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PMHNP Exam > Final Haul > Flashcards

Final Haul Flashcards

1
Q

what is a healthcare strategy that focuses on early detection and intervention for diseases and injuries AFTER they have ALREADY OCCURRED

A

secondary prevention

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2
Q

Examples of secondary prevention

A
  1. screenings -help detect disease in early stage
  2. lifestyle changes
  3. immunizaton to contacts of people
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3
Q

timeframe of adjustment disorder

A

typically begins within 3 months of a stressor and lasts no longer than 6 months

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4
Q

major differences between conduct disorder and ODD

A
  • ODD involves being defiant, rebellious toward authority figures, arguing, breaking rules, sx appear in preschool. Often considered milder form of CD.
  • conduct disorder violates rights of others, property destruction, may lead to legal consequences, often develops in later childhood and adolescence.
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5
Q

major difference between intermittent explosive disorder and disruptive mood dysregulated disorder

A
  • DMDD, the person must be in an angry state for most of the time between aggressive outbursts
  • those with IED spend less than 50% of the time between aggressive outbursts in an angry state
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6
Q

Criteria for Tourettes

A
  • at least 2 motor tics and 1 vocal tic for for at least one year (they can occur at different times but must be present for at least one year)
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7
Q

When do symptoms of Rett syndrome typically begin

A

(affects 1 in 10,000 girls per year. More in girls because the gene mutation occurs on the x chromosome, rarely occurs in boys
* Can be normal for first 5-6 months then see changes 6-18 months.

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8
Q

Intellectual disability

A
  • low intellect and adaptive functioning
  • onset before age 18
  • mild, moderate, severe
  • based on adaptive functioning, not IQ scores
  • Downs (chromosome 21), FMRI - fragile X, tay sachs, tuberculosis
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9
Q

what is most preventable cause of intellectual disability

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

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10
Q

characteristics of fetal alcoholism

A
  • epicanthal skin folds (also seen in down’s, asians)
  • low nasal bridge
  • short nose
  • smooth or indistinct philtrum (dimple above lips)
  • small head circumference
  • small eye openings
  • wide set eyes
  • curved 5th finger
  • top of ear underdeveloped
  • thing upper lip
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11
Q

cryptorchidism

A

failure of one or both testicles to descend

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12
Q

neurocognitive disorder in TBI

A

evidence of traumatic brain injury with one or more of the following:
* loss of conciousness
* posttraumatic amnesia
* disorientation and confusion
* neurological signs (neuroimaging demonstrating injury, new onset of seizures, worsening seizure disorder, visual field cuts, hemiparesis, anosmia (loss of smell)

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13
Q

moderate to severe symptoms of TBI

A
  • chronic worsening headaches
  • repeated nausea and vomiting
  • seizures
  • difficult to arrouse from sleep
  • unequal pupils
  • confusion
  • restlessness and agitation
  • slurred speech
  • extreme weakness or numbness
  • loss of coordination
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14
Q

catatonia sx

A

LIMP MEN
* Lethargy (stupor)
* Immobility
* Mutism
* Positioning
* Motor abnormalities
* Echolalia / echopraxia
* Negativism -

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15
Q

negativism in catatonia

A

not following or resisting commands

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16
Q

dysthymia is now called

A

persistent depressive disorder

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17
Q

Persistent depressive disorder criteria

A

HES 2 SAD
* hopelessness
* energy
* self-esteem
* 2+ years
* sleep
* appetite
* Decision making

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18
Q

Bipolar disorder criteria nmeumonic

A

mania - DIG FAST
* distractability
* impulsivity
* grandiosity
* flight of ideas
* activity increase
* sleep (less need for)
* talkativeness
“3-4/7 one fun week”

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19
Q

simple clue for bipolar mixed episode

A

low mood with increased activity

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20
Q

simple clue hypomania

A

DIG FAST criteria but less impairing

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21
Q

age diagnose DMDD and what family history to screen for

A
  • 6-17
  • family history of bipolar disorder
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22
Q

mood stabilizers and antidepressants approved for children

A
  • lithium - age 7 and older
  • prozac - 8 and > MDD; 7-17 OCD
  • Lexapro - ages 12 and older
  • Lurasidone - 10-17, MDD associated with bipolar
  • zyprexa - 13 and older for schizophrenia and bipolar
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23
Q

Key receptor reduced in asians and african americans

A

2C19

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24
Q

factors in elderly that affect drug metabolism

A
  • decreased intracellular water
  • decreased protein binding
  • low muscle mass
  • reduced metabolism
  • increased body fat
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25
Q

refering to drug metabolism when liver disease

A

inhibit enzyme activity, increase risk of drug toxicity (first pass effect)

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26
Q

chronic alcohol use inhibitor or inducer

A

inducer

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27
Q

short term heavy alcohol use leads to inhibition or induction

A

inhibitor

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28
Q

nmemonic for most common CYP inducers

A

SARS
* St. John’s wort
* Anti-epileptics (phenytoin, phenobarbital, oxcarbamazepine, carbamazepine)
* rifampin
* smoking

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29
Q

what is first pass effect

A

the recirculaion process (uptake and conversion) by which substrates (changed drug) are significantly reduced by the CYP450. Non-enteric drugs bypass first-pass effect

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30
Q

where does absorption of a drug occur in the body.

A

small intestine with oral agents

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31
Q

the distribution of the drug in the body depends on the amount of

A

muscle and fat

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32
Q

what special situations would lamictal be a good choice for mood stabilizer

A

*least weight gain
* bipolar depression (not as good for mania)

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33
Q

Metabolic syndrome criteria

A

3 or more of the following
* a waist circumference > 40 men, > 35 women
* triglycerides > 150
* HDL < 40 men, < 50 women
* fasting glucose > 100
* BP of 130/85 or higher

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34
Q

Key components of recovery model

A
  • prioritizes resilience, managing life challenges as opposed to complete sx elimination
  • individualized, person-centered
    encourage self-guidance and independence
    **     non-linear **- recovery is an ongoing process (growth, learning, relapses and experiential learning)
  • Places emphasis on lessons learned from past experiences
  • focus is not on diagnosis, but on person’s capabilities, interests, and aspirations
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35
Q

mal de ojo

A

common middle east, latin america, europe
belief that if someone gives you a “bad look” it transfers bad energy to another person causing them to be sick, have bad luck and even death.

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36
Q

in quality improvement, what are the goals of project design

A
  1. improve the system
  2. decrease cost
  3. improve productivity
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37
Q

a common strategy in quality improvement projects

A

retrospective review (retrospective chart review)

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38
Q

what is PDSA

A

a process of quality improvement
Plan, Do, Study, Act - process

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39
Q

Examples of steps in PDSA

A
  • **Plan **- recruit team, define what aiming to accomplish, describe current context and process (brainstorm), gather more detail, describe the problem, analyze cause
  • DO - implement actioni plan, collect data as go such as problems, unexpected effects, and general observations
  • Study - use data from the above 2 steps determine was their improvement, trends, worth investment, unintended side effects
  • ACT - reflect on plan and outcomes. IF plan was successful, standarize the improvement, return to step after some time to see where there could be more improvement, if a different approach was determined to be more successful, return to step 1
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40
Q

What are the 4 components of Health Policy

A
  1. process
  2. policy reform
  3. policy environment
  4. policy makers
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41
Q

regarding health policy, what is involved in process component

A
  • FIE - Formulation, Implementation, Evaluatoin
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42
Q

regarding health policy, what is involved in policy reform component

A

changes in programs and practices

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43
Q

regarding health policy, what is involved in policy environment component

A

where the proccesses take place (government, media)

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44
Q

regarding health policy, what is involved in policy maker component

A

key players and stake holders

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45
Q

First step in health policy

A

Assess the organizations barriers and facilitators

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46
Q

second step in health policy

A

Brainstorm with stakeholders

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47
Q

what would an PMHNP do to assess facilitators and barriers to evidence-based principles

A

assess knowlege, beliefs, and practices among health providers through surverys

** policy queston answers typically do not want funding as the correct answer**

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48
Q

describe just culture of care and give an example

A

individuals are committed to continual learning and designing safety systems while managing behavioral choices

-example: should a nurse commit a medication error, the immediate action is to assess patient safety

prioritize patient safety by addressing it first rather than reporting a coworker

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49
Q

Justice with example

A

commiting to fairness in ALL aspects of patient care
*example: excluding someone from a medication trial soley based on financial status is a breach of justice

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50
Q

nonmalificence with example

A

abstaining from causing harm
*example: stopping a med that might be harmful to patient or imniment danger - not giving stimulants to a patient with SUD of stimulants.

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51
Q

Beneficience with example

A

encouraging well-being and performing good deeds
*example- prescribing antidepressants to someone with depressoin

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52
Q

Fidelity with example

A

maintaining faithfulness and loyalty, promise-keeping, integrity, honesty
*example: fulfilling patient’s legitimate expectations of role fidelity, such as being respectful, competent, and professional

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53
Q

Patient Advocacy

A
  • ensures patient’s autonomy and self-determination are honored
  • prioritize patient’s best interest while honoring the family’s role and perspective
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54
Q

How is the stigma associated with mental illness reduced

A

patient advocacy - comprehensive psychiatric education
When choosing an education method, choose reaching for a broader audience (radio) and community versus family

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55
Q

how is the AUDIT score used in regards to SBIRT

A

AUDIT score determines appropriate intervention according to SBIRT protocol

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56
Q

What are 3 patient rights

A
  1. right to the least restrictive environment
  2. right to informed consent
  3. right to confidentiality
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57
Q

what is veracity

A

upholding the truth
Example - INFORMED consent

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58
Q

Best way to transfer medical records (non-electronic)

A

Fax information - NO DELEGATION for anyone to hand carry

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59
Q

what should you do before making a referral

A

anything helpful, such as ordering labs. Things that the other provider might do, so they patient does not have to wait for them to order and then wait for results.

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60
Q

In cases where postpartum suicide risk assessment has not been done

A

Collaboration with the OB department before patient discharges.

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61
Q

can a patient with dementia give informed consent

A

yes, if they can articulate risks and benefits

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62
Q

In metabolic syndrome what appears first

A

abnormal hip to waist ratio

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63
Q

symptoms of aplastic anemia

A

symptoms of bleeding

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64
Q

Notorious strong inhibitors

A

“Flu Flu flu keto”

Fluvoxamine, fluoxamine, fluconazole, ketococazole

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65
Q

Notoriously strong inducers

A

Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin

“Carb, barb, & phil , have a Rif”

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66
Q

5 most common mood stabilizers

A

All antieleptic drugs (AED) except lithium

  1. Lithium
  2. Valproate
  3. Lamictal
  4. Carabamazepine
  5. Oxcarbmazepine (tripletal)

all mood stabilizers are AED except lithium

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67
Q

Important to know regarding discontinuing AED

A

Abrupt discontinuation may cause a seizure even in those without seizure disorder. Must taper slowly.

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68
Q

Should use antidepressants in bipolar depression?

A

NO, may be effective in short term, but may destabilize mood in long term.

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69
Q

What medication can be used with acute mania - works fasted

A

SGA

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70
Q

What is black box warning on Lithium

A

States that a lab for testing must be near by.

71
Q

What disorder happens 6-fold (15%) when taking Lithium

A

Hypothyroidism (interferes with production of thyroid hormone)

72
Q

Most common meds that may decrease lithium levels

A

Caffeine, theophylline, mannitol, topiramate

73
Q

Lithium levels increased most commonly by which drugs

A

Thiazide diuretics, ACEI, ARBs, NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, antimicrobial (flagyl), tetracycline

74
Q

Maintenance dose lithium

A

900-1200 (1200-1800 for acute mania)

75
Q

Difference between SJS and benign lamictal rash

A

SJS - 1-12 weeks after starting, tender, rapidly confluent and wide spread, neck and above, purpuric (non-blanching), may involve conjunctiva, mucous membrane, fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, leukocyte is

Benign rash- 10-14 days, non-tender, spotty (non-confluent), below neck

76
Q

Black box warning depakote

A

Hepatotoxic, pancreatitis, neural tube defdcts

77
Q

What to do with mental status changes with depakote

A

Check ammonia level. Increased ammonia levels may be dose dependent and may decrease with dose decrease.

78
Q

Unique side effect Belsomra (suvorexant)

A

*good for sleep maintenance not onset

Narcolepsy (cataplexy)

79
Q

NDRI

A

Norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor

Wellbutrin

80
Q

NRI

A

Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

Atomoxetine (Straterra)

81
Q

SNRI meds

A

Cymbalta
Effexor
Pristiq
Fetizma

82
Q

NaSSA

A

Noradrenergic & specific serotonergic antidepressant

Remeron

83
Q

SMS

A

Serotonin modulator and stimulator

Vibryd (vilazidone)
Vortiotextine (Trintellix)

84
Q

Side effect cymbalta

A

Liver damage (rare)

85
Q

DNRI

A

Methylphenidate
Amphetamine
Lysdexafetamine (vyvanse)

86
Q

DRI

A

Modanfinil (provigil)
Armodafinil (nuvigil)

Daytime sleepiness

87
Q

D2 receptor antiemetic

A

Promethazine (Phergan)
Prochlorperazine (compazine)
Metoclorpramide (Regan)

88
Q

Muscanaric (cholinergic) overload

A

Everything wet “SLUDGE”
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diaphoresis
GI upset (diarrhea)
Emesis

89
Q

Anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)

A

Everything dry
Dry as a bone
Mad as a hatter
Blind as a bat
Can’t shit, can’t piss

90
Q

Strongest anticholinergic drug

A

Atropine

91
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

Robinul - can be used for excessive salvation and hyperhidrosis

92
Q

What are AChE inhibitors

A

Enhance cholinergic (muscanaric) activity by inhibiting acetylcholinesterace the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Used as a cognitive enhancer in Alzheimer’s

93
Q

Name 3 AchE inhibitors

A

Donepezil (Aricept)
Rivastigmine (exelon patch)
Galantamine (razadyne)

94
Q

NMDA receptor receptor antagonist

A

Cognitive enhancer used for severe dementia. NMDA receptors are involved in synaptic plasticity and memory. It’s lightly blocked, just enough to improve memory. If they are completely blocked neurons cannot function, street drug PCP.

Memantine (nemanda)

95
Q

Alpha 2 adrenergic (norepinephrine) receptor agonist

A

Clonidine
Guanafacine
Lofexidinec(Lucemyra) - opioid withdrawal

96
Q

Alpha 1 antagonist

A

Prazosin - minipress

Smooth muscle relaxer (BPH, Raynaud’s, PTSD nightmares

97
Q

First line treatment for Akathisa

A

Propranolol

98
Q

Dopaminergics

A

Carbidopa-levodopa
Ropinrole (requip) (restless legs)
Pramipexole (mirapex)
Bromocriptine

99
Q

How would assess for ebstein anomaly

A

Assess for murmur

100
Q

ADPIE

A

Assess, diagnose, plan, implement, evaluate

101
Q

Normal CPK

A

10-20

102
Q

Kids doing great on SSRi, but expresses SI

A

D/C med

103
Q

Age range Prozac

A

6 and older

104
Q

Which medication cannot be given with previous TBI

A

Wellbutrin

105
Q

What age ranges do SSRI have highest SI risk

A

Adolescent, < 26

106
Q

Trazodone

A

SARI - serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitor

107
Q

When you see person taking kava what is first action

A

LFT

108
Q

Which SGA decrease prolactin

A

Abilify

109
Q

What medication might be considered in borderline personality disorder with self- harm

A

Lithium

110
Q

OCD transmitters

A

Serotonin and norepinephrine

111
Q

Prioritization in clinical judgement

A
  • questions that emphasize “priority or initial action”
    1. Ensure ABC (airway, breathing, circulation) first choice
    2. apply maslows hierarchy of needs
    3. use nursing process - assessment first step - collect data, literature reviews, lab results
112
Q

safety contracts on test

A

always wrong answer

113
Q

which medications can cause tics

A

stimulants - always discontinue first

114
Q

which neurotransmitters involved in tourettes

A

hyperactivity of dopamine, serotonin and norepinephrine involved

115
Q

medications to treat tourettes

A

Alplha 2 adrenergive agonists
Clonidine and guanaficine

116
Q

3 main steps EMDR

A
  1. desensitization
  2. instillation
  3. body scan
117
Q

basal ganglia

A

millions of nerve cell bodies
execute smooth muscle movement

(cerebral cortex decides on body movement)

118
Q

Reticular activating system

A

in brain stem, medulla, connection of nerve fibers responsible for sensation, conciousness, attentionm, and sleep-wake cycle. Transmits sensory messages to different areas of cerebral cortex through the thalmus. It has gating properties that holds back unnecessary information from a sense organ while strong or necessary sensations are sent through.

119
Q

ages to use amphetamine

A

3 and up
(all other medication for ADHD is 6 and up)

120
Q

what ages are guanafacine and clonidine for ADHD

A

6-17

121
Q

where must symptoms of ADHD be present for diagnosis

A

2 settings

122
Q

dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

A
  • executive function
  • planning, working memory
  • problem-solving
  • task attention
123
Q

one of the greatest family history factors in bipolar disorder

A

family history across generations

124
Q

main treatment for oppositional defiant disorder

A
  • family therapy with management skills
  • teach parents + reinforcement and boundary setting
  • goal - prevent from leading to conduct disorder
125
Q

Key points for conduct disorder

A
  • < 18 years of age
  • property destuction, hurting animals
  • destruction, violate personn rights
  • no remorse
  • may have childhood onset before age 10 or adolescent onset
  • prosocial emotions - lack of remorse, empathy. unconcerned about performance, shallow or defficient affect
  • stay out past curfue and/or ran away from home before age of 13
  • treated with meds for mood aggression - SSRI, alpha agonist clonidine and guanafacine
  • family therapy mat be helpful
126
Q

what cyp enzyme primarily metabolizes clozaril

A

CYP 1A2

127
Q

which medication can cause maniam, depression and psychosis

A

steroids

128
Q

case management

A

considers patient and provider satisfaction as well as cost considerations to help manage overall health

129
Q

positive aspects of case management

A

enhance clients self-care, diminish fragmentation of care, improve quality of care throughout continuum, boost staff and provider satisfaction, cost effective use of resoources, members of multidisciplinary teams

130
Q

What are limited prosocial factors

A
  • lack of remorse or guilt
  • callous- lack of empathy
  • unconcerned about performance
  • shallow or deficient affect
131
Q

derailment

A
  • aka loosening of associations
  • spontaneous speech that slips of track, with ideas that are unrelated or loosely related.
132
Q

What does the brainstem include

A
  • midbrain, pons, medulla, cerebellum, reticular formation
133
Q

what does the mid-brain house

A

ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra

134
Q

what does the pons hosuse

A

locus ceruleus

135
Q

What does the medulla do

A

together with the pons, contains autonomic control centers that regulate internal body functions

136
Q

what is the cerebellum responsible for

A
  • maintaining equilibrium;
  • acts as gross motore control center
  • each hemisphere of the cerebellum has ipsilateral control
137
Q

Problems within the cerebellum can lead to what and what test, tests cerebellum function/deficiences

A
  • lead to ataxia (impaired coordination)
  • Romberg test can detect cerebellar deficiencies
138
Q

reticular formation system

A
  • the primitive brain
  • receives input from the cortex
  • it is an integration area for input from postsensory pathways
  • innervates thalamus, hypothalmus, and cortex
139
Q

brainstem regulation functions

A
  • involuntary movement
  • reflex
  • muscle tone
  • vital sign control
  • critical to conciousness and ability to mentally focus, to be alert and pay attention to environmental stimuli
140
Q

brain structures in the limbic system

A
  • Limbic, latin word for limbus which means border, referring to location of these brain structures situated on the edge of the cerebral hemispheres, bordering the brainstem
  • amygdala
  • hippocampus
  • hypothalamys,, thalamus
141
Q

what are the limbic system functions

A
  • processing and regulating emotion, memory, and sexual arousal
  • important element of the body’s stress and is highly connected to the endocrine and autonomic nervous system
  • responsible for processing the body’s response to odors
142
Q

what can problems in the limbic system lead to

A

affect emotions, behaviors, risk-taking, decision making and can affect memory too

143
Q

amygdala responsibilities

A
  • mediating mood, fear, emotion, aggession
  • responsible for connecting sensory smell information with emotions
144
Q

hypothalamus function

A

plays key roles in various regulatory functions such as appetite, sensations of hunger and thirst, water balance, circadian rhythms, body temperature, libido, and hormonal regulation

145
Q

thalamus

A

sensory relay station EXCEPT FOR SMELL; modulates flow of sensory information to prevent overwhelming the cortex; regulates emotions, memory, and related affective behavior

146
Q

the brain is subdivided into the

A

cerebrum and brainstem

147
Q

cerebral cortex

A

outermost layer of the cerebrum AKA gray matter

148
Q

the cerebrum is divided into left and right hemispheres by what

A

corpus collosum (basal ganglia large part), thick track of nerves at the base of the fissure that allows communication between the right and left hemisphere

149
Q

each hemisphere is divided into what

A

4 lobes
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. occipital lobe
4. temporal lobe

150
Q

major functions of the frontal lobe

A

largest lobe, involved in personality, decision making, movement and speech

151
Q

major function of the parietal lobe

A
  • middle, top of head -
  • involved in identifying objects, understanding spatial relationships, interpreting pain and touch
  • primary sensory area, taste, readning and writing
152
Q

Occipital lobe function major function

A

located in the back of the brain, involved in vision

153
Q

temporal lobe function

A
  • located on the sides of the brain,
  • wernickek’s area (receptive speecch or language comprehension)
  • primary auditory area
  • integration of vision with sensory information
  • perception, face recognition,
  • involved in short term memory, speech, musical rhythm, and some smell recognition
154
Q

basal ganglia

A
  • serves as a complex feedback system to modulate and stabilize somatic motor activity
  • plays a role in movement initiation; complex motor functions with with association connections
  • functions in learning and autonomic actions
  • contains extrapyramidal motor functions
  • functions in involuntary motor activities
155
Q

problems in this area of the brain can lead to bradykinesia, hyperkinesia, and dystonia

A

basal ganglia

156
Q

Sensory information relayed to the thalmus to

A

processed and integrated into the cortex

157
Q

problems in this sensory area can lead to sensory and perceptual disturbances and agnosia

A
  • agnosia - inability to recognize, objects, people or sounds
  • Parietal lobe
158
Q

important substructures of the frontal lobe

A
  • prefrontal cortex and orbitofrontal cortex
  • involved in attention and thought, voluntary movement, decision making, and language
159
Q

where is the Broca’s area

A

frontal lobe
expressive speech

160
Q

what area of the brain is most focal for personality development

A

frontal lobe

161
Q

what area of brain is responsible for controlling voluntary motor activity fo specific muscles

A

frontal lobe
Premotor area - coordinates movement of multiple muscles

162
Q

Association cortex

A

in the frontal lobe, allows for multimodal sensory input to trigger memory and lead to decision making.

163
Q

problems in this lobe can lead to auditory hallucinations, aphasia, amnesia

A

temporal lobe

164
Q

nucleus acumbens

A
  • considered part of basal ganglia
  • reward circuit of the brain
  • VTA project to nucleus acumbens to increase dopamine levels
165
Q

how does the basal ganglia receive information from the cortex about the “movements you want to make”

A
  • most information travels 1st to caudate or putamen via the corticostriatal pathway
166
Q

problems in the caudate leads to this disorder

A

strongly linked to huntingtons

167
Q

putamen

A
  • part of the basal ganglia and the dorsal striatume which also includes the caudate nuclues
  • part of corticostriatal pathway
  • contain GABA
  • strongly linked (along with the caudate) to huntington’s, parkinsons
168
Q

substantia nigra

A
  • located in brainstem, part of basal ganglia
  • contains large amounts of dopamine (along withe the adjacent VTA)
  • projects to the striatum (putamen and caudate) forming the nigostriatal pathway
  • Movement is one of the substantially nigra main functions
  • PARKINSON’s - death of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra
169
Q

caudate and putamen together are known as the

A

striatum

170
Q

Bandura theorist

A

self efficacy and social learning theory
* behavior is result of cognitive and environmental factors
* people learn by observing, relying on role-modeling
* self-efficacy - perception of the one’s ability to perform a certain task at a certain level of accomplishment
* behavioral changes and maintenance are functions of outcome expectations and efficacy expectations

171
Q

Simvastatin is a what and what can it cause if prescribed with

A

CYP450 3A4 substrate and should not be combined with a 3A4 inhibitor like Prozac. Causes increased blood levels of statin leading to rhabdomyolosis.

172
Q

When is a root cause analysis most effective

A

whenever a problem repeatedly occurs within a process

173
Q

steps in root cause analysis

A
  1. defining the problem
  2. gathering data
  3. indentifying the causative factors
  4. developing corrective factors

PMHNP Exam (7 decks)

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