final exam week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Common metastatic sites for tumors (and s/s)
Lung –> (2)
s/s-

Colon–> (1)
s/s

liver, bone, brain?

A

Lung  bone, brain
Bone - pain
Brain – balance

Colon  liver
Liver - Enzymes, bleeding

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2
Q

biologic substances (hormones, enzymes, antigens or genes) shed off of some tumors and are measurable

A

tumor markers

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3
Q

Certain malignancies are associated with cancer inducing viruses – HPV, HIV, Hep B, Hep C

For any virus to live and propagate – it must insert its genes into the host cell’s genome

The host cell then becomes a manufacturer of the virus

MOA – always involve the activation of growth-promoting pathways or inhibition of tumors suppressors in infected cells

A

Viral induced cancer

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4
Q

T/F
1. Early post menopausal years – women experience greatest bone loss and it Continues at gradual rate
2. Women have lower peak bone density
3. Women lose more bone mass compared to men over a lifetime
4. Women reach fracture threshold later then men = increased risk fracture
5. For women
Bone reabsorbed by osteo__lasts > bone formed by osteo__lasts = decreased bone mass

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. T
  4. F - earlier
  5. Bone reabsorbed by osteoclasts > bone formed by osteoblasts = decreased bone mass
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5
Q

risk factors
- open fracture
- recent trauma
- DM
- Hemodialysis
- IV drug use
- Splenectomy

A

osteomyelitis

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6
Q

Gout phases
1. Phase 1 – symptoms?
-______ serum uric acid levels
-_______ deposits in tissues
-Crystals accumulate and ______ is damaged
-Acute ______ is triggered
2. Phase 2 – acute _____
-With hyperuricemia
3. Phase 3 – clinically ______
-Until next ______ occurs
-Continued hyperuricemia
-Could be months or years before next flare
-Later attacks get closer and closer
4. Phase 4 – ______ arthritis
-Joint pain and other s/s present most of the time

A

Gout phases
Phase 1 – asymptomatic
- Elevated serum uric acid levels
- Uric acid deposits in tissues
- Crystals accumulate and tissue is damaged
- Acute inflammation is triggered
Phase 2 – acute flares/attacks
- With hyperuricemia
Phase 3 – clinically inactive
- Until next flare occurs
- Continued hyperuricemia
- Could be months or years before next flare
- Later attacks get closer and closer
Phase 4 – chronic arthritis
- Joint pain and other s/s present most of the time

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7
Q

_______ are cells that build bone tissue

________ are cells that break down bone tissue.

A

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

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8
Q

Risk factors of what cancer?
- Obesity – inflammation causes changes to DNA
- Tobacco use
- Physical activity
- Insulin resistance
- Low fiber in the diet
- High amount of animal fat in the diet and processed meats
- Diets low in vitamin A, C, and E
- Ulcerative colitis – inflammation causes changes to DNA
- Alcohol

A

colorectal cancer

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9
Q

Carcinogen Classification
_________ - substances or agents that have been definitively linked to causing cancer in humans.
Examples include:
* Tobacco smoke
* Asbestos
* Alcohol
* Estrogen therapy
* Some viruses - HPV, HIV
________- substances or agents that are likely to cause cancer in humans, based on limited evidence.
Examples include:
* Women who work night shift
________ - substances or agents that may be carcinogenic to humans, but the evidence is not strong enough to classify them in another class.
Examples include:
* Engine exhaust

A

known
Probable
Possible

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10
Q

fracture complications: delayed healing
1. __________ - takes longer than expected to heal.
2. ________- fracture heals in an incorrect position or alignment.
3. _______ - no healing 4-6 months post fracture

malunion
delayed union
nonunion

A
  1. delayed union - takes longer than expected to heal.
  2. malunion - fracture heals in an incorrect position or alignment.
  3. nonunion - no healing 4-6 months post fracture
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11
Q

Osteoporosis patho
1. Increased bone resorption AKA osteo__last activity increased
2. Decreased bone formations AKA osteo__lasts activity decreased
3. Problems:
Failure to make new bone (osteo__lasts)
Too much bone resorption (osteo__lasts)
Both

A

Osteoporosis patho
1. Increased bone resorption AKA osteoclast activity increased
2. Decreased bone formations AKA osteoblasts activity decreased
3. Problems:
Failure to make new bone (osteoblasts)
Too much bone resorption (osteoclasts)
Both

Osteoclast – bone breakdown
Osteoblast – bone build

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12
Q
  • Disorder involves inflammation of one or more joints and then becomes arthritis
A

Arthropathy

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13
Q

colorectal cancer - T/F
1. Colon cancer usually starts as a polyp, a tumorous mass that projects into the intestinal lumen
2. polyps can be malignant or benign
3. Starting at age 50, colonoscopy q 10 years

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. T
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14
Q

which cancer
Etiology
- Cigarette smoking (promotor and cause)
- Passive smoke
- COPD – chronic inflammation makes mutation
- Asbestos – carcinogen
- Radon
- Arsenic
- Genetics
- other

A

lung

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15
Q

OA Etiology
- _______ applied to joint – weight bearing
- Degeneration of _______ – excessive load of healthy joint or normal loading of previously injured joint
- Chronic disease or acute flare?

A

OA Etiology
- Stress applied to joint – weight bearing
- Degeneration of cartilage – excessive load of helathy joint or normal loading of previously injured joint
- Chronic disease

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16
Q

cancer cells vs normal cells?
1. proliferation control
______ – zero population growth and apoptosis (normal death), so they have 1:1 ratio of cell death and birth = no population growth
______ – uncontrolled proliferation, sometimes cells are immortal, die unpredictably

2.proliferation rate
______– unpredictable (fast or slow), depends on differentiation
_____ – predictable

  1. self HLA antigens – how they determine something is self vs non-self
    _____ – present themselves to immune system and are recognized as self
    _____ – non-self markers, immune system may attack or sometimes they can avoid detection from immune system
A
  1. n,c
  2. c,n
  3. n,c
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17
Q

2 hereditary conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer:
- Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) - well defined hereditary disorder that predisposes an individual to intestinal _______
- Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) - without the extensive _______ formation seen in FAP.

A

FAP - with polyps
HNPCC - without polyps

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18
Q

s/s
local
- Tender, warm, red
- Wound drainage
- Restricted movement
- Spontaneous fracture
Systemic
- Fever
- Positive blood culture
- Leukocytosis (high WBC)

A

osteomyelitis

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19
Q

OA s/s
- Manifestations are asymmetrical or symmetrical?
- deep aching _____ pain – esp with exertion, relieved with rest
- joint pain with ____ weather
- stiffness in ______
- ______ of joint during motion
- joint swelling – hard or soft?
- ______ gait
- _____ range of motion

A

OA s/s
Manifestations are asymmetrical (RA is symmetrical)
- deep aching joint pain – esp with exertion, relieved with rest
- joint pain with cold weather
- stiffness in morning
- crepitus of joint during motion
- joint swelling – hard
- altered gait
- limited range of motion

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20
Q

_______tumor – cancer is located in site of origin

________tumor – cancer is located to a site that it spread to
- We know they have spread bc they will look like cells in the primary location
- Ex: lung cells in brain

A

primary
secondary

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21
Q

lupus acute flares =
cycle of acute exacerbation of ________, followed by _________

warning sign of _____
- fatigue
- pain
- h/a

prevention = recognize ______ and avoid ______
- sunlight
- infection
- abruptly stopping a medication
- stress

A

lupus acute flares
cycle of acute exacerbation of symptoms, followed by remission

warning sign of lupus flare up
- fatigue
- pain
- h/a

prevention – recognize warning signs and avoid triggers
- sunlight
- infection
- abruptly stopping a medication
- stress

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22
Q

Origin of cancer

A

Carcinogenesis

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23
Q

MOA
- Anti-inflammatory processes

Slows progression of RA when used with other DMARDs
slow/stop progression
used along or with methotrexate for early/mid RA

s/e
- Retinopathy

A

Hydroxychloroquine
DMARDS disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs
antimalarial
Anti-rhematic

treats RA

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24
Q

which cancer

  • Most present with advanced or metastatic cancer
  • Early dx is key to treatment
  • Common > 65 years and black
A

lung

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25
Q

fracture orientations
- __________ – straight line seen in falls
- _______ – twisting injury
- ________ – shattered
- _______ – pressure from both ends of bone
- _________ – incomplete break, beaks on one side but not all the way through, common in kids
- ________ – tiny cracks in bone

impacted
greenstick
transverse
comminuted
stress
spiral

A

fracture orientations
- transverse – straight line seen in falls
- spiral – twisting injury
- comminuted – shattered
- impacted – pressure from both ends of bone
- greenstick – incomplete break, beaks on one side but not all the way through, common in kids
- stress – tiny cracks in bone

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26
Q

lung tumor secretion of ACTH
resembles MSH – patient may have tanned skin

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome

associated with lung cancer

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27
Q

OA vs RA!!!
___ – asymmetrical manifestations
____ – symmetrical manifestations
___ swelling – hard
___ swelling – spongy and warm

A

*** know OA vs RA!!!
OA – asymmetrical manifestations
RA – symmetrical manifestations
OA swelling – hard
RA swelling – spongy and warm

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28
Q

class: Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
drug: Raloxifene

treatment for?

A

osteoporosis

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29
Q

Cell spectrum
_________- – the extent that neoplastic cells resemble normal cells (structurally and functionally)

Ex: ______ tumors are well differentiated = looks and functions like normal cell

________ – lack of differentiation, indicates total cellular disorganization, abnormal cell appearance, and cell dysfunction

Ex: _______ cells/tumors = totally different look and function than a normal cell

A

Differentiation
benign

Anaplasia
malignant

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30
Q

s/s of what cancer
- cough
- hemoptysis – blood in sputum
- wheeze or stridor
- chest pain
- dyspnea
- weight loss
- excessive fatigue
- Weakness
- Hoarseness
- Obstructive accumulation of secretions in the bronchioles that appear as pneumonia s/s
- Asymptomatic – may find tumor accidentally on CXR for something else
- Paraneoplastic syndrome (group of symptoms) may be the 1st sign

A

lung cancer

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31
Q

Cancer genetics
T/F
1. All cancers originate from changes in DNA
2. Normal cell gene mutations = cancer cells
3. Gene mutations can be
- ________ – ex: BRCA gene
- ________ – acquired during person’s life - ex: carcinogen exposure
4. Immune systems are effective at killing mutated cells
But as we age, out immune system isn’t as effective
Mutated cells may go unnoticed
That’s why Older adults have increased risk for developing cancer

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. hereditary, sporadic
  4. T
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32
Q

assessment findings
- joint deformity
- joint tenderness
- decreased ROM
- herbedens nodes – distal finger (interphalangeal) joints crooked
- bouchards nodes – proximal finger (interphalangeal) joints are crooked

A

osteoarthritis

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33
Q

lung cancer types

__________– most common
- slow growing

____________
- rapidly growing
- metastasizes quickly

small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
non small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)

A

types
non small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) – most common
- slow growing

small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
- rapidly growing
- metastasizes quickly

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34
Q

Most joint disorders affect _______ joints (moveable joints)

A

synovial

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35
Q

______ are proteins found on the surface of cells. They play a crucial role in the immune system’s ability to distinguish between “self” and “non-self” cells. So the immune system can target foreign invaders like viruses, bacteria, and cancer cells.

______ cells present their HLA antigens to the immune system. These antigens act as identification tags, allowing the immune system to recognize them as “self” and avoid attacking them.

______ cells can exhibit abnormal or altered HLA antigens. These deviations from normal self-antigens can trigger an immune response. but some are able to evade detection by the immune system through various mechanisms.

A

Human Leukocyte Antigens (HLAs)

normal

cancer

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36
Q

fracture complications: fat embolism syndrome
1. type of __________
2. fat molecules block blood vessels in the ______
3. occurs following:
______ BONE FRACTURE (most common) or Major trauma
4. How do fat molecules in legs get to lungs?
- Fat molecules are from _______ or ________
- Released into blood stream and travel to lungs
5. s/s
o hypoxemia
o altered LOC
o petechial rash

A

fracture complications: fat embolism syndrome
1. type of PE
2. fat molecules block blood vessels in the lungs following
3. LONG BONE FRACTURE- big bones in legs most common or Major trauma
4. How do fat molecules in legs get to lungs?
- Fat molecules are from bone marrow or traumatized tissue
- Released into blood stream and travel to lungs
5. s/s
o hypoxemia
o altered LOC
o petechial rash

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37
Q

Carcinogens
T/F
1. Substances that cause development of cancer
2. Often require prolonged exposure
3. Can alter cell DNA = mutation
4. Damage from carcinogens are not cumulative
5. Agents can be carcinogen (cause), promoter, or both

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. T
  4. F - is cumulative
  5. T
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38
Q

drug treatment for OA
NSAIDS!!!
- Use _______ effective dose possible
- Can affect _______ function
- Risk for ______ , Risk increased with aging

o Contraindication (1)
o Use with caution (2)
hx of GI bleed
on coag therapy
has PUD

A

NSAIDS!!!
- Use lowest effective dose possible
- Can affect kidney function
- Risk for GI bleed
o Risk increased with aging
o Contraindication – PUD patient
o Use with caution – hx of GI bleed or on coag therapy

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39
Q

Hydroxychloroquine
DMARDS disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs
antimalarial
Anti-rhematic

treats?

A

RA and lupus

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40
Q

what are tumor markers useful for? (4)

A
  • Screen for cancer: For example, PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is used to screen for prostate cancer.
  • Diagnose cancer: If a tumor marker is elevated, it may indicate the presence of cancer. However, further testing is usually needed to confirm a diagnosis.
  • Monitor the progress of cancer treatment: Tumor marker levels can be monitored over time to see if the treatment is effective.
  • Detect recurrence of cancer: If a tumor marker level rises after treatment, it may indicate that the cancer has returned.
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41
Q

Reduces risk of spinal fractures

MOA – mimics estrogen by increasing bone density, inhibits bone resorption

Used as prevention and treatment

s/e
- Hot flash
- Leg cramping

BLACK BOX WARNING
- Stroke risk

Teaching
- Must take adequate calcium and vitamin D replacement for it to work
- d/c at least 72 hours before planned procedures, any prolonged immobilization periods, high risk of blood clotting
- don’t smoke or drink alcohol
- don’t use if pregnant

A

Raloxifene
Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)

for osteoporosis

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42
Q
  • Biologic response modifiers
  • Target parts of the immune system that trigger inflammation that cause joint and tissue damage
  • Usually given with methotrexate
  • Can increase risk of severe skin or lung infections, skin cancer, serious allergic reactions
  • Very expensive
A

Biologic agents

Newer generation of DMARDS disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs

treats RA

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43
Q

metastasis - T/F
1. Cancer cells can travel by lymph, blood, or shed off into local area
2. But it has to have its own blood supply
3. Cancer cells are suited for this bc they secrete vascular endothelial growth factor (gives them ability to develop new blood vessels)

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. T
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44
Q

OM Patho
- Arterial blood flow brings _______ into bone
- _________ = inflammation, bone destruction, pus and edema
- Pressure __creases within the bone
- Causes local arteries to _________
- Decreases or eliminates supply of
o ________
o ________
o _________
- Leads to impaired healing – b/c hard to get _________ to sight of infection, difficult to treat

A
  • Arterial blood flow brings bacteria into bone
  • Infection = inflammation, bone destruction, pus and edema
  • Pressure increases within the bone
  • Causes local arteries to collapse
  • Decreases or eliminates supply of
    o Oxygen
    o Nutrition
    o Immune cells
  • Leads to impaired healing – b/c Antibiotics hard to get to sight of infection, difficult to treat
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45
Q

class: Hormone therapy
drugs:
- Calcitonin-salmon
- HRT – no longer used

treatment for?

A

osteoporosis

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46
Q

vascular spread - T/F
1. Cancer cells can enter the bloodstream and travel to distant organs.
2. The cancer cells leave the bloodstream and invade the tissues of a new organ and penetrate local veins
3. ________- The cancer cells stimulate the growth of new blood vessels to support their growth and survival.
4. Often cancer cells in the bloodstream go to the ____ first – bc the_____ filters blood
5. The _______ is also often a secondary site – for the same reason
6. The cancer cells get clumped, trapped and proliferate in the ____

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. Angiogenesis
  4. liver
  5. liver
  6. liver
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47
Q

NSAIDS
Work by reducing production of________ which promote pain, inflammation, fever
1. Cell damage occurs
2. NSAID arrives
3. _____ is blocked
4. Fewer ________ produced
5. Pain, inflammation, and fever are reduced

A

Work by reducing production of prostaglandins which promote pain, inflammation, fever
1. Cell damage occurs
2. NSAID arrives
3. COX is blocked
4. Fewer prostaglandins produced
5. Pain, inflammation, and fever are reduced

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48
Q

cancer classification systems: TNM system

  1. N - lymph node involvement/spread
    N0 =

N1 = spread to _____ lymph nodes or spread to ____ number of regional lymph nodes

N2 = spread to______ lymph nodes or spread to ______ regional lymph nodes

A

N - lymph node involvement/spread
N0 = no spread to regional lymph nodes

N1 = spread to closest lymph nodes or spread to small number of regional lymph nodes

N2 = spread to most distant lymph nodes or spread to numerous regional lymph nodes

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49
Q

cancer cell or normal cell?
1. No resting stage (Stage G0) - _____ cells are constantly moving through cell cycle stages
2. No checkpoints – for DNA to recognize errors and apoptosis (normal cell death)
3. No regard for growth inhibitors – released by neighboring cells, this prevents cells from invading eachother’s space. _____ cells will just grow on top of each other

A
  1. C
  2. C
  3. C - As cancer cells proliferate
    o they accumulate on top, around, and beside each other
    o take over boundaries of organs
    o crowd out normal cells
    o may break free and travel to distant body sites
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50
Q

Osteoporosis pharm
Classes:
____________
- Aldendronate
____________
- Raloxifene
___________
- Calcitonin-salmon
- HRT – no longer used

A

Osteoporosis pharm
Classes:
Bisphosphonates
- Aldendronate
Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
- Raloxifene
Hormone therapy
- Calcitonin-salmon
- HRT – no longer used

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51
Q

Gout patho
1. Body makes _____ AND it is also in our diet
2. ______ crystals form from the breakdown of purines
3. Normally uric acid dissolves in the blood and excreted by the _______
4. _________ – overproduction or under excretion of uric acid
5. Uric acid crystal deposits in _______!!!

A

Gout patho
1. Body makes purine AND purine is in diet
2. Urice acid crystals form from the breakdown of purines
3. Normally uric acid dissolves in the blood and excreted by the kidneys
4. Hyperuricemia – overproduction or under excretion of uric acid
5. Uric acid crystal deposits in tissues!!!

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52
Q
  1. Normal bone density
  2. ________ – low bone mass (-1 - -2.5)
  3. __________– very low bone mass (-2.5)
  4. __________ – extremely low bone – fragility fracture can occur (standing causes broken bone)

Osteoporosis, Severe osteoporosis, Osteopenia

A
  1. Normal bone density
  2. Osteopenia – low bone mass
  3. Osteoporosis – very low bone mass
  4. Severe osteoporosis – extremely low bone – fragility fracture can occur (standing causes broken bone)
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53
Q

T/F
1. BRCA is a tumor marker
2. BRCA is a gene that can increase a person’s risk of developing breast or ovarian cancer.
3. If you have a mutation in the BRCA gene, you are at a higher risk of developing these cancers.
4. having a BRCA mutation means you will definitely develop cancer

A
  1. F
  2. T
  3. T
  4. F - not definite, just increased
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54
Q

Gout Etiology
Hyperuricemia
-____ production of uric acid
-_____ excretion of uric acid

A

Gout Etiology
Hyperuricemia
- Over production of uric acid
- Under excretion of uric acid

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55
Q

Common metastatic sites for tumors (and s/s)

Breast –> (4)
s/s -

Prostate –> (1)
s/s -

Melanoma –> (1)
s/s -

brain, brain, vertebrae, bone, liver, lung

A

Breast  bone, brain, liver, lung
Bone - pain
Brain – balance
Liver - Enzymes, bleeding
Lung – bloody sputum, coughing

Prostate  vertebrae
Vertebrae – back pain

Melanoma  brain
Brain – balance

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56
Q

Predisposing factors
- genetic
- female
- age 20-40
- black
- environmental triggers
- allergy to abx
- hormonal factors – menarche > 10 y/o, oral contraceptives
- tobacco use

A

Lupus

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57
Q

RA Pharm
goals:
1. Relieve pain and swelling
2. Slow or stop progression of disease

Long term drug therapy requires patient adherence
- _________
-__________ – short term
-_________– slow/stop progression

A
  • NSAIDS
  • Glucocorticoids – short term
  • DMARDS disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs – slow/stop progression
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58
Q

sequence of growth stages that a cell moves through for mitosis and regeneration

A

Cell cycle –

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59
Q

OA patho
- Prolonged excess pressure on joint wears _______
- _______ bone is exposed
- leads to _____ development, which moves through remaining cartilage and destroys the rest of the cartilage
- localized ________ leads to more degradation
- chondrocytes synthesize ______ called proteoglycans to try and repair – causes swelling
- osteoblasts (build bone) activation leads to ________ and synovial fluid thickening (they are trying to fix but cause more damage)
- loss of _______ narrows the joint space (bone on bone)

A

OA patho
- Prolonged excess pressure on joint wears cartilage
- subchondral bone is exposed
- leads to cyst development
- cysts move through remaining cartilage and destroys the rest of the cartilage
- localized inflammations leads to more degradation
- chondrocytes synthesize fluid called proteoglycans to try and repair – causes swelling
- osteoblasts (build bone) activation leads to bone spurs and synovial fluid thickening (they are trying to fix but cause more damage)
- loss of cartilage narrows the joint space

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60
Q

__________ tumors
Need nutrients, oxygen, and access to blood

Angiogenesis - The cancer cells stimulate the growth of new blood vessels to support their growth and survival.

A

Secondary tumors

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61
Q

fracture complications: delayed healing
1. delayed union - takes longer than expected to heal.

s/s
 bone pain and tenderness increase

risk factors
 smoking
 age?
 severe anemia
 infection
 malnutrition
 low vitamins
 _____thyroid
 uncontrolled DM
 ___________ break

A

 smoking
 older adult
 severe anemia
 infection
 malnutrition
 low vitamins
 hypothyroid
 uncontrolled DM
 complicated break

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62
Q

cancer classification systems: stages
1. Stage 1
-Small
-No _____ involvement
-Confined to organ of_____
2. Stage 2
- > 3 cm
- _____ local lymph nodes involved
- ______ invasive
3. Stage 3
- _____ number of regional lymph nodes involved
- Regional spread to _____ organs/structures
4. Stage 4
- Spread to_____ sites (metastasis)

A

Stage 1
- Small
- No lymph node involvement
- Confined to organ of origin
Stage 2
- > 3 cm
- Some local lymph nodes involved
- Locally invasive
Stage 3
- Large number of regional lymph nodes involved
- Regional spread to nearby organs/structures
Stage 4
- Spread to distant sites (metastasis)

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63
Q

slow/stop progression of RA

MOA – immunosuppressive

Route
- PO
- SQ
- IV

s/e
- GI
- Bone marrow suppression
- Shortened life expectancy

Teaching
- 11 BLACK BOX WARNINGS
- Patient needs folic acid supplementation
- NO alcohol
- Teratogenic – NEVER ok for pregnant
- High risk of infection – contact HCP if s/s of infection
- Caution with liver and kidney disease
- Aplastic anemia risk when using with NSAIDS
- Given weekly – death can occur if given daily

A

Methotrexate
DMARDS disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs
Antineoplastic
Anti-rhematic

treats RA

64
Q

breast cancer
- Most develop from lining in ducts
- _____expressed estrogen receptors (ER-pos)
- _____expressed human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER2)
- Promote mammograms

A
  • Most develop from lining in ducts
  • Overexpressed estrogen receptors (ER-pos)
  • Overexpressed human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER2)
  • Promote mammograms
65
Q

risk factors
- Obesity
- Pre-exisitng disease – HTN, DM, renal disease, sickle cell anemia
- Alcohol
- Diet rich in meats and seafood - organ meats, shellfish, anchovies, herring, asparagus, mushrooms
- Diuretics
- Male
- Black

A

Gout

66
Q

2nd line

MOA
Reduces inflammatory response to the deposits or urate crystals in joint tissues

Powerful inhibitor of cell mitosis and can cause short term leukopenia and bone marrow suppression

Indications
- Gout flares short term
- Prophylaxis

s/e
- Gi bleed
- GU bleed

Contraindications
- Sever renal disorder
- GI disorder
- Hepatic disorder
- Cardiac disorder
- Bleeding disorder

Route – PO only

vomiting = toxicity, stop med

A

Colchicine

for gout

67
Q

Degeneration of joints caused by aging and stress
- Most common disability in US

A

Osteoarthritis (OA)

68
Q

A progressive disease
- Intensifying inflammatory response
- Cartilage destroyed by osteoclasts
- Pannus (scar tissue) develops
- Inflammation and exuberant proliferation of synovium (hypertrophied synovium)
- Pannus leads to
o Bone erosion
o Bone cysts
o Fissure development

A

RA

69
Q

Bone mineral density 2.5 standard deviations below peak bone mass (measured with a DEXA scan, results reported in a T score)

A

Osteoporosis

70
Q

-raynaud’s phenomena – cold temp restricts blood flow to fingers

-butterfly rash – on face

A

lupus

71
Q

OA vs RA
s/s
_______
Early:
-Very little
-Maybe joint pain
Late :
-symetrical
-Pain, tenderness
-Stiffness
-Motion limitation
-Inflammation
-Heat
-Swelling – spongy warm
Advanced:
-Deformity
-Disability
-Joint subluxation - partial dislocation of a joint

________
-deep aching joint pain – esp with exertion, relieved with rest
-joint pain with cold weather
-stiffness in morning
-crepitus of joint during motion
-joint swelling – hard
-altered gait
-limited range of motion
assessment findings
-joint deformity
-joint tenderness
-decreased ROM
-herbedens nodes – distal finger (interphalangeal) joints crooked
-bouchards nodes – proximal finger (interphalangeal) joints are crooked

A

RA

OA

72
Q

cancer cell vs normal cell?
1. contact inhibition
_____ – respect space
______- no regard to cell space

  1. cohesiveness
    _______– stay in their spot, ex: cardiac cells don’t go to liver
    _______ – metastasize, cells will go anywhere
  2. communication
    ______ - little to no communication
    ______ – communicate
A
  1. n, c
  2. n, c
  3. c, n
73
Q

Are tumor markers always used as diagnostic?

if not - whats an ex

A

Not always:

some non-malignant diseases also produce increased tumor marker levels
- PSA prostate specific antigen are increased in both malignant cancers and benign prostate conditions like BPH.

74
Q

Agents that help promote development of cancer
Help mutated gene proliferate
Ex:
- Diet high in fat
- Alcohol
- Tobacco (carcinogen and promoter)
- Hormones – estrogen (carcinogen and promoter)

A

Promoters

75
Q

cancer cells - T/F
1. large # of dividing cells
2. large, variably shaped nuclei
3. large nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
4. variation in size and shape
5. normal cell features
6. disorganized arrangement
7. defined tumor boundary

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. T
  4. T
  5. F - loss of normal cell features
  6. T
  7. F - poorly defined
76
Q

________ Involves:
- Genes – disorder of gene expression
- Carcinogens
- Promoters

A

Carcinogenesis - Origin of cancer

77
Q

Joint parts
_____ – bone just under cartilage
_____– covers bone of the joint, allows smooth and slipper surface for free joint movement
_____– space between joint bones, fluid that lubricates joint surface and removes debris
_______ – surrounds joints, unites joint bones

Synovium
Subchondral bone plate
Joint capsule
Articular cartilage

A

Joint parts
- Subchondral bone plate – bone just under cartilage
- Articular cartilage– covers bone of the joint, allows smooth and slipper surface for free joint movement
- Synovium – space between joint bones, fluid that lubricates joint surface and removes debris
- Joint capsule – surrounds joints, unites joint bones

78
Q

Benign vs malignant tumors
1. remain clustered and can be removed
2. metastasize or break away, and can form more tumors
3. well differentiated, resembles tissues of origin
4. poorly differentiated, does not resemble tissue of origin, “anaplastic”
5. erratic, slow to rapid Rate of growth
6. progressive, slow Rate of growth
7. invasive and infiltrating, surrounding normal tissue
8. cohesive cells, well demarcated tumors, often encapsulated making it removeable
9. no metastasis
10. frequent metastasis
11. no necrosis in Tumor core
12. can have necrotic tumor core, hard to get treatment to this

A
  1. B
  2. M
  3. B
  4. M
  5. M
  6. B
  7. M
  8. B
  9. B
  10. M
  11. B
  12. M
79
Q

fracture s/s
at site of bone fracture = PED

A
  • pain
  • edema
  • deformity – loss of function, abnormal mobility
80
Q

An inflammatory disease resulting from deposits of uric acid crystals in tissues and fluids within the body (Metabolic problem)

A

Arthritis: Gout
Gouty arthritis

81
Q

osteomyelitis

  1. _________ brings bacteria into bone
  2. _________ = inflammation, bone destruction, pus and edema
  3. Pressure __creases
  4. Ischemia necrosis
  5. Osteo__lasts lay new bone around old bone
  6. Infection is isolated
A
  1. Arterial blood flow brings bacteria into bone
  2. Infection = inflammation, bone destruction, pus and edema
  3. Pressure increases
  4. Ischemia necrosis
  5. Osteoblasts law new bone around old bone
  6. Infection is isolated
82
Q

open = compound
closed = simple

  1. fractured bone penetrates skin?
  2. fractured bone doesn’t break through skin?
A

open = compound
- fractured bone penetrates skin
closed = simple
- fractured bone doesn’t break through skin

83
Q

fracture complications: delayed healing

what could weight bearing too soon cause?

  1. delayed union - takes longer than expected to heal.
  2. malunion - fracture heals in an incorrect position or alignment.
  3. nonunion - no healing 4-6 months post fracture
A
  1. malunion - fracture heals in an incorrect position or alignment.
84
Q

biologic agents

A

treats RA

85
Q

Lupus Patho
1. ________ are hyperactive and produce autoantibodies (ANA: antinuclear antibody)
2. Activated against _____
3. _________ form - They can impact all major organ systems
4. Inflammatory response destroys any tissues that they land on – common spot is ______

A

Lupus Patho
1. B-lymphocytes are hyperactive and produce autoantibodies (ANA: antinuclear antibody)
2. Activated against DNA
3. Immune complexes form - They can impact all major organ systems
4. Inflammatory response destroys any tissues that they land on – common spot is kidneys

86
Q

any break in the continuity of bone that occurs when more stress is placed on the bone that it is able to absorb

A

fractures

87
Q

Osteomyelitis pharm
1. Obtain culture
2. what type of abx first?
- Nafcillin
- Cefazolin
- Vancomycin – sometimes continuous infusions, other times direct therapy such as infusing abx though a wound vac
3. what type of abx are we switching to?

A

2.Empiric abx therapy - administration of antibiotics based on the most likely diagnosis, b/c

3.Switch to bacteria-specific therapy

88
Q

Systemic involvement in ____
-Fatigue and malaise
-Could affect any and all body systems – if severe enough

(Most common)
-SJORGRENS SYNDROME – destruction of moisture producing gland (salivary and lacrimal) – dry mouth and eyes
-Rheumatoid nodules – immune mediated granulomas, develop around inflamed joints, SQ and firm, maybe painful

A

RA

89
Q

risk factors
- Aging
- Obesity
- Hx of long term participation in team sports
- Hx of trauma or overuse joints
- Heavy occupational work
- Repetitive work
- Misalignment of pelvis, hip, knee, ankle or foot

A

OA

90
Q

OA drug treatment
Mild to moderate
- ________
- topical ________ - heat sensation
- _______ - OTC
Moderate to severe
- ______ – Rx strength
- _______ + colchicine
- __________ + tramadol
- Opioids
- Steroid injections into joint

A

Mild to moderate
- acetaminophen
- topical capsaicin - heat sensation
- NSAIDS - OTC
Moderate to severe
- NSAIDS – Rx strength
- NSAIDS + colchicine
- Acetaminophen + tramadol
- Opioids
- Steroid injections into joint

91
Q

Common joints affected by OA (3 are usually spared)
T/F
- Cervical spine – neck
- Lumbosacral spine – lower back
- Hip
- knees
- elbows
- wrists
- Hands
- Big toe – first metatarsal phalangeal joint
- ankle

A
  • Cervical spine – neck
  • Lumbosacral spine – lower back
  • Hip
  • knees
    X- elbows
    X- wrists
  • Hands
  • Big toe – first metatarsal phalangeal joint
    X- ankle
92
Q

Reduces fractures

MOA – binds permanently to surfaces of bones to inhibit osteoclast activity (reduce bone breakdown)

s/e
- GI issues – n/v/d
- Esophageal ulcerations

Teaching
- Take with water
- Don’t take with food, drinks (other than water), calcium or vitamins for 2 hours – very low bioavailability
- Don’t lie down for 30 mins after taking – esophageal ulcers

A

class: Bisphosphonates
drug: Aldendronate

treatment for osteoporosis

93
Q

large hard nodules composed of uric acid crystals deposited in soft tissues
o May form below the skin around the joints
o Can cause a local inflammatory response
o May drain chalky material

A

Gout complications: Tophi

94
Q

Clinical course of cervical cancer
1. Long or short asymptomatic period before the disease becomes evident?
2. Commonly an abnormal ____ test alerts to the cancer

A

long
pap

95
Q

acute or chronic pyogenic (pus producing) infection of bone

A

osteomyelitis

96
Q

Thinning of the trabecular matrix of the bone before osteoporosis
T score between -1 - -2.5

A

Osteopenia

97
Q

Implantation vs Seeding ?
________– tumor erods and shed into body cavities
Ex: liver into abdominal cavity

________– direct expansion of the tumor to an adjoining tissue
Ex: prostate cancer into bladder cancer

A

Seeding – tumor erods and shed into body cavities
Ex: liver into abdominal cavity

Implantation – direct expansion of the tumor to an adjoining tissue
Ex: prostate cancer into bladder cancer

98
Q

_________ spread
- Cancer cells can enter the lymphatic system and travel to other parts of the body.
- Cancer calls can get trapped in lymph nodes
- 3 possible scenarios
o Death
o Dormancy
o Flourish/proliferate = they work their way through the lymph system node to node, and move around the body

A

lymphatic

99
Q

fracture complications
- delayed _________
- __________ impairment
- _________ syndrome
- _________ syndrome

A

fracture complications
- delayed healing
- bone growth impairment
- compartment syndrome
- fat embolism syndrome

100
Q

XOE inhibitor

MOA – inhibits the xanthine oxidase enzyme which prevents uric acid production

Indications
- Gout is r/t excess uric acid production (hyperuricemia)
- Prevention only

s/e
- Agranulocytosis
- Aplastic anemia
- Fatal skin reactions – SJS/TENS

Monitor
- WBC
- CBC

Drug interactions
- Increases effect of antidiabetic meds and warfarin when taken with allupurinol

Monitor
- Sugar and INR levels

A

Allupurinol

for gout

101
Q

2 major classes of cancer genes:

  1. _____________
    - Normally function to restrain cell growth (brake pedal)
  2. _______________
    - Genes that stimulate and regulate a cell’s movement through the cell cycle = cellular growth and proliferation (gas pedal)

Tumor suppressor genes
Proto-Oncogenes

A

Tumor suppressor genes
Proto-Oncogenes

102
Q

Osteoporosis pharm
Goal = reduce _______
Prevention
- _________
- vitamin ___
Treatment with drugs
- __crease bone formation
- __crease bone resorption – most common

A

Osteoporosis pharm
Goal = reduce fractures
Prevention
- Calcium
- Vitamin D
Treatment
- Promote bone formation
- Decrease bone resorption – most common

103
Q

osteomyelitis Route of contamination
Direct or indirect?
- Open wound – gunshot, puncture/stabbing, surgery/sternotomy
- Open fracture
- Surgery/insertion of metal plates or screws
Direct or Indirect?
- From bloodstream – most common
- Bacteremia

A

Direct
- Open wound – gunshot, puncture/stabbing, surgery/sternotomy
- Open fracture
- Surgery/insertion of metal plates or screws
Indirect
- From bloodstream – most common
- Bacteremia

104
Q

non drug OA treamtents –
1. Dietary supplement
o Chondroitin sulfate
o Glucosamine
2. Artificial joint _____
o Contains hyaluronic acid
3. ______ replacement - Arthroplasty

A

Other treamtents –
- Dietary supplement
o Chondroitin sulfate
o Glucosamine
- Artificial joint fluid
o Contains hyaluronic acid
- Joint replacement - Arthroplasty

105
Q

lupus pharm
goal = control symptoms

agents used depend on system involved
-________ = h/a, musculoskeletal, pleuritis, pericarditis
-High or low dose corticosteroids? = severe kidney disease, CNS
-High or low dose corticosteroids? = arthritis
- Antimalarials (_________) = skin, musculoskeletal, prevention of kidney and CNS organ damage
-Immunosuppressives (________) = severe organ involvement

A

lupus pharm
goal = control symptoms

agents used depend on system involved
- NSAIDS = h/s, musculoskeletal, pleuritis, pericarditis
- High dose corticosteroids = severe kidney disease, CNS
- Low dose corticosteroids = arthritis
- Antimalarials (hydroxychloroquine) = skin, musculoskeletal, prevention of kidney and CNS organ damage
- Immunosuppressives (methotrexate) = severe organ involvement

106
Q

tumor markers may be measured in (4) substances

A
  • Blood
  • Urine
  • CSF
  • tumor plasma membrane
107
Q

3 causes of fractures

A
  • trauma – fall
  • fatigue – repeated prolonged stress, endurance, stress fracture
  • pathologic – weakened bone, possible spontaneous, eldery highest risk, osteoporosis, bone tumors, infection, fragility fracture
108
Q

_______ s/s
Early
- Very little
- Maybe joint pain
Late
- Symmetrical (OA is asymmetrical)
- Pain, tenderness
- Stiffness
- Motion limitation
- Inflammation
- Heat
- Swelling – spongy warm
Advanced
- Deformity
- Disability
- Joint subluxation

A

RA

109
Q

Same process as OsteoA (Prolonged excess pressure on joint wears cartilage) but specific to spinal cord

Commonly results in pain, motor weakness, and neuropathy

Most often occurs in lumbar or cervical spine

A

Arthritis: Degenerative disc disease (DDD)

110
Q

Osteoporosis complications
Hip fracture
- Linked to increased risk of mortality – r/t _________
- More common in >65 y/o, women, in ______ bone proximal/high up towards hip
- Loss of independent living

A

complications

femur

111
Q

fracture complications: delayed healing

what could
 poor blood supply
 repetitive stress
 diabetes
 infection
cause?

  1. delayed union - takes longer than expected to heal.
  2. malunion - fracture heals in an incorrect position or alignment.
  3. nonunion - no healing 4-6 months post fracture
A
  1. nonunion - no healing 4-6 months post fracture
112
Q

s/s
-extreme fatigue
-photosensitivity
-butterfly rash – on face
-fever
-weight changes
-unusual hair loss
-edema – legs, eyes
-raynaud’s phenomena – cold temp restricts blood flow to fingers

s/s also depends on what tissue the immune complexes land on
-CNS (brain) – h/a, dizzy, seizure, stoke
-heart – myocarditis and endocarditis
-lungs – pleuritis, pleural effusions
-kidneys – nephritis
-blood vessels – vasculitis
-blood – anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, blood clots
-joints – arthritis

A

lupus

113
Q

osteoporosis
Risk factors
Minor
- ______ frame
- Lack of ______ exercises
- Lack of _____ or vitamin ___
- Eating disorders – malnutrition
- Gastric bypass surgery – malnutrition
- ______ of estrogen/testosterone
- Excessive caffeine
Major
- Aging
- Female, especially post menopausal
- White
- Hx of adult fracture
- Family hx
- Body weight < 127lbs
- Smoking
- Alcohol
- _______ and _______ drugs

A

Risk factors
Minor
- Thin small frame
- Lack of weight bearing exercises
- Lack of calcium or vitamin D
- Eating disorders – malnutrition
- Gastric bypass surgery – malnutrition
- Lack of estrogen/testosterone
- Excessive caffeine
Major
- Aging
- Female, especially post menopausal
- White
- Hx of adult fracture
- Family hx
- Body weight < 127lbs
- Smoking
- Alcohol
- Steroids use and immunosuppressant drugs

114
Q

s/s of what cancer
- Single tumor
- Nontender tumor
- Firm tumor
- Irregular borders
- Adherence to the skin or chest wall
- Upper, outer quadrant of breast
- Nipple discharge
- Swelling in one breast
- Nipple or skin retraction
- Peau d’orange – thickening of skin that resembles an orange peel
- Paget’s disease of the breast – redness, crusting, pruritis, tenderness of nipple

A

breast cancer

115
Q

open = _____
- fractured bone penetrates skin
closed = _____
- fractured bone doesn’t break through skin

compound vs simple

A

open = compound
- fractured bone penetrates skin
closed = simple
- fractured bone doesn’t break through skin

116
Q

BRCA genes - T/F
1. Genetic testing for mutated genes BRCA 1 and BRCA 2
2. Can be preformed in high risk pts with a strong family hx of breast or ovarian carcinoma
3. Many women with BRCA mutated genes choose to have preventative mastectomy and oophorectomy (removal of ovaries)

A
  1. T
  2. T
  3. T
117
Q

Immune surveillance
- Our immune system constantly surveys the body for foreign substances/non self antigens
- When a non self antigen is _________ = the immune system initiates an attack to destroy the invading substance
- With age, the immune system gets ______ and tumor development becomes ______

A

Immune surveillance
- Our immune system constantly surveys the body for foreign substances/non self antigens
- When a non self antigen is discovered = the immune system initiates an attack to destroy the invading substance
- With age, the immune system gets weaker and tumor development becomes easier

118
Q

Osteoporosis
- Porous bone
- Common
- Serious disease
- Low bone density and structural (micro-architectural) deterioration of the bone
- Usually bones in the hips, vertebrae, and wrists (____________ bones)
- “osteoporosis” used when __________ have occurred
- Increase in bone fragility
- High susceptibility to fracture

A
  • Porous bone
  • Common
  • Serious disease
  • Low bone density and structural (micro-architectural) deterioration of the bone
  • Usually bones in the hips, vertebrae, and wrists (trabecular bones)
  • “osteoporosis” used when actual breaks in trabecular matrix have occurred
  • Increase in bone fragility
  • High susceptibility to fracture
119
Q

Cancer cells form disorganized clumps called

A

tumors

120
Q

cancer classification systems: malignant tumors can be
- grade 1 - cells are _____ differentiated
- grade 2 – cells are ______ differentiated
- grade 3 – _____ differentiated or anaplastic cells

A
  • grade 1 - cells are well differentiated
  • grade 2 – cells are moderately differentiated
  • grade 3 – poorly differentiated or anaplastic cells
121
Q

fracture complications: compartment syndrome
1. seen with
o crush injuries
o casts – watch for ______
2. results from
o compression – increased _______ within limited anatomic space
3. _________ effect
o edema at fracture site puts intense pressure on soft tissue
o decreased perfusion
o can lead to tissue hypoxia of muscles and nerves
4. s/s
o FVD or FVE?
o ________ pulses
o pain (again)
4. treatment
o __________ – relieves pressure and improves circulation

A

fracture complications: compartment syndrome
1. seen with
o crush injuries
o casts – watch for swelling
2. results from
o compression – increased pressure within limited anatomic space
3. tourniquet effect
o edema at fracture site puts intense pressure on soft tissue
o decreased perfusion
o can lead to tissue hypoxia of muscles and nerves
4. s/s
o edema
o loss or weakened pulses
o pain (again)
5. treatment
o fasciotomy – relieves pressure and improves circulation

122
Q

________ is any joint that allows movement

A

Synovial/diarthrodial joint

123
Q

lung cancer Patho
1. carcinogen overload and/or genetic predisposition
2. _____ is killed or paralyzed – carcinogen accumulation b/c _____ isn’t sweeping it away
3. _____ development and mutations
4. progress to cancer
5. activation of _______
6. _______ of tumor suppressor genes
7. rapid proliferation/destruction/invasion of mutated cancer cells

A

Patho
1. carcinogen overload and/or genetic predisposition
2. cilia is killed or paralyzed – carcinogen accumulation b/c cilia isn’t sweeping it away
3. lesion development and mutations
4. progress to cancer
5. activation of oncogenes
6. deactivation of tumor suppressor genes
7. rapid proliferation/destruction/invasion of mutated cancer cells

124
Q

fracture complications: bone growth impairment
- age?
- fracture through epiphyseal plate
- can delay ______ bone growth

A

fracture complications: bone growth impairment
- pediatric consideration
- fracture through epiphyseal plate
- can delay future bone growth

125
Q

Types of HPV
- ________ – causes a persistent infection that progresses to cervical cancer
- ________ – causes condylomas (genital warts), does not cause cervical cancer

T/F - Almost 100% of people with cervical cancer also have HPV

A

High risk
Low risk

T

126
Q

Gout pharm
Goal
1. Decrease symptoms of acute attack and prevent recurrent attacks

  • NSAIDS – 1st line
  • _________ - inhibits the xanthine oxidase enzyme which prevents uric acid production
  • ________ - Reduces inflammatory response to the deposits or urate crystals in joint tissues
    Probenecid
  • __________ - Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in kidneys
    Promote excretion
A

Allupurinol
Colchicine
Probenecid

127
Q

osteomyelitis cause
________ on skin – _________ – gets into bone with open fracture and causes infection

A
  • bacteria on skin – staph aureus – gets into bone with open fracture and causes infection
128
Q

Reduces spinal fractures (not as well as raloxifene) and must take at least 5 years to see long term benefits

MOA – inhibits bone removal by osteoclasts

Treatment ONLY (not prevention)

Slows down bone loss and increases spinal bone density

Route
- intranasal (s/e nasal irritation)

can decrease pain in someone with hip fracture

A

Calcitonin-salmon
Hormone therapy

for osteoporosis

129
Q

Risk factors for what cancer
- Age >50
- Estrogen exposure
- Prolonged reproductive life – early menarche and/or late menopause (estrogen exposure)
- Obesity (estrogen storage in fat)
- Late childbirth – after age 30 (estrogen exposure)
- Nulliparous – no pregnancies (estrogen exposure)
- Family hx of breast or ovarian cancer
- Jewish women
- BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation

A

breast cancer

130
Q

Bone healing phases
________
o Hematoma forms at fracture site
o Provides stability
o Aseptic inflammation occurs
________
o Fibrous cartilage – granular tissues, containing blood vessels and blasts
o Callous – matured granular tissues
o Ossification – space in bone is bridged and fracture end united, callus is replaced by trabecular bone
_________
o healing is complete

– Reparative, - Remodeling, Inflammatory

A
  • Inflammatory
    o Hematoma forms at fracture site
    o Provides stability
    o Aseptic inflammation occurs
  • Reparative
    o Fibrous cartilage – granular tissues, containing blood vessels and blasts
    o Callous – matured granular tissues
    o Ossification – space in bone is bridged and fracture end united, callus is replaced by trabecular bone
  • Remodeling
    o Remodeling – healing is complete
131
Q

Cancer cell cycle vs normal cell cycle?
1. Stage G0
normal, cancer, or both have this stage?
2. Stage G1
normal, cancer, or both have this stage?
3. Stage S
normal, cancer, or both have this stage?
4. Stage G2
normal, cancer, or both have this stage?
5. Stage M
normal, cancer, or both have this stage?

A
  1. only normal cells
    normal – cell is at rest
    cancer – no resting period, no G0 stage
  2. both
  3. both
  4. both but -
    Normal – check point for DNA repair
    Cancer – mutation inactivates DNA repair gene, proliferation without control occurs
  5. both
132
Q

Methotrexate
DMARDS disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs
Antineoplastic
Anti-rhematic

treats?

A

RA

133
Q

DDD s/s
Lumbar
- Pain in lower back – radiates down to back of leg “________”
- Pain in _______ or thigh
- Pain that_______ when sitting, bending, lifting, twisting
- Pain that ________ when walking, changing positions, or lying down
- Numbness, tingling, weakness in ____
- Footdrop
Cervical
- Chronic neck pain – radiates to ______ and arms
- Numbness, tingling, weakness in arm or _____

A

DDD s/s
Lumbar
- Pain in lower back – radiates down to back of leg “sciatica”
- Pain in buttocks or thigh
- Pain that worsens when sitting, bending, lifting, twisting
- Pain that is minimized when walking, changing positions, or lying down
- Numbness, tingling, weakness in legs
- Footdrop
Cervical
- Chronic neck pain – radiates to shoulders and arms
- Numbness, tingling in arm or hand
- Weakness of arm or hand

134
Q

_______ complications:
1. Tophi – large hard nodules composed of uric acid crystals deposited in soft tissues
o May form below the skin around the joints
o Can cause a local inflammatory response
o May drain chalky material
2. Renal calculi – kidney stones

A

Gout

135
Q

systemic autoimmune disease that affects multiple organs and tissues.

an autoimmune disease, but it primarily affects the joints.

A

lupus

RA

136
Q

s/s of what cancer?
- Fatigue
- Weakness
- Weight loss
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Change in bowel habits
- Melena – blood stool
- Diarrhea
- Constipation
- hematochezia (rectal bleeding) and narrowing of stool caliber (ribbon like stool)

A

colorectal cancer

137
Q

2 major classes of cancer genes:
___________
- Genes that stimulate and regulate a cell’s movement through the cell cycle = cellular growth and proliferation (gas pedal)
- If mutated = “oncogenes” = the growth signal is constantly one, stimulating constant and unrelenting cellular proliferation and cell cycling

____________
- Normally function to restrain cell growth (brake pedal)
- If defective/inactivated = lose ability to inhibit cell growth and division = allows cancer to form

A

Proto-Oncogenes
Tumor suppressor genes

138
Q

s/s
early
- None
Late
- Fractures
- Pain
- Loss of height
- Stooped posture – kyphosis

A

Osteoporosis

139
Q

Systemic autoimmune disease
- Type III hypersensitivity - immune reaction mediated by immune complexes
- Inflammatory disease of synovium (joints)

A

rheumatoid arthritis

140
Q

cancer classification systems: staging system
requires biopsy

A

TNM system
staging classifies the tumor according to:
- T – tumor size, location, involvement
- N – lymph node involvement/spread
- M – metastasis to distant organs

141
Q

Uricosuric agent

MOA
Inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in kidneys
Promote excretion

Indications
- Treats hyperuricemia with gout

Used alone or with allopurinol when not effective alone

s/e
- GI upset – take with food
- Dizzy
- h/a
- kidney/liver impairment – watch for signs of kidney issues
- lots of drug interactions

A

Probenecid

for gout

142
Q

cancer classification systems: TNM system
1. T - tumor size, location, involvement
T0 =
TIS (tumor in situ) = stage of cancer where the tumor is _____ and has not _____

T1, T2, T3, T4 = progressive increase in tumor ______ (1cm – 4cm) or involvement (invading)

A

T0 = no evidence of primary tumor
TIS (tumor in situ) = stage of cancer where the tumor is confined to the original tissue and has not spread to nearby tissues or organs.

T1, T2, T3, T4 = progressive increase in tumor size (1cm – 4cm) or involvement (invading)

143
Q

Metastasis –
2 primary routes
1.
2.

A
  1. Lymphatic
  2. Vascular
144
Q

s/s
- Pain – mild or sever, usually LE (such as big toe)
- Burning
- Redness
- Swelling and warm
- Fever
- Symptoms last days to weeks

A

Gout

145
Q

Normal cell cycle Stages
Stage____ – cell is at rest
Stage ___ – cell enters the cell cycle
- Prepares for DNA replication
- Proto-oncogenes are activated – they control cell replication
Stage ____ – synthesis of structures
- Structures move to opposite poles in preparation for division into 2 separate cells
- 46 chromosomes separate into 23 at each opposite pole
Stage ____ – cells prepare to divide
Stage ____ – mitosis is complete and 2 daughter cells are created

A
  1. G0 - rest
  2. G1- enters cycle
  3. S - synthesis of structures
  4. G2 - prep for divide
  5. M - mitosis is complete
146
Q

Degenerative discs
- Intervertebral disc compression occurs with ____
- Motor and sensory spinal ______ enter and exit from the spinal cord and travel through narrow openings of the vertebral bone
- With age intervertebral disc _______ and vertebral bone become compressed = impinges on the entering and exiting of nerves
- Dysfunction of motor and sensory spinal nerves impedes movement and sensation in the _______
- May see weakness and parasthesias

A

Degenerative discs
- Intervertebral disc compression occurs with age
- Motor and sensory spinal nerves enter and exit from the spinal cord and travel through narrow openings of the vertebral bone
- With age intervertebral disc dehydrate and vertebral bone become compressed = impinges on the entering and exiting of nerves
- Dysfunction of motor and sensory spinal nerves impedes movement and sensation in the extremities
- May see weakness and parasthesias

147
Q

cancer classification systems: TNM system

  1. M – metastasis to distant organs
    M0 =

M1 =

A

M – metastasis to distant organs
M0 = none, cancer hasn’t spread to distant organs

M1 = yes, cancer has spread to distant organs

148
Q

RA, lupus, or both
1.Autoimmune
2.Systemic inflammation
3.Multiple body systems involved
4.NSAIDS
5.corticosteroids
6. hydroxychoroquine
7.methotrexate
8.focus on joints (sometimes organs)
9. focus on organs (sometimes joints)

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. B
  4. B
  5. B
  6. B
  7. B
  8. RA
  9. L
149
Q

treatment for OA
goals
1. manage_____ and reduce ______
2. maintain ________
3. minimize ________

A

treatment for OA
goals
1. manage pain and reduce swelling
2. maintain mobility
3. minimize disability

150
Q

Osteoporosis complications: Hip fracture
s/s
- Sudden onset of hip pain before or after fall?
- Inability to ____
- Severe _____ pain = displaced hip fracture (bones of the hip joint are broken and separated from their normal position)
- Affected leg is externally ____ and ____ = displaced hip fracture (bones of the hip joint are broken and separated from their normal position)
- Tenderness – the break is encapsulated pretty well so may not see anything

A
  • Sudden onset of hip pain before fall – fragility fracture
  • Sudden onset of hip pain after fall
  • Inability to walk
  • Severe groin pain = displaced hip fracture
  • Affected leg is external rotated and shortened = displaced hip fracture
  • Tenderness – the break is encapsulated pretty well so may not see anything
151
Q

class: Bisphosphonates
drug: Aldendronate

treatment for?

A

osteoporosis

152
Q

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 gene mutations increases risk of
(5) cancers

A
  • Breast cancer
  • Ovarian cancer
  • Colon cancer
  • Pancreatic cancer
  • Prostate cancer
153
Q

4 phases of carcinogenesis (cancer origin)
- _______ – change of genes that arise spontaneously or after exposure to carcinogenic agent
-________ – reversible, proliferating cells accumulate
________ – further mutation, invasive, spread potential
________– spread of cancer to distant site

Initiation-
Metastasis
Progression
Promotion

A

4 phases of carcinogenesis
- Initiation – change of genes that arise spontaneously or after exposure to carcinogenic agent
- Promotion – reversible, proliferating cells accumulate
- Progression – further mutation, invasive, spread potential
- Metastasis – spread of cancer to distant site

154
Q

Most common secondary tumors
(4)

A
  • Lungs
  • Bone
  • Liver
  • Brain
155
Q

Corticosteroids for RA
-_______sone – most common
- Rapid suppression of ___________
- Use only when symptoms not controlled with ___________
- T/F - Not best choice for long term therapy?
- T/F - usually large doses?

A

Corticosteroids
- Prednisone – most common
- Rapid suppression of inflammation
- Use only when symptoms not controlled with NSAIDS
- Not best choice for long term therapy
– usually small doses

156
Q

Risk factor for what cancer
- Smoking
- Hx STD
- HPV infection
- 2 or more sexual partners
- Immunosuppression
- Genetics

A

cervical