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MCN568 > FINAL FALL 2019 MCN568 > Flashcards

FINAL FALL 2019 MCN568 Flashcards

1
Q

Amnion Nodosum in the placenta?

A

are nodules found on the amnion, and is frequently present in oligohydramnios

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2
Q

Is DNA random?

A

TRUE

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3
Q

What cells produce testosterone?

A

Leydig cells

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4
Q

S&S of polyhydramnios?

A

malformations of esophagus and upper GI, inhibited fetal swallowing, aneuploidy, intermittent renal obstruction, MD, TTTS

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5
Q

Chronic Villi Sampling risk?

A

limb abnormalities

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6
Q

what is the difference between DNA, gene, chromosome?

A

DNA-double stranded nucleoid acid build of nucleotides (A, T, G, C) and sugar deoxyribose
Chromosome- structural unit composed of DNA on a framework of proteins, carry genetic information, each human cell has 23 chromosomes
Gene-a sequence of chromosomal DNA that can specify the sequence of amino acids in a particular polypeptide
Chromosome carries genes
genes carry DNA

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7
Q

maternal DM causes what?

A

TGA, VSD, cardiomyopathy, renal abnormalities, NTDs

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8
Q

who has Wolf and Mull ducts?

A

Wolffian and Müllerian ducts, also known as mesonephric and paramesonephric ducts, respectively. The Wolffian duct remains in males and the Müllerian duct persists in females

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9
Q

variable decels are caused by?

A

compression of the umbilical cord and represent physiologic changes in response to alternations in vascular resistance and preload

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10
Q

Turner S&S?

A

mosaicisms in 25%
ovarian dysgenesis (hypoplasia to absence)
broad shield-like chest with wide nipples
congenital lymphedema (puffy hands and feet)
anomalous auricles
renal anomalities
webbed posterior neck
low posterior hair line

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11
Q

teratogen definition

A

anything external to the fetus that causes a structural or functional disability in prenatal and postnatal life
meds, maternal conditions, infections, environmental factors

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12
Q

zygotic development pattern

A

cranio-caudal?

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13
Q

best predictor of premature labor

A

cervical length

Fetal fibronectin fFN

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14
Q

noise exposure for the fetus

A

both low and high frequency might produce physiologic changes; increase fetal HR and movement; congenital anomalies, prematurity, low birth weight; avid exposure above 65dB

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15
Q

twin pregnancies

A 
dizygotic-two eggs
monozygotic-one egg
dichorionic-two sacks
monochorionic-one sac
monoamniotic
diamniotic
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16
Q

newborn screening program tests for what?

A

metabolic and genetic disorders

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17
Q

epigenics and genomic imprinting syndromes

A

Angelman, Prader-Willi, Beckwith-Wiedemann

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18
Q

what is hypospadias?

A

the urethral orifice is situated on the ventrical aspect of the penis at the site proximal to the normal opening

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19
Q

epigenetics and genomic imprinting syndromes

A

Angelman, Prader-Willi, Beckwith-Wiedemann

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20
Q

Turner S&S?

A

mosaicisms in 25% female x-linked disorder
ovarian dysgenesis (hypoplasia to absence)
broad shield-like chest with wide nipples
congenital lymphedema (puffy hands and feet)
anomalous auricles
renal abnormalities
webbed posterior neck
low posterior hairline

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21
Q

Dubowitz assessment/Ballard Scores

A

skin texture, lanugo, plantar creases, breast, eyes and ears, genitals male and female

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22
Q

most common NTDs?

A

myelomeningocele, prevention Folic Acid

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23
Q

Achondroplasia

A

associated with advanced paternal age, form of short-limb dwarfism

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24
Q

Cornelia De Lange

A

synophrys- fusion of the eyebrows in the midline

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25
Q

Pyloric Stenosis S&S?

A

projectile nonbilious vomiting

firm non-tender olive

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26
Q

Dubowitz assessment/Ballard Scores

A

skin texture, lanugo, plantar creases, breast, eyes and ears, genitals male and female

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27
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome S&S

A

macrostomia- large mouth
CHD
hypocalcemia

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28
Q

Amniotic band sequence

A

group of birth defects that result when strands of the amniotic sac detach and wrap around parts of the baby in the womb. The defects may affect the face, arms, legs, fingers, or toes

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29
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome S&S

A

LGA
refractory hypoglycemia
macroglossia- enlarged protruding tongue
omphalocele- abdominal contents protrude through the umbilical opening

30
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome S&S

A 
macrostomia- large mouth
defect of thymus
hypoparathyroidism
CHD truncus arteriosus or aourtic arch anomality
hypocalcemia
31
Q

metabolism

A

require conversion to more water-soluble metabolites for efficient elimination from the body
liver phase I and Phase II
P450

32
Q

excretion

A

renal: kidneys
Neonates often have a larger volume of distribution but delayed excretion compared to older children or adults, resulting in the need for higher mg/kg doses of medications with potentially longer dosing intervals

33
Q

absorbtion

A

the passage of a drug from its site of administration into the circulation

34
Q

distribution

A

drug into the extravascular tissues is largely influenced by body composition, which is much different in a neonate compared with an older infant or adult.
protein binding

35
Q

steady state

A

the result of maternal drug disposition

ultimately determines the amount of the drug available for distribution to the fetal compartment

36
Q

half-life

A

the time required for any specified property (e.g. the concentration of a substance in the body) to decrease by half

37
Q

Methylxanthines

A

caffeine and theophylline, are a mainstay in the treatment and prevention of AOP

38
Q

pulmonary vasodilators

A

bosentan
sildenafil and tadalafil
RX: acute and chronic PPHN
nitric oxide

39
Q

surfactant

A

RDS

40
Q

therapeutic drug monitoring

A

aminoglycosides, vancomycin, phenobarbital, digoxin

41
Q

erythema toxicum

A

newborn rash; small white or yellow papules or vesciles with erythematous bases

42
Q

milia

A

multiple yellow or pearly white papules 1mm
brow, cheeks and nose
Ebstein pearls
Bohn nodules

43
Q

miliaria

A

heat rash

44
Q

sebaceous nevus

A

immature hair follicles and sebaceous gland

45
Q

mongolian spot

A

hyperpigmented macule
buttock, flanks, shoulders
gray or blue green in color; bruising? NOT

46
Q

cafe au lait patch

A

tan or light-brown, oval-shaped macule with a well-defined border
six or more patches greater than 0.5 cm in length may indicate cutaneous neurofibromatosis

47
Q

subcutaneous Fat necrosis

A

a subcutaneous nodule or nodules that are hard, nonpitting, and sharply circumscribed
red or purplish color
term newborns and are thought to be caused by trauma, cold, or asphyxia

48
Q

nevus simplex

A

salmon patch or stork bite
vascular birthmark
nape of the neck, upper eyelids, bridge of the nose, upper lip

49
Q

port wine nevus

A

flat pink or reddish-purple lesion consisting of dilated, congested capillaries directly beneath the epidermis
sharply delineated edges and does not blanch with pressure

50
Q

Infantile hemangioma

A

strawberry mark
bright-red, raised, lobulated tumor that occurs on the head, neck, trunk, or extremities. It is soft and compressible, with sharply demarcated margins

51
Q

aplasia cutis congenita ACC

A

congenital abnormality characterized by the absence of some or all layers of the skin
scalp

52
Q

caput succedaneum

A

edema of the presenting part of the scalp
usually crosses suture line
resolves in days

53
Q

cephalhematoma

A

collection of blood between the periosteum and the skull
resolves in weeks
clearly demarcated edges confined by suture lines

54
Q

subgaleal hemorrhage

A

galea aponeurotica or subaponeurotic space

55
Q

head size

A

33-37cm avarege 35cm

56
Q

hypo-hyper telorism

A

how wide are the eyes

57
Q

cystic hygroma

A

neck mass,

development of sequestered lymph channels, which dilate into large cyst

58
Q

Ortolani maneuver

A

test for hip reduction
means that the hip is “out.” The maneuver is used to place the hip back into a normal position.
positive Ortolani maneuver is produced when a palpable “clunk” is noted, indicating that the femoral head has slipped from a dislocated position into the acetabulum
positive Ortolani sign (hip dislocated, but reducible

59
Q

Barlow maneuver

A

determines whether the femoral head can be dislocated from the acetabulum
positive Barlow maneuver (hip reduced but dislocatable)

60
Q

cryptorchidism

A

Bilateral undescended testes; should descend by 36 weeks

61
Q

newborn behavioral states

A

deep sleep, light sleep, drowsiness, quiet alert, active alert, crying

62
Q

habituation

A

infant’s ability to decrease a response to a repeated stimulus

63
Q

retractions

A

negative intrapleural pressure generated by the contraction of the diaphragm and other respiratory muscles and the mechanical properties of the lungs and chest wall
stiff lungs cause more retractions

64
Q

lung developmental stages

A

EMBRYONIC: 4-7weeks, elongation, anatomic framework; 6 branchial arches and breathing structures
PSEUDOGLANDURAL: 6-16weeks: branching, lung components complete
CANALICULAR:16-26: primitive type I and II
SACCULAR: 24-36 alveolar sacs, gas exchange: type I and II; surfactant synthesis,
ALVEOLAR: 32-8 years saccular septation

65
Q

pulmonary vasculature

A

caudal

angiogenesis, vasculogenesis, fucion

66
Q

surfactant composition

A

phospholipids, proteins A and D-host defense immune system; B amd C disbursement of surfactant within the alveolus, fats

67
Q

decreased affinity to oxygen

A

shift to the right usually happens in postnatal period

less oxygen will remain bound to hemoglobin in the lungs as more is released to the tissues

68
Q

blood gases values

A 
pH 7.25-7.45
pO2 55-95
pCO2 27-45
HCO3 17-24
base -5/5+
FiO2 88-95%
69
Q

Congenital Lobar Emphysema

A

Cystic Lung Lesion; lobar overilflation; results in air trapping, mediastinal shift and compression of surroundings
long term: wheezing

70
Q

RDS patho

A

surfactant deficiency; atelectatic alveoli recult in ventilation to perfusion mismatch causing: cyanosis, impaired )2/CO2 exchange, increased pulmonary pressures, delay in
adaptation
xray: round glass, air bronchograms

71
Q

MAS patho

A

a ball-valve effect of obstruction by particulate meconium in the distal airways of the lung, inactivation of surfactant, and development of pneumonitis. Alveolar overdistension and gas trapping caused by meconium particles blocking the distal airways during expiration increases the risk of air leaks and may result in an increased anterior-to-posterior diameter, or barrel-chest appearance

72
Q

apnea types

A

the cessation of breathing for greater than 15-20 seconds.
central
obstructive
mixed

MCN568 (11 decks)

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