Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MIDTERM TEST HW > Final Lab Skill Exam in Theory > Flashcards

Final Lab Skill Exam in Theory Flashcards

1
Q

How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their Exposure Control Plan?

A

Once a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is an example of personal protective equipment?

A

Clean disposable gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Microorganisms can be transmitted through

A

Water vapor from the lungs, Insects, Contaminated food, Contaminated equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All of the following are examples of nonintact skin EXCEPT: Skin with dermatitis, Burned skin, Bruised skin, , Chapped skin?

A

Bruised skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the disease is known as:

A

ostexposure prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to:

A

Reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Personal protective equipment must be used to: Draw blood Correct
  Label a specimen container
  Measure oral temperature
  Perform a vision screening test
  All of the above
A

Draw blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act? To ensure that an injection is administered correctly
To ensure the proper disposal of sharps
To reduce the chance of infection developing at the injection site
To reduce needlestick injuries among health care workers Correct

A

To reduce needlestick injuries among health care workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard?
Eating in the office laboratory Correct
Storing the Exposure Control Plan on the computer
Recapping a needle after withdrawing medication from a vial
Refusing to get the hepatitis B vaccination
All of the above Incorrect

A

Eating in the office laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?
  Fever
  Fatigue
  Adenopathy
  Jaundice Correct
A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs EXCEPT:
They do not require rinsing
Less time is required to perform hand hygiene
They remove all resident flora from the skin
They contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands

A

They remove all resident flora from the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following are considered other potentially infectious materials (OPIMs) EXCEPT: Any body fluid visibly contaminated with blood
Vaginal secretions
Tears and sweat
Semen

A

Tears and sweat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
Coughs and sneezes from an infected person
Sexual intercourse
Mosquitoes

A

Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk of developing: Liver cancer
Pancreatitis
Rheumatic heart disease
Gallstones

A

Liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
What is the term used to describe a physical or mechanical device used to remove health hazards from the workplace?
  Engineering control 
  Work practice control
  Personal protective equipment
  Universal precaution
A

Engineering control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Sterilization strips should be positioned:
  On the bottom tray of the autoclave
  On the top tray of the autoclave
  In the center of the wrapped pack 
  On the outside of the pack
A

In the center of the wrapped pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Which of the following sterilization methods is often used by medical manufacturers to sterilize disposable items?
  Cold sterilization
  Dry heat oven
  Ethylene oxide gas 
  Autoclave
A

Ethylene oxide gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical?
  Name of the chemical
  Physical hazards of the chemical
  Health hazards of the chemical
  Storing and handling of the chemical
  All of the above
A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Which of the following must be resterilized?
  A pack that has been dropped
  A pack that has opened up
  A pack that has gotten wet
  A pack that is torn
  All of the above
A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Which of the following is used most often to sterilize articles in the medical office?
  Dry heat oven
  Ethylene oxide sterilizer
  Autoclave 
  Chemical agents
A

Autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with:
  A damp cloth
  A disinfectant 
  A low-sudsing detergent
  A scouring pad
A

A damp cloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is:
320°F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
145°F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
212°F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
250°F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch

A

250°F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The medical assistant should not set the timer on the autoclave until:
The sterilization indicator changes color
The gauge has reached the desired temperature
The pressure reaches 15 pounds per square inch
Steam enters the inner sterilization chamber

A

The gauge has reached the desired temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Which of the following is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization process?
  The temperature gauge on the autoclave
  Biologic indicators
  Sterilization strips 
  Autoclave tape
A

Biologic indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave depends on:
The type of autoclave being used
What is being sterilized
The type of sterilization indicator being used
The intended use of the article

A

What is being sterilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
Which of the following concentrations of alcohol is the most effective disinfectant?
  50% isopropyl alcohol
  60% isopropyl alcohol
  70% isopropyl alcohol 
  100% isopropyl alcohol
A

70% isopropyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to:
Permit better steam penetration during autoclaving
Protect the articles from recontamination after autoclaving
Ensure complete destruction of all pathogens
Protect the articles from damage
All of the above

A

Protect the articles from recontamination after autoclaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why should all organic matter be removed from an article before it is disinfected?
To prevent the article from rusting
To prevent stains on the article
To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the article
To ensure the proper working condition of the article

A

To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the article

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All of the following are guidelines for working with glutaraldehyde (Cidex) EXCEPT:
Work in a well-ventilated area
Wear safety goggles
Wear utility gloves
Store the glutaraldehyde container in a warm, dry area

A

Store the glutaraldehyde container in a warm, dry area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
What type of water should be used in the autoclave?
  Salt water
  Tap water
  Distilled water 
  Mineral water
A

Distilled water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

High-level disinfection is a process that:
Destroys all pathogenic microorganisms
Destroys all microorganisms and spores
Destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli
Destroys all microorganisms but not spores

A

Destroys all microorganisms but not spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing:
  Disposable syringes
  Vaginal specula
  Flexible sigmoidoscopes 
  Instruments with sharp cutting edges
A

Instruments with sharp cutting edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ID: 20120435
All of the following are true regarding cold sterilization with a chemical agent EXCEPT:
The chemical must be designated as a sterilant by the EPA
Items must be submerged in the chemical for 6 to 24 hours
Each time a new item is added to the chemical, the clock must be reset for the entire amount of time
It is the preferred method for sterilizing instruments with sharp cutting edges

A

It is the preferred method for sterilizing instruments with sharp cutting edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
The recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven is:
  250°F for 1 hour 
  320°F for 1 to 2 hours 
  320°F for 15 to 20 minutes
  212°F for 20 to 30 minutes
A

320°F for 1 to 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
Which of the following does OSHA recommend for the decontamination of a blood spill?
  70% isopropyl alcohol
  10% household bleach in water 
  2% glutaraldehyde
  Lysol
A

10% household bleach in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule
They represent a resting and protective stage
They are more resistant to heat
They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants
All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The most reliable sterilization indicators check for:
The attainment of the proper temperature and the duration of the temperature
Whether or not the article has been in the autoclave
The attainment of the proper temperature and pressure
The presence of trapped air in the autoclave

A

The attainment of the proper temperature and the duration of the temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
  Sterilization pouch
  Muslin 
  Aluminum foil
  Sterilization paper
A

Muslin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

All of the following are true regarding sterilization pouches EXCEPT:
They provide good visibility of the contents
A sterilization indicator is present on the pouch
They can be labeled
They are reusable

A

They are reusable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is true regarding an MSDS?
It provides information regarding hazardous chemicals
It must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace
It must be readily available to employees
It is available from the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical
All of the above Correct

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
Where is the radial pulse located?
  On the thumb side of the wrist 
  In the center of the antecubital space
  On the little finger side of the wrist
  On the anterior side of the neck
A

On the thumb side of the wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with:
  A mild detergent
  An abrasive cleanser
  An antiseptic wipe 
  A soft tissue
A

An antiseptic wipe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
What is the name given to the type of fever in which the temperature fluctuates minimally, but always remains elevated?
  Stadium
  Remittent
  Intermittent
  Continuous
A

Continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Reasons why the temporal artery is a good site for measuring body temperature include all of the following EXCEPT:
It is not affected by ambient temperature
It is easily accessible
It has a constant, steady flow of blood
It is located close to the surface of the skin

A

It is not affected by ambient temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature reading?
Approximately 1° higher than an oral reading
Approximately 1° lower than an oral reading
Approximately 2° higher than an oral reading
It is the same as an oral reading

A

Approximately 1° higher than an oral reading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pulse oximetry provides the physician with information on:
The rate and depth of respiration
Cardiac dysrhythmias
The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues
Circulation to the extremities

A

The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
All of the following may cause a decrease in the SpO2 reading EXCEPT:
  Pneumonia
  Asthma
  Emphysema
  Gastritis
A

Gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
A tympanic membrane thermometer should not be used to measure temperature on a patient who has:
  Otitis externa 
  A small amount of  cerumen in the ear
  Big ears
  Strep throat
A

Otitis externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q 
What is the normal range for body temperature?
  96°F to 98°F 
  97°F to 99°F 
  98°F to 99°F
  97°F to 100.4°F
A

97°F to 99°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following may occur if the lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer is dirty?
The lens may break
The reading may be falsely low
The tympanic membrane may become irritated
The reading may be falsely high

A

The reading may be falsely low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
Which of the following is used to describe the condition in which the radial pulse rate is less than the apical pulse?
  Apical-radial pulse 
  Pulse pressure
  Pulse deficit 
  Atrial fibrillation
A

Pulse deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
Which of the following pulse sites is often used to monitor pulse during exercise?
  Temporal
  Carotid 
  Ulnar
  Dorsalis pedis
A

Carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q 
What is the term used to describe a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of oxygen?
  Cyanosis 
  Hypoxia
  Apnea
  Ischemia
A

Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q 
Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to have dyspnea?
  A patient with chronic bronchitis
  A patient with arthritis 
  A patient with emphysema
  A patient with asthma
A

A patient with arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q 
Where is the femoral pulse located?
  In the posterior hip region
  In the back of the knee
  In the middle of the groin 
  On the anterior side of the neck
A

In the middle of the groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
You are measuring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you record this?
  Dysrhythmia and regular
  Bounding and strong 
  Regular and strong 
  Thready and regular
A

Regular and strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as:
  Conduction 
  Radiation
  Convection
  Microwaves
A

Conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:
  8 to 16 respirations per minute
  10 to 18 respirations per minute 
  12 to 20 respirations per minute 
  16 to 22 respirations per minute
A

12 to 20 respirations per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If the patient’s fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry, the medical assistant should:
Take the reading on another finger
Use a disposable probe to take the reading
Cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe
Ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together

A

Ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
If an axillary temperature of 100°F was taken orally, it would register as:
  98°F
  99°F
  100°F
  101°F
A

101°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q 
Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?
  Newborn
  Infant
  Preschool child
  Adult
A

Adults

62
Q 
A temperature of 103°F is classified as:
  Hyperpyrexia
  Pyrexia 
  Hypopyrexia
  Low-grade fever
A

Pyrexia

63
Q 
Which of the following pulse sites can be used to assess circulation to the foot?
  Posterior tibial 
  Ulnar
  Femoral
  Popliteal
A

Posterior tibial

64
Q 
A diaphragm chestpiece on a stethoscope is most useful for hearing:
  Lung and bowel sounds
  Heart sounds
  Vascular sounds
  Low-pitched sounds
A

Lung and bowel sounds

65
Q 
What is the term used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration?
  Tachypnea
  Hypopnea 
  Orthopnea
  Bradycardia
A

Hypopnea

66
Q 
A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue that often marks the onset of a disease is known as:
  The blahs
  Malaise 
  Crisis
  Adventitious
A

Malaise

67
Q 
All of the following tend to increase body temperature EXCEPT:
  Crying 
  Vigorous physical exercise
  Pregnancy
  Cold weather
A

Cold weather

68
Q

Proper care of the pulse oximeter includes:
Hitting the probe against a hard object
Autoclaving the probe for 20 minutes
Lifting the monitor by the cable
Cleaning the monitor with a nonabrasive cleaner
All of the above

A

Cleaning the monitor with a nonabrasive cleaner

69
Q 
A temperature of 100°F is classified as:
  Normal
  Hyperpyrexia
  Hypothermia
  Low-grade fever
A

Low-grade fever

70
Q

Blood pressure measures:
The contraction and relaxation of the heart
The number of times the heart beats per minute
The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
The expansion and recoiling of the aorta

A

The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood

71
Q

When the patient’s forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate temporal artery temperature reading?
Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe
Brushing the patient’s hair to the side
Applying a probe cover
Taking the temperature behind the earlobe

A

Taking the temperature behind the earlobe

72
Q 
The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the heart relaxes between contractions is known as:
  Diastole 
  Systole
  Pulse pressure
  Baseline recording
A

Diastole

73
Q 
All of the following are risk factors for developing hypertension EXCEPT:
  Obesity
  Smoking
  Sleep apnea 
  Alcohol consumption
A

Sleep apnea

74
Q

All of the following can be used as a probe placement site EXCEPT the:
Toe
Earlobe
Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied
Index finger

A

Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied

75
Q 
The control center for involuntary respiration is the:
  Medulla 
  Thalamus
  Hypothalamus 
  Olfactory lobe
A

Medulla

76
Q 
Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure?
  Radial
  Brachial 
  Apical
  Carotid
A

Brachial

77
Q

Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring pulse because:
The pulse may increase
The pulse may decrease
It could close off the radial artery
It could affect the rhythm of the pulse

A

It could close off the radial artery

78
Q 
What is the term used to describing breathing that is easier in a sitting position?
  Orthopnea 
  Dyspnea
  Bradypnea
  Eupnea
A

Orthopnea

79
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to a fever?
  Hypothermia
  Febrile 
  Dehydration
  Afebrile
A

Febrile

80
Q 
What is the term used to describe an irregularity in the heart's rhythm?
  Fibrillation
  Ectopic beat
  Bradycardia
  Dysrhythmia
A

Dysrhythmia

81
Q 
If a patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient's pulse pressure would be:
  45 
  85
  130
  215
A

45

82
Q 
When measuring blood pressure, the patient's arm should be positioned:
  Above heart level
  At heart level 
  Across the chest
  With the palm facing downward
A

At heart level

83
Q

What effect could patient movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure?
Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal
Causes a decrease in blood flow to the finger
Prevents the probe from being aligned properly
Causes the photodetector to absorb too much light

A

Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal

84
Q 
A rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent:
  The transfer of pathogens
  An inaccurate temperature reading
  The thermometer from breaking
  Irritation of the rectal mucosa
A

Irritation of the rectal mucosa

85
Q 
The function of hemoglobin is to:
  Transport oxygen in the body 
  Defend the body against infection
  Assist in blood clotting
  Transport nutrients to the cells
A

Transport oxygen in the body

86
Q 
A temperature of 97.6°F is classified as:
  Normal 
  Hypothermia
  Subnormal
  Low-grade fever
A

Normal

87
Q 
Which of the following probes should be selected to measure rectal body temperature with an electronic thermometer?
  Blue-collared
  Red-collared 
  Pink-collared
  Green-collared
A

Red-collared

88
Q

Internal respiration is the:

A

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells

89
Q

The systolic blood pressure represents the:
Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract
Pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes
Pressure in the arteries when the atria contract
Expansion and recoiling of the aorta

A

Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract

90
Q

When taking axillary body temperature, the arm should be held close to the body to:
Allow for proper placement of the thermometer
Prevent irritation to the skin
Prevent the transfer of pathogens
Prevent air currents from affecting the reading

A

Prevent air currents from affecting the reading

91
Q 
What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood?
  Apnea
  Hypoxemia 
  Hypopnea
  Hypoxia
A

Hypoxemia

92
Q 
Which of the following conditions is often characterized by hypopnea?
  Sleep disorders 
  Dehydration
  Fever
  Chills
A

Sleep disorders

93
Q 
How does physical exercise affect the pulse?
  Increases the pulse rate 
  Decreases the pulse rate
  Has no effect on it
  Results in a dysrhythmia
A

Increases the pulse rate

94
Q 
What is the term used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure?
  Systolic pressure
  Diastolic pressure 
  Diastole
  Hypotension
  Pulse pressure
A

Diastolic pressure

95
Q 
What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult?
  60 to 100 beats/min 
  60 to 80 beats/min 
  70 to 90 beats/min
  80 to 100 beats/min
A

60 to 100 beats/min

96
Q 
Blood pressure is measured in:
  Units
  Degrees
  Beats/min
  Millimeters of mercury
A

Millimeters of mercury

97
Q 
What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occur, all of which are above normal?
  Crisis
  Remittent 
  Intermittent 
  Continuous
A

Remittent

98
Q 
What type of breathing may occur with a panic attack?
  Wheezing
  Bradypnea
  Hyperventilation 
  Hypoxia
A

Hyperventilation

99
Q 
Where is the popliteal pulse located?
  In front of the ear and just above eye level
  In the middle of the groin
  On the anterior side of the neck
  In the back of the knee
A

In the back of the knee

100
Q

Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature?

  1. 8°C
  2. 8°F
  3. 6°F
  4. 6°F
A

98.6°F

101
Q 
Chemical thermometers must be stored in:
  The freezer
  A dry heat oven
  A watertight container
  A cool area
A

A cool area

102
Q 
How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?
  1/2 inch 
  3/4 inch
  1 inch
  11/2 inches
A

1/2 inch

103
Q 
Which of the following does NOT affect the SpO2 reading?
  Dark fingernail polish 
  Darkly pigmented skin
  Bruises
  Artificial fingernails
A

Darkly pigmented skin

104
Q

Which of the following represents an ERROR in blood pressure technique?
Directing the ear pieces of the stethoscope slightly forward in the ear
Placing the cuff 2 inches above the bend in the elbow
Positioning the manometer at a viewing distance of 2 feet
Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible

A

Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible

105
Q 
Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure?
  Pain
  Bladder distention
  Body position
  Smoking
  All of the above
A

All of the above

106
Q 
The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is:
  95% to 99% 
  90% to 95%
  85% to 90%
  75% to 85%
A

95% to 99%

107
Q 
If a patient's pulse rate is 80 beats/min, the patient's respirations would most likely be:
  14 respirations per minute
  16 respirations per minute
  18 respirations per minute
  20 respirations per minute
A

20 respirations per minute

108
Q 
You are measuring the pulse and find it feels weak and rapid. How would you record this?
  Bounding
  Thready 
  Tachycardia
  Bradycardia
A

Thready

109
Q

For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be:
Located in a closed cavity
Located away from major nerves
Located over a firm tissue such as bone
Located close to the heart

A

Located over a firm tissue such as bone

110
Q 
The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is:
  SaO2
  PCO2
  PO2
  SpO2
A

SpO2

111
Q 
What type of cuff would probably be needed to measure blood pressure on an underweight adult weighing 93 lb?
  Aneroid
  Adult
  Child 
  Thigh
A

Child

112
Q

Which of the following prevents ambient light from interfering with the SpO2 reading?
Cleansing the placement site with an alcohol wipe
Warming the probe placement site
Covering the probe with a washcloth
Proper alignment of the probe on the patient’s finger

A

Covering the probe with a washcloth

113
Q 
The temporal artery site can be used to measure body temperature in:
  Infants
  Children
  Adults
  Elderly
  All of the above
A 
The temporal artery site can be used to measure body temperature in:
  Infants
  Children
  Adults
  Elderly
  All of the above
114
Q 
Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
  A trained athlete 
  An infant
  An elderly person 
  A diabetic patient
A

A trained athlete

115
Q 
Which of the following symptoms are experienced by a patient when his or her temperature begins to rise?
  Coldness and chills 
  Perspiration
  Bradycardia
  Hyperventilation
  All of the above
A

Coldness and chills

116
Q 
When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents:
  The systolic pressure 
  Phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds
  The diastolic pressure
  The palpatory blood pressure reading
A

The systolic pressure

117
Q 
You are taking the pulse and find it feels extremely strong and full. How would you record this?
  Bounding
  Thready
  Bradycardia
  Tachycardia
A

Bounding

118
Q 
One respiration consists of:
  One inhalation
  One exhalation
  One inhalation and one exhalation 
  The opening and closing of the valves of the heart
A

One inhalation and one exhalation

119
Q 
Sims position is used to perform which of the following?
  Breast examination 
  Flexible sigmoidoscopy 
  Pelvic examination
  Urinary catheterization
A

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

120
Q 
Which of the following may require a physical examination?
  Prerequisite for employment
  Participation in sports
  School admission
  Summer camp attendance
  All of the above
A

All of the above

121
Q 
All of the following are included in a complete patient examination EXCEPT:
  The health history
  Therapeutic procedures 
  The physical examination
  Laboratory tests
A

Therapeutic procedures

122
Q 
What is the term used to describe a tentative diagnosis obtained through the evaluation of the health history and the physical examination?
  Differential diagnosis 
  Final diagnosis
  Clinical diagnosis 
  Physical diagnosis
A

Clinical diagnosis

123
Q 
The lithotomy position is used to examine the:
  Vagina 
  Abdomen
  Sigmoid colon
  Breasts
A

Vagina

124
Q 
An adult patient's weight should be measured to the nearest:
  Quarter pound 
  Half pound
  Pound
  Ounce
A

Quarter pound

125
Q

The reason for weighing a prenatal patient is to:
Detect the presence of twins
Determine if the fetus is growing
Determine the due date
Ensure the placenta is developing normally

A

Determine if the fetus is growing

126
Q 
The lower calibration bar of a balance-beam scale is divided into:
  1-lb increments
  2-lb increments
  25-lb increments
  50-lb increments
A

50-lb increments

127
Q 
The purpose of asking a patient if he or she needs to void before the physical examination includes all of the following EXCEPT:
  To obtain a urine specimen
  To make the examination easier
  To prevent urinary incontinence 
  To provide for patient comfort
A

To prevent urinary incontinence

128
Q 
The patient's height should be measured to the nearest:
  1/8 inch
  1/4 inch 
  1/2 inch
  1 inch
A

1/4 inch

129
Q 
Which of the following is an example of palpation?
  Measuring visual acuity
  Assessing the fetal heart rate
  Assessing a patient’s mental status
  Performing a breast examination
A

Performing a breast examination

130
Q 
What is the term for an illness characterized by symptoms that have a rapid onset, are severe and intense, and subside after a short period?
  Chronic illness
  Self-limiting illness
  Acute illness 
  Fatal illness
A

Acute illness

131
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure?
  Electrocardiography 
  Antibiotic injection 
  CT scan
  Sigmoidoscopy
A

Antibiotic injection

132
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a chronic illness?
  Strep throat
  Chickenpox
  Arthritis 
  Poison ivy
A

Arthritis

133
Q 
What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?
  Otoscope 
  Ophthalmoscope
  Stethoscope
  Laryngoscope
A

Otoscope

134
Q 
Which of the following examinations requires the use of deep palpation?
  Bimanual pelvic examination
  Breast examination
  Detection of areas of tenderness 
  Detection of swelling
A

Bimanual pelvic examination

135
Q

A risk factor means that:
A patient will develop a certain disease
A patient must avoid foods that trigger an allergic reaction
A patient has a genetic disorder
The chances of a patient developing a certain disease are increased

A

The chances of a patient developing a certain disease are increased

136
Q

The purpose of draping a patient is to:
Make it easier for the physician to examine the patient
Assist the physician in making a diagnosis
Protect the patient from pathogens
Provide patient with warmth and modesty
All of the above

A

Provide patient with warmth and modesty

137
Q 
The height of an adult patient usually is measured only:
  When the patient is ill
  During the first office visit 
  When medication has been prescribed
  After a loss of weight
A

During the first office visit

138
Q 
A patient has a burn on his lower back. For his physical examination, you would place him in which of the following positions?
  Lithotomy
  Dorsal recumbent
  Supine
  Prone
A

Prone

139
Q 
The patient's height should be recorded in:
  Inches
  Feet and inches 
  Centimeters
  Meters
A

Feets and inches

140
Q 
The process of measuring the patient is known as:
  Inspection
  Mensuration
  Micturition
  Calibration
A

Mensuration

141
Q 
One pound is equal to:
  10 oz
  2.2 kg 
  1000 g
  200 kg
A

2.2 kg

142
Q 
Before applying a stethoscope chestpiece to the patient's skin, it should be:
  Soaked in bleach
  Warmed 
  Autoclaved
  Calibrated
A

warmed

143
Q

The function of a speculum is to:
Measure intraocular pressure
Grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping
Clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis
Open a body orifice or cavity for viewing

A

Open a body orifice or cavity for viewing

144
Q 
What is the name of the instrument used to examine the interior of the eye?
  Otoscope
  Ophthalmoscope 
  Rhinoscope
  Stethoscope
A

Ophthalmoscope

145
Q 
What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease?
  Cure
  Prognosis
  Final diagnosis
  Therapy
A

Prognosis

146
Q 
What is the reason for weighing a child?
  To observe the pattern of growth
  To determine medication dosage
  To identify nutritional problems
  All of the above
A

All of the above

147
Q 
All of the following should be removed before weighing a patient EXCEPT:
  Shoes
  Jewelry 
  Heavy sweater
  Jacket
A

Jewelry

148
Q 
Which of the following is an example of auscultation?
  Measuring body temperature
  Measuring blood pressure 
  Urine testing
  Testing pupillary reaction
A

Measuring blood pressure Correct

149
Q 
How should a patient be identified?
  By phone number and address
  By hair and eye color
  By SSN
  By name and date of birth
A

By name and date of birth

150
Q 
The process of determining which of two diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patient's illness is known as a:
  Differential diagnosis 
  Final diagnosis
  Clinical diagnosis
  Tentative diagnosis
A

Differential diagnosis Correct

151
Q 
Which of the following is an example of percussion?
  Measuring pulse
  Testing reflexes with a rubber hammer 
  Testing hearing with a tuning fork
  Listening to breath sounds
A

Testing reflexes with a rubber hammer Correct

MIDTERM TEST HW (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions