalated discs

261
Q

What is the pacemaker of the heart?

Test q

A

sinoatrial node/SA node

262
Q

What is an inter-arterial pathway that spreads depolarization from the right to left atrium?

A

bachmann’s bundle

263
Q

What is the order of the conducting system of the heart?

Test q

A

-sinoatrial node/SA node/pacemaker
-bachmann’s bundle (inter-atrial pathway, spreads depolarization from right to left atrium)
-atrioventricular node/AV node
-atrioventricular bundle/ bundle of His
-R and L bundle branches
-purkinje fibers

264
Q

What is the difference between arteries and veins?

A

arteries carry blood away from the heart, while veins carry blood to the heart

265
Q

What is the exception of arteries/veins ?

A

all arteries are red (oxygenated blood), EXCEPT the 2 R and L pulmonary arteries which are blue (deoxygenated blood), pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the lungs to get oxygen

All veins are blue (deoxygenated blood) EXCEPT the 2 R and L pulmonary veins which are red (oxygenated blood), pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from lungs to the heart

266
Q

What is the pulmonary circuit?

A

R ventricle of heart > lungs > L atrium of heart

267
Q

What is the systemic circuit?

A

L ventricle of heart > throughout body > R atrium of heart

268
Q

What is the simplest way to describe a trunk?

A

large artery

269
Q

What is the deoxygenated blood flow through the heart?

Test q

A

SVC (upper body) > IVC (lower body) and coronary sinus (heart tissue) > R atrium > R AV valve > R ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > R and L pulmonary arteries

note:
-R and L pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to R and L lungs to be oxygenated
-R AV valve is also called tricuspid valve

270
Q

What is the oxygenated blood flow through heart?

Test q

A

R and L pulmonary veins in R and L lung > R atrium > L AV valve > L ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aortic trunk (aorta)

note:
-aorta carries oxygenated blood to all tissues of the body
-L AV valve is also called bicuspid valve or mitral valve

271
Q

What innervates all organs?

A

ANS!

this is why:
-SA node/pacemaker spontaneously depolarizes 100 X/min
-average HR = 75 bpm
-the greater the parasympathetic signals, the slower the HR below 100
-sympathetic NS increases HR over 100 bpm

272
Q

What is the lub sound?

test q

A

AV valves close, which causes ventricular ejection/contraction (systole)

273
Q

What is the dub sound?

A

SL valves close, which causes ventricular filling/relaxation (diastole)

274
Q

Who are the first branches off of the aortic trunk and supply oxygenated blood to the heart itself?

Test q

A

R and L coronary arteries

275
Q

Most veins of the heart, cardiac veins, drain into the _____________ which in turn drains into the ___________ of the heart

Test q

A

coronary sinus, R atrium

276
Q

Where do the coronary sinus, SVC and IVC drain into?

Test q

A

R atrium

277
Q

The trachea is made up of C-shaped rings of _________ cartilage

test q

A

hyaline

278
Q

The trachea descends from the….

Test q

A

larynx

279
Q

The trachea enter the…..

Test q

A

superior mediastinum

280
Q

What is a flat posterior surface in contact with the esophagus?

Test q

A

the trachea

281
Q

Where does the trachea end?

Test q

A

at the carina of the sternal angle (bifurcation point, superior to heart)

it will divide into R and L primary (main) bronchi

282
Q

What are the conductive zones of the lungs?

test q

A

-main (primary) bronchi (to R and L lung)
-lobar (secondary) bronchi (3 branches in R lung, 2 branches in L lung)
-segmental (tertiary) bronchi (10 segments in each lung)
»» bronchopulmonary segments are segments of the lungs that receive segmental (tertiary) bronchi
-terminal bronchioles

283
Q

Where is the respiratory zone?

A

at the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and pulmonary alveoli

284
Q

What is the common space into which alveoli open?

A

alveolar sacs

285
Q

What is the structural unit of gas exchange?

A

pulmonary alveoli

286
Q

Bronchi have cartilage in their walls, ____________ do not have cartilage in walls

Test q

A

bronchioles

287
Q

The term bronchial refers to…

Test q

A

bronchi or bronchioles

288
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have?

test q

A

3 lobes: superior, middle, inferior

289
Q

How many fissures does the right lung have?

test q

A

2 fissures: horizontal and oblique

290
Q

What grooves are found in the right lung?

A

venous structures (brachiocephalic vein, SVC, and azygous vein) and the esophagus

291
Q

What are the hilum contents in the lungs

test q

A

-pulmonary arteries (blue)
-pulmonary veins (superior and inferior, red)
-bronchi

292
Q

Where is the pulmonary ligament found?

A

fused triangular shaped sheet of parietal and visceral pleura that extends from the hilum to the dome of the diaphragm

293
Q

How many lobes are there in the left lung?

test q

A

2 lobes: superior and inferior

294
Q

How many fissures are there in the left lung?

Test q

A

1 fissure- oblique

295
Q

What grooves are found in the left lung?

A

arterial structures (subclavian artery and aorta), and esophagus

296
Q

What is the pleural sac?

Test q

A

serous membranes which invest and enclose lungs in pleural cavities
-visceral pleura (invests lung surfaces)
-parietal pleura (lines walls of pleural cavity)

297
Q

Are lungs innervated by the ANS?

A

yes!

298
Q

What are the types of blood vessels of the lungs?

Test q

A

-pulmonary (involved in gas exchange, colors are reversed= arteries are blue, veins are red)
-bronchial (serve lung tissue, colors are typical= arteries are red, veins are blue)

299
Q

What color are pulmonary arteries?

A

blue

300
Q

What takes deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated from the R ventricle (pulmonary trunk)?

Test q

A

pulmonary arteries

301
Q

What color are bronchial arteries?

A

red

302
Q

What supplies lung tissue with oxygenated blood from branches of the thoracic aorta?

A

bronchial arteries

303
Q

What color are pulmonary veins?

A

red

304
Q

What takes oxygenated blood from the lungs to the L atrium?

A

pulmonary veins

305
Q

How many pulmonary veins are there?

A

2 per lung

306
Q

What color are bronchial veins?

A

blue

307
Q

What drains lung tissue of deoxygenated blood?

A

bronchial veins

308
Q

R bronchial veins drain into the….

A

azygous vein

309
Q

L bronchial vein drains into the….

A

accessory hemiazygous vein

310
Q

What are the 4 processes of respiration?

A

1) pulmonary ventilation (breathing, air in and out of lungs)
2) external respiration (gas exchange between lungs and blood)
3) transport of respiratory gases (transport of gases between lungs and cells)
4) internal respiration (gas exchange between blood and cells)

Human Anatomy & Physiology (4 decks)

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