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Anatomy and Physiology > Final Exam Review: Neuro (12, 13, 14, 16) > Flashcards

Final Exam Review: Neuro (12, 13, 14, 16) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of neural cells?

A

Nuerons and Neuroglia

Neurons are the functional unit of the NS; they send and receive signals

Nueroglia are the structural cells that support and protect the neurons

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2
Q

What are the two structural divisions of the nervous system?

A

Central Nervous System

Peripheral Nervous System

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3
Q

Explain what afferent and efferent mean

A

Afferent: the sensory information going from the periphery to the CNS

Efferent: the motor information going from the CNS to the PNS

“Efferent Exits”

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4
Q

Describe the somatic nervous system

A

The SNS

Controls skeletal muscle contractions

Can be voluntary or involuntary

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5
Q

Describe the autonomic nervous system

A

The ANS aka visceral motor system

Regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

Involuntary

Divided into the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic systems

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6
Q

What are the three types of receptors?

A

Interoreceptors

Exteroceptors

Proprioceptors

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7
Q

Describe the structure of a typical neuron

A

A cell body contains the perikaryon (cytoplasm) and the nucleus

Many dendrites extend from one side of the cell body to reveive input

A single axon extends opposite the dendrites and branches at the end into telodendria

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8
Q

What are Nissl bodies?

A

The rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes within a neuron

These are the sites of neuronal protein synthesis

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9
Q

What portion of the neuron has the greates number of voltage gated sodium channels?

A

The axon hillock, which is located right where the cell body meets the axon.

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10
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

Chemical messengers that are released at the presynaptic membrane

They affect receptors located on the postsynaptic membrane

They are broken down by enzymes and reassembled in the synaptic terminal

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11
Q

What is the difference between a neurotransmitter and a hormone?

A

NTs diffuse across the synaptic cleft and act on postsynaptic cells

Hormones are chemicals released into the blood stream and travel to target tissues

**A single molecule can be a NT and a hormone depending on the circumstances, receptors…etc.

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12
Q

Can a single neuron release more than one type of neurotransmitter?

A

Yes. Many neurons are able to release multiple neurotransmitters.

Ex: neurons releasing dopamine and also a gas at the same time

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13
Q

What are the different types of synapses?

A

1) Synapses with another neuron
2) Synapses onto muscle “Neuromuscular Junctions”
3) Synapses onto gland cells “Neuroglandular Junctions”

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14
Q

What are the different types of neurons based on their structure?

A

Anaxonic: dendrites and axon are indistinguishable

Bipolar: cell body in middle, distinguishable dendrites and axon

Unipolar: dendrites and axon are continuous

Multipolar: cell body at end w/ dendrites, axon extending opposite

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15
Q

Describe interneurons

A

They are found between the sensory and motor neurons in the brain, spinal cord, and autonomic ganglia

They are responsible for distribution of sensory information and coordination of motor activity

Higher Functions: memory, planning, learning

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16
Q

What are the different types of neuroglia?

A

In the PNS: satellite cells and Schwann cells

In the CNS: Oligodendrocytes, Astrocytes, Microglia, and Ependymal cells

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17
Q

Where are ependymal cells found?

A

Lining the ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord

Produce, circulate, and monitor CSF

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18
Q

Where are astrocytes found, and what is their function?

A

They are found in the blood brain barrier,

Tthey provide structural support, regulate ion/nutrient/gas concentrations, absorb and recycle NTs, and form scar tissue after neural injury

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19
Q

Is there thought to be communication between neurons and astrocytes?

A

Yes NTs can bind to astrocytes, thus providing cross communication between neurons and astrocytes

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20
Q

What is the main phagocytic cell in the CNS?

A

Microglial cells

They are the main phagocytic cell and antigen presenting cells in the CNS.

Provide immunological surveillance

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21
Q

What is the main function of oligodendrocytes?

A

They provide electrical insulation for axons called myelin, which is made up of fat

This allows for signals to travel node-node

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22
Q

How do schwann cells differ from oligodendrocytes?

A

Schwann cells are found in the PNS, rather than oligodendrocytes in the CNS.

An entire Schwann cell surrounds each segment of an axon, whereas oligodendrocytes have many extensions covering many different axon segments

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23
Q

What is Wallerian degeneration?

A

After an injury to a neural cell, the axon distal to the site of injury degenerates

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24
Q

How are Schwann cells related to injury response?

A

Following injury, Schwann cells are able to form paths for new growth and wrap the new axon in myelin.

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25
Q

Why can’t neurons regenerate in the CNS?

A

The regeneration machinery exists, but astrocytes block their function by releasing chemicals.

The neural growth is blocked, and scar tissue is produced in the place of damaged tissue

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26
Q

What are the steps in the repair of damaged PNS tissue?

A

1) Wallerian degeneration occurs in distal stump
2) Schwann cells form cord that grows into the cut and unites the stump; macrophages clean up
3) Axon sends buds into the network of Schwann cells and begins to grow across gap
4) Axon continues to grow and is enclosed by Schwann cells

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27
Q

Describe the ionic balances between the intracellular and extracellular fluid

A

ICF: High K+, Low Na+

ECF: High Na+, Low K+

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28
Q

What are the 3 main concepts of the transmembrane potential?

A

1) The ECF and ICF differ greatly in ionic composition
2) Cells have selectively permeable membranes
3) Membrane permeability varies by ion (Pk+ >Pna+)

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29
Q

What are the 5 main processes in neural activities?

A

1) Resting potential
2) Graded potential
3) Action potential
4) Synaptic activity
5) Information processing

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30
Q

Are K+ leak channels always open?

A

No. Some can close, but 99% of time they are open

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31
Q

What is the ratio of Na/K transfered by the Na/K exchange pump?

A

3Na are transfered out for every 2K in

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32
Q

What are the typical equilibrium potentials for K+ and Na+?

A

K+ = -90 mV

Na+ = +66 mV

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33
Q

What molecules are responsible for the electrical current and the resistance seen in neurons?

A

Electrical currents: Na and K channels allowing for propagation of action potential

Resistance: myelin sheaths

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34
Q

What is the potential energy involved with the membrane?

A

The electrochemical gradient

For a particular ion it is the sum of all of the chemical and electrical forces that act on an ion across a plasma membrane

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35
Q

What is the relationship between resting membrane potential and the potassium ion?

A

Because the plasma membrane is highly permeable to potassium ions, the resting potential of approximately -70mV is close to -90mV, which is the equilibrium potential of K+

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36
Q

How does the Na+ ion affect the resting membrane potential?

A

It only has a small effect on the normal resting potential because the membranes permeability to these ions is very low

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37
Q

What equation predicts the membrane potential using multiple ions?

A

The GHK Equation

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38
Q

What is the difference between passive and active channels?

A
  • Passive channels = leak channels; almost always open, permeability changes with condition
  • Active channels = gated channels; open and close in response to stimuli

*At resting potential, most gated channels are closed

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39
Q

What are the 3 classes of gated channels?

A

Chemically gated channels

Voltage gated channels

Mechanically gated channels

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40
Q

Why does the transmembrane potential exist across plasma membranes?

A

Because the cytosol and extracellular fluid have different chemical/ionic balance

The membrane is selectively permeable

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41
Q

What is repolarization?

A

When the stimulus is removed, transmembrane potential returns to normal

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42
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

Increasing the negativity of the resing potential due to the opening of K+ channels

Opposite of the effect of opening a sodium channel

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43
Q

What is depolarization?

A

Creating a more positive charge

Na+ moving into the cell

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44
Q

Explain spatial and temporal summation of stimuli

A

Spatial: channels in the same area, when stimulated, will create an electrical current and sum up

Temporal: rapid stimulation of one channel

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45
Q

Relative to the site of stimulation, where is the transmembrane potential most affected?

A

It is most affected at the site of stimulation

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46
Q

Are graded potentials associated with depolarization or hyperpolarization?

A

TRICK QUESTION

Both. They can do either, depending on which channels are opened in response to a stimulus.

Na+ channels open –> depolarization

K+ channels open –> hyperpolarization

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47
Q

What is the effect of graded potentials at the cell body and dendrite?

A

Specific cellular functions such as exocytosis of glandular segretions are triggered

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48
Q

Describe an action potential

A

a short-lasting event in which the electrical membrane potential of a cell rapidly rises and falls, following a consistent trajectory

they link the graded potentials from the cell body with neurotransmitter release

Propagation occurs because of voltage gated channels that exist in the axon only

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49
Q

Describe the initial stimulus of an action potential

A

A graded depolarization of the axon hillock that is large enough to change the resting potential past the threshold level of voltage-gated sodium channels (~ -55 mV)

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50
Q

What is the all or none principle of action potentials?

A

If a stimulus exceeds a threshold amount, the actional potential has the same amplitude, no matter how large the stimulus is

The action potential is either triggered or it is not triggered

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51
Q

Explain the refractory period

A

The time period following the action potential when the membrane will not respond normally to additional stimuli.

Two types:

1) Absolute: sodium channels are open or inactivated; no action potential possible
2) Relative: Membrane potential almost normal; a very large stimulus can induce an action potential

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52
Q

How do the rates of Na and K channel opening differ during action potentials?

A

Na channels open quickly following depolarization, which causes the rising phase of the action potential

K+ channels open more slowly, which causes the peak and then the falling phase of the action potential

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53
Q

How does the extracellular potassium concentration alter the neuronal excitability?

A

Hyperkalemia: brings the membrane closer to the threshold lever, so a smaller stimulus will trigger an action potential (increased excitability)

Hypokalemia: Hyperpolarizes the membrane and makes the neuron less likely to fire an action potential in response to a normally sufficient stimulus (decreased excitability)

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54
Q

What are the two methods of propagating action potentials?

A

Continuous propagation: occurs in unmyelinated axons

Saltatory propagation: occurs in myelinated axons; preserves the signal and allows for faster signal transduction

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55
Q

What happens to neurons in the absence of ATP?

A

They stop functioning. ATP is required for maintaining the concentration gradients of Na+ and K+, which requires 1 ATP for each 2K+/3Na+ exchange

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56
Q

How are axon diameter and propagation speed related?

A

The are directly proportional: larger diameter axons have lower resistance and can therefore transmit the action potentials faster

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57
Q

What type of information is carried by large-diameter myelinated axons?

A

The most important information regarding vision, balance, and motor commands

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58
Q

What are the two types of synapses?

A

Electrical synapses: have direct physical contanct between pre and post-synaptic cells

Chemical synapses: the signal is transmitted across a gap (synaptic cleft) by chemical neurotransmitters

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59
Q

What are the two classes of neurotransmitter receptors?

A

Excitatory receptors: cause depolarization of postsynaptic membrane and promote the propagation of action potentials

Inhibitory receptors: cause hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane and supress action potentials

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60
Q

What is more important for dictating the effect of a neurotransmitter: the neurotransmitter itself, or its receptor?

A

The receptor determines the NT effect

Some NTs are excitatory in some tissues, but inhibitory in others due to different receptors

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61
Q

What role does calcium play in the synaptic cleft?

A

When an actional potential arrives at the synaptic knob, extracellular calcium enters the presynaptic cell triggering the exocytosis of ACh

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62
Q

What enzyme breaks down ACh in the synaptic cleft?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

It breaks ACh into Choline and Acetate, thus preventing constant stimulation of postsynaptic receptors

The Choline is taken back up by the presynaptic cell mitochondria where it is turned back into ACh via CoA

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63
Q

What are the different ways that neurotransmitters work?

A

Direct effects on membrane channels (ex: Ach)

Indirect effects via G proteins (ex: Epinephrine)

Indirect effects via intracellular enzymes (ex: NO)

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64
Q

Where are norepinephrine and epinephrine released from?

A

The adrenal medulla

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65
Q

What are the characteristics of neuromodulators?

A
  • Effects are long term, slow to appear, remain in CSF
  • responses involve multiple steps with intermediary compounds
  • Affect presynaptic membrane, postsynaptic membrane or both
  • released alone or with a neurotransmitter
  • not reabsorbed by presynaptic cell or broken down into a metabolite
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66
Q

Describe the process of presynaptic inhibition by an interneuron

A

An action potential from the interneuron stimulates GABA release which inactivates the presynaptic calcium channels

When an action potential arrives from the presynaptic axon, less calcium enters than normal, leading to less neurotransmitter being released, and a smaller effect observed on the postsynaptic membrane.

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67
Q

Describe the process of presynaptic facilitation

A

An action potential arrives from an interneuron which triggers serotonin release. The serotonin activates the presynaptic calcium channels.

When the action potential arrives from the presynaptic cell, more calcium enters than usual, which leads to more neurotransmitter being released and an increased effect on the postsynaptic membrane

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68
Q

What is the simplest form of information processing in the nervous system?

A

A change in transmembrane potential that determines whether or not action potentials are generated

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69
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Acetyl Choline and where is it found?

A

Direct effect through binding to chemically gated channels

ACh is found in the CNS throughout the brain and the spinal cord and also in the PNS neuromuscular junctions, preganglionic synapses of the ANS

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70
Q

What is the mechanism of action of norepinephrine and epinephrine and where are they found?

A

Indirect via G proteins and second messengers

E: found in the thalamus, hypothalamus, midbrain and spinal cord

NE: found in the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus, brain stem, cerebellum and spinal cord as well as in the PNS neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions of the ANS

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71
Q

What are the major excitatory neurotransmitters?

A

Glutamate and Asparatate

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72
Q

What are the major inhibitory neurotransmitters?

A

GABA and Glycine

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73
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord

A

The spinal cord is about 18 inches long and 1/2 inch wide

It ends between the L1 and L2 vertebrae

There are 31 spinal cord segments based on the vertebrae that the spinal nerves originate from

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74
Q

How many of each type of vertebrae are there?

A

7 cervical

12 Thoracic

5 Lumbar

1 Sacral (fused)

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75
Q

What is different about the names of the cervical spinal nerves than the thoracic and lumbar nerves?

A

There are 8 cervical nerves and only 7 cervical vertebrae.

The cervical nerves leave above their corresponding vertebrae, except for C8, which is between C7 and T1.

After the cerivical region, the peripheral nerves always exit the spinal column below the vertebrae they share a name with

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76
Q

Which regions of the spinal cord have large gray matter regions?

A

The cervical and the lumbar regions have enlargements because of increased interneurons

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77
Q

Describe the distal end of the spinal cord

A

The conus medullaris begins at L1, which is where the spinal cord technically ends.

The cauda equina extends from L2 to S5

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78
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

At the distal end of the spinal cord, this space contains CSF and spinal nerve roots. This is often the target for lumbar punctures

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79
Q

What is the epidural space, and what can be found within it?

A

The space located superficial to the dura matter.

It contains areolar, adipose, and blood vessels

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80
Q

What is found within the subarachnoid space?

A

Between the arachnoid matter and the pia matter

CSF, matrix collagen and elastin, arachnoid trabeculae

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81
Q

What type of information passes through the ventral roots of spinal nerves?

A

Motor information from the CNS to the muscles (somatic NS)

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82
Q

What are the three layers of the spinal meninges?

A

Dura matter: dense irregular CT that fuses with the periosteum at the foramen magnum

Arachnoid matter: covered by simple squamous epithelium

Pia matter: elastin and collagen fibers; contains the denticulate ligaments and the blood vessels for the spinal cord

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83
Q

Which side of the spinal cord has a more prominent fissure/sulcus?

A

The anterior median fissure is much more prominant than the posterior median sulcus

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84
Q

Which nuclei are found within the posterior gray horn of the spinal cord?

A

Somatic and visceral sensory nuclei with information coming from the dorsal root

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85
Q

Which nuclei are found in the lateral gray horn of the spinal cord?

A

The visceral motor nuclei

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86
Q

Which nuclei are found in the anterior gray horn of the spinal cord?

A

The somatic motor nuclei are found in the anterior gray horn of the spinal cord

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87
Q

How is the white matter of the spinal cord divided?

A

It is divided into regions or columns

Each column contains tracts or fasciculi that share functional and structural characteristics.

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88
Q

What are the 2 major dorsal columns fo the spinal cord?

A

The cuneate fasciculus and the gracile fasciculus are two sensory tracts that ascend through the posterior white matter in the spinal cord

Cuneate: discriminative touch and proprioception in the upper limb; located laterally to the gracile

Gracile: discriminative touch in the lower limb

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89
Q

Describe the path of the dorsal and ventral roots out of the spinal cord.

A

The dorsal root leaves posterior to the ventral root. After passing through the dorsal root ganglion, the dorsal root joins with the ventral root to form a spinal nerve

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90
Q

What are mixed nerves?

A

Nerves that contain both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) fibers

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91
Q

What is the difference between the white and gray ramus?

A

They carry visceral motor fibers to and from a nearby autonomic ganglion associated with the sympathetic NS

The white ramus is white because the preganglionic axons are myelinated

The gray ramus is gray because postganglionic fibers are unmyelinated. These fibers rejoin with the spinal nerve proximal to the white ramus and then travel to their target tissue

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92
Q

Compare the dorsal and ventral rami of the motor nerves

A

The dorsal ramus contains somatic and visceral motor fibers and innervates the back.

The ventral ramus is the larger branch and innervates the ventrolateral structures and the limbs

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93
Q

Describe the organization of spinal (peripheral) nerves?

A

Organized similar to skeletal muscles.

An Epineurium coverst the entire peripheral nerve.

The perineurium covers each fascicle within the nerve.

The endoneurium surrounds each individual myelinated axon

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94
Q

How does the path of visceral motor neurons out of the spinal cord differ from the path of somatic motor neurons?

A

Both travel out of the spine through the ventral root.

The visceral motor neurons travel through the white ramus to the ganglion. There they synapse with a postganglionic cell that returns the signal through the gray ramus to the spinal nerve

The somatic motor neurons travel through the ventral root and go directly to their destinations without synapsing within a ganglion.

Both, after rejoining divide into the ventral and dorsal rami

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95
Q

What are dermatomes?

A

Bilateral of the skin supplied mainly by a single spinal nerve

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96
Q

Which spinal nerves join together to form the phrenic nerve?

A

C3, C4, and C5 join together to form the phrenic nerve

The phrenic nerve passes down between the lung and the heart to reach the diaphragm

“C3, C4, C5 keep the diaphragm alive”

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97
Q

Which spinal nerves are involved in the brachial plexus?

A

C5 through T1

98
Q

What are the different segments of the plexus?

A

Going from medial to lateral:
Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, and Peripheral Nerves

99
Q

How many trunks are there in the brachial plexus?

A

3: Superior, middle and inferior

100
Q

What are the terminal branches of the brachial plexus?

A

Musculocutaneous n.

Axillary n.

Radial n.

Median n.

Ulnar n.

“UM….ARM”

101
Q

Which side of the palm does the median nerve innervate?

A

The median nerve innervates the lateral side of the palm

102
Q

Which spinal nerves contribute to the lumbar plexus?

A

T12 through L5

103
Q

What is the major nerve emerging from the sacral plexus?

A

The sciatic nerve, which contains the anterior tibial and fibular nerves wrapped together in connective tissue

104
Q

What are the nerves that innervate the foot region?

A

Saphenous: medial side of ankle/foot

Sural: lateral side of ankle/foot

Tibial: Bottom of foot and posterior heel region

Fibular: Top of foot

105
Q

What are the different classifications of neuronal pools?

A

Divergence

Convergence

Serial processing

Parallel processing

Reverberation

106
Q

What are neural reflexes?

A

Rapid automatic responses to specific stimuli that are the basic builiding blocks of neural function

The reflex arc occurs without input through the brain, only via a synapse within the spinal cord

They generally oppose the original stimulus (negative feedback)

107
Q

Describe the path from stimulus to effector in a typical reflex arc

A

1) Sensory neurons are activated from the stimulus
2) They travel through the dorsal root ganglion and into the dorsal grey horn
3) Synapse with an interneuron that branches to a ventral root neuron and also passes info contrallaterally to the brain
4) The ventral root motor neuron is activated
5) The effector muscle contracts in response to stimulation by the motor neuron.

108
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

A reflex arc without an interneuron. The only synapse is between the sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord.

109
Q

What are the five general charactersistics of polysynaptic reflexes?

A

1) Involve pools of neurons
2) Are intersegmental in distribution
3) Involve reciprocal inhibition
4) Have reverberating circuits
5) Several reflexes cooperate
example: pain reflex when touching hot pan

110
Q

What are ipsilateral reflex arcs?

A

They occur on the same side of the body as the stimulus

ex: stretch, tendon, and withdrawal reflexes

Opposite: contralateral reflex arc

111
Q

What is the Babinski sign?

A

When the plantar reflex is wrong. Normally, by stimulating the bottom of the foot, the patient will respond with plantar flexion.

If they dorsiflex instead, this is indicative of WM damage to the spinal cord

112
Q

What are the four functional classifications of the cranial nerve fibers?

A

1) Sensory nerves
2) Special sensory nerves (smell, hearing, balance)
3) Motor nerves
4) Mixed nerves

113
Q

What are the cranial nerves, in order?

A

I) Olfactory nerve

II) Optic nerve

III) Oculomotor nerve

IV) Trochlear nerve

V) Trigeminal nerve

VI) Abducens nerve

VII) Facial nerve

VIII) Vestibulocochlear nerve

IX) Glossopharyngeal nerve

X) Vagus nerve

XI) Accessory nerve

XII) Hypoglossal nerve

114
Q

What is the mneumonic for the cranial nerve names? and their types?

A

Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch A Female’s Vagina Gives Vinay A Hard-on

Some Say Marry Money, But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter Most

115
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)?

A

The vestibular branch is important for balance and equilibrium

The cochlear branch if important for hearing

116
Q

What does the hypoglossal nerve (XII) do?

A

Tongue movements

117
Q

What is the largest cranial nerve?

A

The trigeminal nerve

it has 3 major branches: the opthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular branches

118
Q

What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve (VII)?

A

Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical

119
Q

What are the main functions of the Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)?

A

Innervates the posterior third of the tastebuds on the tongue

Also important for regulating blood pressure by carotid body pressure receptors

120
Q

What is the longest cranial nerve?

A

The vagus nerve (X)

The only CN to leave the head

Extends down into the abdomen for visceral motor functioning of the digestive, respiratory and CV systems

121
Q

What are the somatic cranial reflexes?

A

Corneal reflex: causes blinking upon contact with cornea (V –> VII)

Tympanic reflex: loud noise (VIII —>VII)

Auditory reflex: loud noise causis eye/head movements (VIII –> III,IV,VI,VII, X and cervical nerves)

Vestibulo-ocular reflexes: movement of eyes opposite rotation of head (VIII —> III,IV,VI)

122
Q

Describe the size and weight of a typical adult human brain

A

Volume between 750cc and 2100 cc

Weight about 1.4 kg

123
Q

How many primary brain vesicles are there?

A

3: Prosencephalon, Mesencephalon, Rhobencephalon

124
Q

How many secondar brain vesicles are there?

A

5: Telencephalon, Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, Metencephalon, Myelencephalon

125
Q

From what vesicle is the cerebrum formed?

A

The telencephalon develops into the cerebrum at birth

126
Q

From what vesicle do the cerebellum and the pons develop from?

A

The metencephalon develops into the cerebellum and the pons

127
Q

What are the major regions of the diencephalon?

A

The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus

128
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Relay and processing center for sensory information

129
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Contains centers for controlling emotion, autonomic functions, and hormone production

4 Fs: Fighting, Fleeing, Feeding and Fucking

130
Q

What is the difference between a sulci and a fissure?

A

Sulci are shallow ridges in the cerebral surface, fissures are deeper more prominent ridges

131
Q

What is the oldest part of the brain (evolutionarily)?

A

The medulla oblongota

Contains the autonomic centers for regulation of visceral function (CV, respiratory, and digestive systems)

132
Q

How is the brain protected and supported?

A

Physical protection: cranial bones, cranial meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid

Biochemical isolation: blood brain barrier

133
Q

What is the difference between the cranial dura matter and the peripheral dura matter?

A

The cranial dura matter is subdivided into two parts: osteo and meningal layers

134
Q

What is the dorsum sellae?

A

“back of the saddle”

A double layer of pia mater that holds the pituitary gland in place

135
Q

What are the major ventricles of the brain?

A

The lateral ventricles and the thrid and fourth ventricles

136
Q

What segarates the left and right lateral ventricles?

A

The septum pellucidum

It runs as a sheet from the corpus callosum down to the fornix

137
Q

What connects the third and fourth ventricles?

A

The aqueduct of the midbrain

138
Q

What are arachnoid granulations?

A

Small protrusions of the arachnoid mater into the dura mater.

The allow CSF to exit the sub arachnoid space and enter the blood stream

139
Q

What are the functions of the CSF?

A

Cusion the neural structures

Support the brain

Transport, nutrients, chemical messengers, and waste products

140
Q

How is CSF formed?

A

CSF is produced by ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the brain (50-70%).

Carbonic anhydrase and the sodium potassium pump are crucial for CSF formation

141
Q

Describe the blood-csf barrier

A

Choroid epithelial cells joined together by tight junctions separate the capillaries from the CSF

These capillaries have fenestrations and intercellular gaps that allow for free movement of molecules across the endothelial cell

The CSF facing sides of the epithelial cells have microvilli that increase surface area for diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active transport into the CSF, and active transport of metabolites into the blood.

142
Q

Where are the 4 breaks in the blood brain barrier?

A

1) Hypothalamus: for hormone secretion
2) Posterior lobe of pituitary gland: ADH and oxytocin
3) Pineal gland
4) Choroid plexus

143
Q

What is the cerebral arterial circle?

A

Formerly called the “Circle of Willis”

A loop of arteries that supply blood to the brain.

Made up of: Anterior communicating, anterior cerebral, posterior communicating, and posterior cerebral arteries

Main feeds: R&L internal caratids, basilar artery

144
Q

How is the fluid from the brain separated from the fluid in the blood circulation?

A

The blood-brain-barrier and the blood-CSF barrier separate the chemicals

Prevents chemicals from blood stream that would interfere with neurons from entering the CSF

145
Q

Describe the medulla oblongata

A

The lower half of the brainstem

Contains the cardiac, respiratory, vomiting and vasomotor centers and deals with autonomic, involuntary functions

146
Q

Where is the pons located?

A

above the medulla, below the midbrain, and anterior to the cerebellum

147
Q

What does the pons do?

A

The pons conduct signals from the cerebrum down to the cerebellum and medulla(descending tracts), and ascending tracts that carry the sensory signals up into the thalamus

148
Q

Where is the pneumotaxic center and what does it do?

A

It is located within the Pons

It regulates the change from inspiration to expiration

149
Q

What is the mesencephalon?

A

The midbrain

Made up of the tectum and the cerebral peduncles

associated with vision, hearing, motor control, sleep/wake, arousal (alertness), and temperature regulation

150
Q

Describe the cross sectional view of the midbrain

A
151
Q

What is the major function of the reticular formation of the brainstem?

A

It filters the incoming stimuli to discriminate irrelevant stimuli

Very important for consciousness

152
Q

What do the cerebaellar peduncles connect?

A

They connect the cerebellum to the brainstem

153
Q

What is the function of the olivary nucleus?

A

Relays info to the cerebellum. Important for motor learning.

154
Q

What are the two major things that the cardiovascular centers of the medulla oblongota regulate?

A

1 part regulates the rhythm of heart beating

1 part regulates vasoconstriction

155
Q

What is the function of the nucleus gracilis and the nucleus cuneatus?

A

They relay somatic sensory information to the thalamus

156
Q

What are the major regions contained in the midbrain?

A

The superior and inferior colliculi on the dorsal surface make up the “tectum”

The substantia nigra and the red nucleus are found within the ventral portion “tegmentum”

157
Q

Describe the red nucleus

A

The red nucleus is a gray matter region found in the midbrain.

It controls subconcious motor movements such as swinging your arms when you walk.

158
Q

What are the major functions of the cerebellum?

A

It plays an important role in motor control

Also: cognitive functions like attention and language; recording rapid stimuli

159
Q

What are the lobes of the cerebellum?

A

The Anterior Lobe

The Posterior Lobe

The Flocculonodular Lobe

160
Q

What are the 4 deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

Dentate

Emboliform

Globose

Fastigal

“Dont Eat Greasy Food’ lateral to medial

161
Q

What are the major cells contained in cerebellar circuits?

A

Purkinje cells

Mossy fibers

Granule cells

Parallel fibers

Climbing fibers

162
Q

What is the ultimate destination of the afferent pathways to the cerebellar cortex?

A

The purkinje cells

They receive input from the excitatory parallel fibers and the modulatory climbing fibers

163
Q

Describe the structure of the cerebellar circuitry

A

Purkinje cells are highly branched cells that occupy planes within the cerebellum.

They receive input from parallel fibers, which travel perpendicular to the Purkinje plane after bifurcating from the granule cell axons.

Climbing fibers provide modulatory input to purkinje cells and granule cells

164
Q

Describe the synapses within the cerebellum as inhibitory or excitatory.

A

The parallel fiber and climbing fibers, mossy fibers are excitatory

The purkinje cell synapses onto the deep cerebellar nuclei and is inhibitory

165
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Damage to the cerebellum due to trauma or stroke. It disturbs muscle coordination.

Intoxication can also cause temporary impairment

166
Q

What is the main component of the diencephalon?

A

The thalamus

167
Q

Which sensory system does not have a corresponding thalamic nucleus?

A

The olfactory system

168
Q

What embryological region is said to be the bridge between the endocrine and the nervous system?

A

The diencephalon is the bridge between the endocrine and the nervous system. The hypothalamus produces hormones (oxytocin and ADH) that are secreted into the blood stream by the pituitary gland.

169
Q

What are the major things that the hypothalamus controls?

A

body temperature, hunger, thirst, fatigue, sleep, and circadian cycles

170
Q

What regions are considered to be part of the limbic system?

A

hippocampus, amygdalae, anterior thalamic nuclei, septum, limbic cortex and fornix

171
Q

What is the limbic system primarily responsible for?

A

Emotions and formation of memories

172
Q

What links the conscious cortex with the autonomic brainstem?

A

The limbic system

173
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the amygdaloid body?

A

It regulates fear responses

174
Q

What is the fornix?

A

The white matter tracts connecting the hippocampus with the hypothalamus

175
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the cerebrum?

A

Frontal

Temporal

Parietal

Occipital

176
Q

What is the insula?

A

a portion of the cerebral cortex folded deep within the lateral sulcus, the fissure separating the temporal and the frontal lobes

177
Q

What are the association areas of the brain, and in which lobes are each found?

A

The somatic sensory association area is in the parietal lobe

The visual association area is in the occipital lobe

The auditory association area is in the temporal lobe

178
Q

Which Brodman’s areas are associated with the primary motor cortex and the somatosensory cortex?

A

Primary motor= BA4

Somatosensory = BA1

179
Q

What are the different white matter fiber types of the cerebrum?

A

Association: connect different parts of same hemisphere

Commussural: connect the two hemishperes of the cerebrum

Projection: connect inferior to superior regions

180
Q

Describe the basal nuclei (basal ganglia)

A

situated at the base of the forebrain

Components:caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, the substantia nigra, and the subthalamic nucleus

Movement planning, and feelings at a subconscious level

181
Q

What are the differences between the left and right hemisphere of the cerebrum?

A

The left hemisphere controls: reading, writing and math, decision making, speech and language

The right hemisphere relates to: senses, recognition of faces, voice inflections

182
Q

Where are the integrative centers for the ANS located?

A

in the hypothalamus

“the control center”

183
Q

What are postganglionic fibers?

A

The axons of ganglionic neurons

184
Q

Where are the nuclei for the preganglionic motor neurons located?

A

The are located in the primary motor cortex

185
Q

Compare and contrast the functions of the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic divisions of the ANS

A

Sympathetic: Fight or Flight; increases alertness, metabolic rate and muscular abilities while stopping digestion

Parasympathetic: Rest and Digest; reduces metabolic rate and promotes digestion

186
Q

Which ANS division innervates sweat glands?

A

Sympathetic NS

187
Q

Describe the fiber lengths of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Preganglionic fibers are short

Postganglionic fibers are long

(with the exception of the adrenal medulla)

188
Q

What are the 7 responses of increased sympathetic activity?

A

1) Heightened mental alertness
2) Increased metabolic rate
3) Reduced digestive and urinary functinos
4) Energy reserves activated
5) Increased respiratory rate
6) Increased heart rate and blood pressure
7) Sweat glands activated

189
Q

Where do the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate from?

A

The brain stem and the sacral segments of the spinal cord (craniosacral)

190
Q

Describe the fiber lengths of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Preganglionic fibers are long

Postganglionic fibers are short

191
Q

What are the 5 responses to increased parasympathetic activation?

A

1) Increased metabolic rate
2) Decreased heart rate and blood pressure
3) Increased secretion by salivary and digestive glands
4) Increased motility and blood flow in GI tract
5) Urination and defecation stimulation

192
Q

What is the enteric nervous system?

A

A third division of the ANS that is only in the GI tract and does not require communication from the CNS

193
Q

Where are the sympathetic preganglionic neurons originating from?

A

Between segments T1-L2 of the spinal cord

194
Q

Where are the sympathetic ganglionic neurons found?

A

Near the vertebral column in the “sympathetic chain”

Also some are collateral ganglia (ENS function?)

Adrenal medullae

195
Q

What are the inputs and outputs to sympathetic chain ganglia?

A

White rami are inputs

Gray rami are outputs

196
Q

Do neurons traveling to collateral ganglia go through white rami, gray rami, or both?

A

They travel through the white rami, but NOT the gray rami. They go straight from the through the chain ganglion without synapsing and head to the collateral ganglion

197
Q

Which sympathetic response route is the strongest: chain ganglia, collateral ganglia, or adrenal medulla?

A

The adrenal medulla response is the strongest because hormones are released straight into the bloodstream in the kidneys leading to a rapid global response

198
Q

How is the signal amplified in the sympathetic chain ganglia?

A

One preganglionic fiber synapses on many ganglionic neurons

199
Q

Are postganglionic fibers myelinated or unmyelinated in the sympathetic division?

A

Unmyelinated. Leave the ganglia through the gray rami

200
Q

The regions corresponding with which cranial nerves are innervated by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

A

CN III, VII, IX, and X

201
Q

What are splanchnic nerves?

A

They are nerves formed by preganglionic fibers that innervate collateral ganglia in the dorsal wall of the abdominal cavity (just in front of retroperitoneal cavity)

Many spinal nerves join together to form the splanchnic nerves.

202
Q

Where do the preganglionic fibers from the seven inferior thoracicc segments end?

A

They end at the celiac ganglion or the superior mesenteric ganglion (Collateral Ganglia)

203
Q

What organs do the postganglionic fibers of the celiac ganglion innervate?

A

Stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen

204
Q

What do the mesenteric ganglion postganglionic fibers innervate?

A

Superior mesenteric: The small intestine and proximal 2/3 of the large intestine

Inferior mesenteric: Large intestine, kidney, bladder, sex organs

205
Q

What do the preganglionic fibers synapse on in the adrenal medulla?

A

Neuroendicrine cells that secrete hormones into the bloodstream in a matter of seconds

206
Q

What are the neurotransmitters associated with the adrenal medulla?

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

Norepinephrine

207
Q

What neurotransmitter is typically released at sympathetic synapses?

A

Acetyl choline (ACh)

208
Q

What are sympathetic varicosities?

A

Swollen areas at the end of unmyelinated postganglionic fibers.

Filled with vesicles containing neurotransmitters

These enlargements form the synaptic contact with the target tissue

209
Q

What is the difference between cholinergic and andrenergic neurons?

A

Cholinergic neurons release acetyl choline and andrenergic neurons release norepinephrine

210
Q

How does the release of NE and E lead to sympathetic stimulation?

A

Via the action of G proteins with Alpha receptors or beta receptors that activate enzymes on the inside of cell membranes

211
Q

Where are cholinergic sympathetic terminals found?

A

The sympathetic synapses to sweat glands of the skin and blood vessels of the muscles and brain are cholinergic

Stimulates sweat secretion and dilation of blood vessels

212
Q

What is the major effect of nitric oxide (NO) as a neurotransmitter?

A

It produces vasodilation, increased blood flow

213
Q

Where are parasympathetic terminal ganglia usually found?

A

Near the target organ

Long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers

214
Q

Which nerve provides ~75% of all parasympathetic outflow?

A

The Vagus Nerve (CN IX)

215
Q

Does the parasympathetic NS have a global effect?

A

No, just local effects.

A global effect would set the heart rate to 0

216
Q

What are the major effects of the parasympathetic NS?

A

1) Constriction of pupils
2) Secretion by digestive glands
3) Secretion of hormones that promote absorption and utilization of nutrients by peripheral cells
4) Increase smooth muscle activity
5) Stimulation and coordination of defacation
6) Contraction of urinary bladder during urination
7) Constriction of respiratory passageways
8) Reduction in HR and in force of contraction

217
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for all parasympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions?

A

Acetylcholine

218
Q

What is the difference between a drug and a toxin?

A

A drug produces a controlled response, whereas a toxin produces an exaggerated uncontrolled response

219
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a muscarinic toxin?

A

DUMBELLS: diarrhea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis (vomitting), lacrimation, lethargy, salivation

blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, hot as a hare, dry as a bone, the bowel and bladder lose their tone, and the heart runs alone

Drugs: antihistamines, anticholinergics, antiparkinsonians, antidepressants

220
Q

Describe the dual innervation by sympathetic and parasympathetic onto major organs

A

Most vital organs receive instructions from both S and PS divisions, which provide opposing effects, allow for fine tuning and regulation

221
Q

Describe autonomic plexuses

A

Nerve networks in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

Contain sympathetic postganglionic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers

222
Q

What is autonomic tone, and why is it important?

A

The nerves maintain a resting level of spontaneous activity so that they can increase OR decrease in response to stimuli

223
Q

What is the difference between a short reflex arc and a long reflex arc?

A

Short reflex arcs are found in the GI tract and go directly from sensory neurons to autonomic ganglia without passing through the spinal cord

Long reflex arcs pass through the spinal cord before passing back out through the autonomic ganglia

224
Q

Where are complex reflexes such as salivation and swallowing controlled?

A

In the medulla oblongata, regulated by the hypothalamus

225
Q

What are the three characteristics of higher order functions?

A

1) require the cerebral cortex
2) involve conscious and unconscious information processing
3) Are not part of programmed “wiring” of the brain (they are reprogrammable)

226
Q

What are the two types of memory?

A

Declarative (fact memories): specific bits of information

Procedural (skill memories): learned motor behaviors

227
Q

What brain regions are involved with procedural memories?

A

Basal nuclei, cerebral cortex, and cerebellum

228
Q

What is memory consilidation?

A

Conversion from short-term to long-term memory

229
Q

What are the two types of long-term memory?

A

Secondary memories: fade and require effort to recall

Tertiary memories: permanent imprints (ex: middle name)

230
Q

What are the brain regions involved with memory consolidation and access?

A

The amygdaloid body and hippocampus, nucleus basalis, and cerebral cortex

231
Q

What is anterograde amnesia? Damage to what region can cause this?

A

The inability to convert short-term memories to new long-term memories

Damage to amygadaloid body and hippocampus

232
Q

What is the cellular mechanism for memory formation and storage?

A

Increased neurotransmitter (Glutamate) is released and binds to NMDA receptors

This leads to facilitation at the synapses: more glutamate released next time, more receptors present

Leads to additional synaptic connections and synaptic growth

233
Q

Why is procedural memory harder to forget completely?

A

It involves more complex circuits involving more senses

234
Q

Describe an NMDA receptor

A

Chemically gated calcium channels that are linked to consolidation

Activated by glutamate

Blocking these receptors prevents long term memory formation

235
Q

During REM, are you more or less aware of outside stimuli than in deep sleep?

A

Less aware because of dreaming

236
Q

Why does muscle tone decrease markedly during REM sleep?

A

So that sleeping people don’t act out their dreams, decoupling of peripheral motor neurons and CNS

237
Q

What is the relationship between the RAS activity and the cerebral cortex?

A

When the RAS is inactive, so is the cerebral cortex

This is why a stroke in the RAS causes a coma

238
Q

What happens to patients with Huntington’s disease?

A

The ACh-secreting and GABA secreting neurons in the basal nuclei are destroyed

This leads to difficulty controlling movements and gradual decline of intellectual ability

239
Q

What is the effect of LSD?

A

A powerful hallucinogenic drug that activates serotonin receptors in the brain stem, hypothalamus, and lymbic system

240
Q

What happens when serotonin is inhibited?

A

Compounds that inhibit or block serotonin cause severe depression and anxiety

SSRIs

Anatomy and Physiology (4 decks)

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